Arthur Casto
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Security Quiz on SFPC 1, created by Arthur Casto on 17/07/2018.

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Arthur Casto
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SFPC 1

Question 1 of 200

1

The first phase of the investigative clearance process involves __________________________.

Select one of the following:

  • The determination of an individual’s need-to-know

  • The initiation and completion of the adjudication process

  • The initiation and completion of a personnel security investigation

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

A security clearance eligibility guarantees that an individual will be granted access to classified information.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

A position may be designated as critical-sensitive even though the position does not have any requirement for accessing classified information.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

Security considerations for civilian employees of the federal government are governed by Executive Order 10450.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

A cleared individual who is being investigated refuses to provide information or sign a release form. This individual may lose his or her security clearance eligibility.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

__________ is the investigative agency with the responsibility for conducting background investigations for the Department of Defense.

Select one of the following:

  • DSS

  • NBIB

  • OMB

  • FBI

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

JCAVS allows the Security Office to constantly update accesses and related information in real-time.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

Position designations are based on what?

Select one of the following:

  • Access level of designated positions

  • Type of background investigation conducted

  • Their impact on national security

  • Eligibility determinations

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

An individual with security clearance eligibility and a need-to-know may access classified information _______________________________.

Select one of the following:

  • At any level when granted access by the local command or activity

  • At or below the specific level of their clearance eligibility and only orally for information above their level of eligibility

  • At or below the specific level of their clearance eligibility

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

Which of the following appoints the Director of the Office of Personnel Management as the Suitability Executive Agent and Director of National Intelligence as the Security Executive Agent?

Select one of the following:

  • Executive Order 12968

  • Executive Order 13467

  • Executive Order 10450

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

Which of the following is an objective of the Department of Defense’s Personnel Security Program?

Select one of the following:

  • Ensure that individuals granted access to classified information or assigned to sensitive duties are loyal, trustworthy, and reliable

  • Prevent the classification of the Department’s information to conceal violations of law

  • Protect the Department’s classified information in the possession of contractors

  • Prevent damage to, the theft of, and/or loss of the Department’s assets

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

Foreign relations do not play a part in how our national security is defined.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

Ease of movement within a facility is an appropriate justification for obtaining a security clearance eligibility.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

A security clearance is a favorable adjudicative determination made by a national security adjudicator to determine ____________ to classified information and/or assignment to a sensitive position.

Select one of the following:

  • Access and Need-to-Know

  • Need-to-Know and Eligibility

  • Eligibility for Access

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

The Security Office uses e-QIP to initiate the personnel security investigation process.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

Which briefing makes individuals aware of counterintelligence and security reporting requirements?

Select one of the following:

  • Termination Briefing

  • Insider Threat Briefing

  • Annual Briefing

  • Initial Briefing

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

The __________ involves the examination of a sufficient period of a person’s life in order to determine if an individual is an acceptable security risk.

Select one of the following:

  • Adjudication process

  • Access determination

  • Personnel Security Investigation

  • Need-to-Know determination

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

The DoD defines an individual with a need for “regular access” to classified information based on an assessment of the individual’s specific situation or position and not in terms of the frequency with which the individual needs access to the classified information.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

In which of the following situations may a Limited Access Authorization (LAA) be granted?

Select one of the following:

  • A non-U.S. citizen requires classified access to perform official duties.

  • A U.S. citizen requires immediate access to classified information while waiting for a security clearance eligibility determination.

  • A U.S. citizen requires temporary access to classified information to perform official duties.

  • A non-U.S. citizen requires temporary access to Top Secret information to perform official duties.

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

Which of the following briefings are given to personnel who inadvertently gained access to classified or sensitive information that they are not authorized to access?

Select one of the following:

  • Termination Briefing

  • Foreign Travel Briefing

  • Initial Briefing

  • Annual Briefing

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

The DoD CAF makes __________ after careful weighting of a number of variables known as the whole person concept against the adjudicative standards.

Select one of the following:

  • Suitability determinations

  • Eligibility determinations

  • Investigative determinations

  • Access determinations

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

The ultimate authority for granting access to classified information to an individual rests with the __________________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Facility’s information security officer

  • Local command

  • Adjudicator who concluded that the individual may have a security clearance eligibility

  • Individual’s manager or supervisor

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

DoD Manual 5200.02 mandates and regulates the DoD Personnel Security Program and its major elements.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

Which of the following briefings is provided to personnel to remind them of their responsibilities under the Personnel Security Program and inform them of changes to the Personnel Security Program?

Select one of the following:

  • Insider Threat Briefing

  • Initial Briefing

  • Termination Briefing

  • Annual Briefing

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

The clearance process consists of __________ basