Kathleen Jackson
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Nursing Quiz on P&P1 Revision Tri1 2018 Part 2, created by Kathleen Jackson on 15/06/2018.

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Kathleen Jackson
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P&P1 Revision Tri1 2018 Part 2

Question 1 of 100

1

Which of the following is a systemic sign of infection?

Select one of the following:

  • Pain

  • Erythema

  • Swelling

  • Fatigue

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Which of the following does NOT directly determine the virulence of a microbe?

Select one of the following:

  • Whether its gram positive or negative

  • Invasive qualities

  • Ability to mutate

  • Production of toxins

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

The widespread necrosis of respiratory mucosa caused by an influenza infection often gives rise to:

Select one of the following:

  • Subclinical infections

  • Primary infections

  • Secondary infections

  • Tertiary infections

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

Which of the following bodily fluids would you expect to be sterile?

Select one of the following:

  • Blood

  • Vaginal discharge

  • Faeces

  • Sputum

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

That time during an infection when the infected person may experience a headache or fatigue and senses he or she is “coming down with something” is referred to as which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Subclinical

  • Acute

  • Prodromal

  • Incubation

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

Which of the following is a local sign of infection?

Select one of the following:

  • Fever and leukocytosis

  • Headache and anorexia

  • Nausea, weight loss, and fatigue

  • Pain, erythema, and swelling

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?

Select one of the following:

  • To provide a specific medium that supports maximum microbial growth

  • To provide living host cells for microbes requiring such for replication

  • To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it

  • To determine the type of microbe present in a specimen

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?

Select one of the following:

  • Presence of viral infection

  • Presence of bacterial infection

  • Bone marrow damage

  • Immunosuppression

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

Secondary immune deficiencies occur because of:

Select one of the following:

  • Lack of protein in the diet

  • Long term use of prednisone

  • Stressful job

  • All answers are correct

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

A common symptom of individuals with immunodeficiency is:

Select one of the following:

  • Anaemia

  • Recurrent infections

  • Lots of allergies

  • Auto antibody production

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

Primary immune deficiencies occur because of:

Select one of the following:

  • bad nutrition

  • a genetic defect

  • recurrent infections

  • chronic diseases affecting the immune system

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

Immunodeficiencies may result in an increased risk of infections by normally harmless microorganisms. These infections are referred to as:

Select one of the following:

  • transient

  • pathogenic

  • opportunistic

  • virulent

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

Which of the following is an effect of cytokines? They:

Select one of the following:

  • increase the rate of mitosis in tumors.

  • cause immediate pain.

  • activate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes.

  • destroy antigens quickly.

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

An incompatible blood transfusion is an example of this type of hypersensitivity reaction:

Select one of the following:

  • Type IV

  • Type III

  • Type II

  • Type I

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

Reaction to latex gloves (in most cases) is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction:

Select one of the following:

  • Type IV

  • Type III

  • Type II

  • Type I

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

In this type of reaction, the antigen and antibody combine forming an immune complex which then can get deposited into tissue for example the kidneys.

Select one of the following:

  • Type I

  • Type II

  • Type III

  • Type IV

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

A bee sting that causes a person to go into anaphylactic shock is an example of this type of hypersensitivity reaction:

Select one of the following:

  • Type I

  • Type II

  • Type III

  • Type IV

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

The first line of defense which changes very little during our lifetime is called

Select one of the following:

  • Passive immunity

  • Active immunity

  • Adaptive immune response

  • Innate immune response

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

Humoral immunity is mediated by:

Select one of the following:

  • T lymphocytes (T cells).

  • B lymphocytes (B cells).

  • natural killer cells.

  • neutrophils.

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

Which white blood cells are responsible for adaptive immunity:

Select one of the following:

  • Monocytes

  • Eosinophils

  • Neutrophils

  • Lymphocytes

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

A molecule that will stimulate the adaptive immune response:

Select one of the following:

  • Antigen

  • Pathogen

  • Immunoglobulin

  • Antibody

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

Neutrophils:

Select one of the following:

  • produce histamine.

  • produce antibodies.

  • are elevated during an allergic response.

  • are phagocyte cells.

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

The role of memory cells is to:

Select one of the following:

  • change into an antibody-secreting cell following activation.

  • immediately secrete antibodies following the first exposure to antigen.

  • recognize the antigen and stimulate the immune response.

  • bind complement to the antibody.

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

Humoral immunity is mediated by:

Select one of the following:

  • Natural killer cells

  • T cells

  • B cells

  • Neutrophils

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

The most abundant, actively motile, phagocytic leukocyte is the:

Select one of the following:

  • Neutrophil

  • Monocyte

  • Basophil

  • Macrophage

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?

Select one of the following:

  • T-helper cells

  • Macrophages

  • Eosinophils

  • Monocytes

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

The immunoglobulin that is found in tears and saliva is:

Select one of the following:

  • IgB

  • IgA

  • IgM

  • IgG

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

Exposure to peanuts where the person goes into anaphylactic shock is an example of this type of hypersensitivity reaction:

Select one of the following:

  • Type III

  • Type I

  • Type II

  • Type IV

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

A common primary target for most immunosuppressant drugs is:

Select one of the following:

  • B cell activation

  • Macrophages

  • All cytokines

  • T cell activation

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

An autoimmune disease is:

Select one of the following:

  • an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs

  • failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself

  • an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment

  • excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

When an allergen binds with IgE antibodies on mast cells, resulting in release of chemical mediators, this reaction is called:

Select one of the following:

  • Delay hypersensitivity

  • Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

  • Immune complex hypersensitivity

  • Type 1 hypersensitivity

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

Autoimmunity arises when a breakdown in 'self-

Select one of the following:

  • Specificity

  • Immunity

  • Memory

  • Tolerance

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

A 22-year-old prostitute was recently diagnosed with HIV. A decrease in which of the following cell types would be expected to accompany this virus?

Select one of the following:

  • CD8 T cells

  • T memory cells

  • CD4 T cells

  • B cells

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

Primary immune deficiencies occur because of:

Select one of the following:

  • A genetic defect

  • HIV

  • Excessive emotional stress

  • Lack of vitamin C

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be effective?

Select one of the following:

  • ribavirin

  • reverse transcriptase inhibitors

  • cell wall synthesis inhibitors

  • inhibitors of metabolism

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?

Select one of the following:

  • Passive natural

  • Active artificial

  • Active natural

  • Passive artificial

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?

Select one of the following:

  • Hypoplasia of the thymus

  • Immunosuppresive agents

  • Atrophy of lymph nodes

  • Delayed hypersensitivity

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

All of the following are factors that promote healing EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Effective circulation

  • Advanced age

  • Good nutrition: protein, vitamins A & C

  • A clean, undisturbed wound

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

A raised thickened scar that grows beyond the wound margin is

Select one of the following:

  • Keloid scar

  • Epithelialisation

  • Ulcer

  • Hypertrophic scar

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

The purpose of inflammation include all the following except:

Select one of the following:

  • Eliminate/neutralise injurious agent

  • To remove body toxins

  • Localise injury and prevent further damage

  • Clean-up tissue for healing

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

The first phagocytic cell(s) to enter a site of injury are:

Select one of the following:

  • Neutrophils

  • Macrophages

  • Monocytes

  • Lymphocytes

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

Systemic manifestations of inflammation include all EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Pyrexia

  • Malaise

  • Regional swelling

  • Anorexia

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

Pathophysiology may be defined as the study of:

Select one of the following:

  • Disease patterns

  • Disease causes

  • How disease develop and alter body function

  • A collection of signs and symptoms

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

Glucocorticoids are produced by

Select one of the following:

  • The hypothalamus

  • The spleen

  • The thymus glands

  • The adrenal glands

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

The mechanism of action of glucocorticoids include all of the following except:

Select one of the following:

  • Inhibit of helper T cells

  • Prevent the synthesis of arachidonic acid

  • Increase production of antibodies

  • Inhibit protein synthesis of chemical mediators

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

Which of the following effects is NOT one typically associated with glucocorticoids?

Select one of the following:

  • Reduced prostaglandin sythesis

  • Stimulation of fat and protein break down

  • Reduced bone density

  • Increased sodium and water retention

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop all of the following

Select one of the following:

  • Opportunistic infections

  • Decreased bone density

  • Increased leukocyte production

  • Wasting skeletal muscle

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

Which of the following drugs relieves fever and some types of pain but is NOT an anti-inflammatory agent?

Select one of the following:

  • Paracetamol

  • Prednisone

  • Asprin

  • Ibuprofen

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

Drugs that have anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic activities include:
1. COX-2 inhibitors (NSAIDs).
2. glucocorticoids (e.g., prednisone).
3. ibuprofen (NSAID).
4. paracetamol.
5. aspirin.

Select one of the following:

  • 1,2

  • 2,4

  • 1,3,5

  • 1,4,5

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

All of the following are correct statements regarding wound healing EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Resolution occurs where there is minimal tissue damage and the cells can recover.

  • Regeneration occurs where the cells are capable of mitosis.

  • Granulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue.

  • Scar tissue forms where the surrounding cells are incapable of mitosis

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

Which of the following factors generally WOULD NOT delay wound healing?

Select one of the following:

  • Poor nutrition

  • Adequate serum levels of Vitamins A & C

  • Hypoxia

  • Advanced age

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

exudates are thick, yellow/green and typically indicates a bacterial infection

Select one of the following:

  • Serous

  • Fibrinous

  • Purulent

  • Haemorrhagic

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

Systemic manifestations of inflammation include all EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Pyrexia

  • Malaise

  • Regional swelling

  • Anorexia

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

Chemical mediators released during inflammatory response include:

Select one of the following:

  • Albumin and fibrinogen

  • Growth factors and cell enzymes

  • Histamine and prostaglandins

  • Macrophages and neutrophils

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

Aetiology is defined as the study of the:

Select one of the following:

  • causes of a disease

  • course of a disease

  • expected complications of a disease

  • manifestations of a disease

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

Identify the proper sequence in the healing process

Select one of the following:

  • 1)A blood clot forms; 2) granulation tissue grows into the gap; 3) new blood vessels develop; 4) phagocytosis of foreign material and cell debris occurs; 5) and collagen fibers form a tight, strong scar.

  • 1)Foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes; 2) a blood clot forms; 3) granulation tissue grows into the gap; 4) new blood vessels form; 5) and collagen fibers grow and cross-link.

  • 1) A blood clot forms; 2) phagocytes remove foreign material and cell debris; 3) granulation tissue grows into the gap; 4) new blood vessels form; 5) and collagen fibers promote formation of a tight, strong scar.

  • 1) Collagen fibers form in the damaged area; 2) a blood clot forms; 3) granulation tissue grows into the gap; 4) angiogenesis takes place; 5) and foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes.

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?

Select one of the following:

  • Unplanned death of a group of cells

  • Preprogrammed cell self-destruction

  • Increase rate of mitosis of cells

  • Necrotic tissue invaded by bacteria

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

A patient is on a high dose of glucocorticoids to treat lupus. Which of the following blood tests would a nurse be most concerned about?

Select one of the following:

  • Blood glucose

  • Liver enzymes

  • Clotting time

  • pH

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

A patient with type 1 diabetes was prescribed a glucocorticoid for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which will the nurse expect in the treatment plan?

Select one of the following:

  • A decrease in the amount of insulin needed

  • An increase in the amount of insulin needed

  • No change in the amount of insulin needed

  • An increase in the need for carbohydrates

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Inflammation is a non-specific response to:

Select one of the following:

  • Any injury to vascularised tissue

  • Cold temperatures

  • Micro-organisms only

  • Foreign material only

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

Histamines are produced from ? and cause ?.

Select one of the following:

  • Plasma proteins; increased platelet aggregation

  • Mast cells; vasodilation and increased capillary permeability

  • All cell membranes; pain

  • Platelets; attraction of neurophils

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

A broad-spectrum bactericidal agent would be expected to:

Select one of the following:

  • reduce the replication of many bacteria.

  • reduce the growth of many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

  • destroy many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

  • destroy all pathogenic microbes

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

Bacterial mutation means that:

Select one of the following:

  • pathogens become nonpathogens

  • the host's immune response to that bacteria is strengthened

  • the bacteria survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate

  • its genetic information has changed

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

Pathogenicity:

Select one of the following:

  • is the capacity of microbes to cause disease/infection

  • is the size of a specific microbe

  • is the presence of toxins in the blood

  • is the presence of viruses in the blood

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

Exotoxins:

Select one of the following:

  • are very heat tolerant

  • may cause fever and fatigue

  • can disrupt cellular metabolic and signalling processes causing widespread damage

  • can be incorporated into the structure of the cell membrane as liposaccharides

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

Gram negative bacteria have

Select one of the following:

  • A thick peptidoglycan layer cell wall

  • A thin peptidoglycan cell wall sandwiched between an inner cytoplasmic cell membrane and a bacterial outer membrane.

  • No cell wall only a thick cell membrane

  • require oxygen as a source of energy and therefore for growth.

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

Protozoa:

Select one of the following:

  • are multicellular organisms

  • have intricate life cycles including egg, larvae and adults stages

  • replicate asexually by cell division

  • all of the answers are correct

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

Opportunistic infections are:

Select one of the following:

  • An infection by a non-pathogenic organism that has become pathogenic

  • The capacity of microbes to cause disease

  • Presence and multiplication of micro-organisms that is not yet causing disease

  • An organism participating in a symbiotic relationship with the host

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

What is a eukaryotic organism, that contains both a cell wall and cell membrane. When they cause an infection it is termed mycosis

Select one of the following:

  • Fungi

  • Virus

  • Bacteria

  • Protozoa

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Which of the following factors would NOT increase the virulence of a specific microbe?

Select one of the following:

  • Secretion of endotoxins

  • Presence of a bacterial capsule

  • Secretion of enzymes

  • Size of the micro-organism

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

Triazole as an antifungal agent works by:

Select one of the following:

  • Disrupt the synthesis of its cell membrane

  • Disrupt DNA replication

  • Disrupt the synthesis of its cell wall

  • Inhibit hydrogen peroxide metabolism

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

An antimicrobial agent with a narrow spectrum of activity reflects a drug that has:

Select one of the following:

  • only a weak antibiotic action.

  • effectiveness against a relatively small variety of microbes.

  • a low potency.

  • a narrow margin of safety.

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

Which of the following signs would best indicate a bacterial infection (in comparison to a viral infection)?

Select one of the following:

  • The presence of pain

  • The presence of purelent exudate.

  • The presence of a serous exudate.

  • The presence of swelling.

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

During which period is the infectious disease fully developed?

Select one of the following:

  • Prodromal

  • Acute

  • Incubation

  • Aggresive

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

The structure of a virus includes:

Select one of the following:

  • a cell wall and membrane

  • metabolic enzymes and a cell wall

  • a protein coat and either DNA or RNA

  • a slime capsule and cilia

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

Bacteria:

Select one of the following:

  • require host cells in order to replicate

  • are prokaryotes

  • may cause mycosis

  • are contained within a capsid

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

Bacterial mutation means that:

Select one of the following:

  • pathogens become nonpathogens

  • the bacteria survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate

  • its genetic information has changed

  • the host's immune response to that bacteria is strengthened

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

Which of the following mechanisms is NOT one of the four typical mechanisms of action of antibiotic agents

Select one of the following:

  • Affect bacterial folic acid synthesis

  • Inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis

  • Disrupt bacterial meiosis

  • Disrupt cell wall synthesis

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Which of the following clinical manifestations is not one typically associated with anaphylaxis

Select one of the following:

  • Pruritus

  • Hypertension

  • Stridor

  • Syncopy

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?

Select one of the following:

  • Atrophy of lymph nodes

  • Immunosuppresive agents

  • Hypoplasia of the thymus

  • Delayed hypersensitivity

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

Primary immune deficiencies occur as a result of:

Select one of the following:

  • A genetic defect affecting immune cell number

  • Human immunodeficiency virus

  • Excessive emotional stress

  • Lack of vitamin C

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

An example of a live attenuated vaccine includes:

Select one of the following:

  • Polio

  • Rabies

  • DPT

  • Rubella

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

The main property of the adaptive immune response for immunity to previously encountered infections is:

Select one of the following:

  • Antigen specificity

  • Diversity

  • Memory

  • Self/non-self recognition

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

The role of memory cells is to

Select one of the following:

  • change into an antibody-secreting cell following activation.

  • immediately secrete antibodies following the first exposure to antigen.

  • recognize the antigen and stimulate an immune response.

  • activate the hippocampus in the CNS

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

White blood cells responsible for adaptive immunity:

Select one of the following:

  • Neutrophils

  • Lymphocytes

  • Monocytes

  • Eosinophils

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?

Select one of the following:

  • T-helper cells

  • Macrophages

  • Eosinophils

  • Mast cells

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

A common primary target for most immunosuppressant drugs is:

Select one of the following:

  • Blocking cytokines

  • Suppressing B cell activation

  • Suppressing T cell activity

  • Suppressing macrophages

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

Some common treatments for immunodeficiency may include marrow or thymus transplants and:

Select one of the following:

  • Hyperbaric treatments

  • Blood transfusions and narrow spectrum antibiotics

  • Prophylactic antibiotics and cytokine stimulants

  • Antibiotics and radiation therapy

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

Interferons work by:

Select one of the following:

  • Suppress viral replication in infected cells

  • Stimulates cytokine production

  • Inhibit macrophage activity

  • Inducing fever

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

The immune system identifies foreign organisms via the recognition of surface:

Select one of the following:

  • antigens

  • cytokines

  • interferons

  • antibodies

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with a:

Select one of the following:

  • Type III hypersensitivity reaction

  • Type II hypersensitivity reaction

  • Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

  • Type I hypersensitivity reaction

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:

Select one of the following:

  • development of an immune-deficient state.

  • a chronic allergic condition.

  • immune complex deposits of anti DNA/RNA antibodies.

  • a deficiency of T lymphocytes.

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

The type of white blood cells that contains chemical mediators and plays an important part in allergic inflammatory responses is the:

Select one of the following:

  • Basophil

  • Neutrophil

  • Monocyte

  • Macrophage

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

The common local effects of an expanding tumour mass include:
1. obstruction of a tube or duct.
2. anemia and weight loss.
3. cell necrosis and ulceration.
4. tumour markers in the circulation.

Select one of the following:

  • 1,2

  • 2,4

  • 1,3

  • 1,2,3,4

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?

Select one of the following:

  • The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors

  • The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells

  • The effects of multiple metastatic tumors

  • Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

Ultraviolet light is considered a carcinogen because:

Select one of the following:

  • It produces a carcinogenic enzyme in skin cells

  • It introduces errors into DNA (genes)

  • It directly prevents telomere shortening

  • It directly prevents DNA repair

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

First line treatment for testicular cancer always involves

Select one of the following:

  • nodulectomy

  • chemotherapy

  • radiation

  • orchidectomy

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

Staging systems used to classify a malignant tumour at the time of diagnosis are based on which of the following factors?

Select one of the following:

  • Size, encapsulated or non-encapsulated, invasion into neighboring tissue

  • Size of the tumour, involvement of lymph nodes, metastases

  • Location of tumour, size, type of cellular abnormality

  • Type of cellular abnormality, size of secondary tumours, location/tissue affected

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

Why is a patient with prostate cancer prescribed an estrogen?

Select one of the following:

  • To soften prostatic tissue

  • To decrease the rate of replication for malignant cells

  • To achieve hormonal balance

  • To suppress prostate gland function

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

Seeding refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • Spread of cancer cells in body cavities/membranes

  • Spread of cancer cells into the nearest lymph node

  • Local spread of cancer cells within a tissue

  • Spread of cancer cells to distant sites in the body by blood or lymph

Explanation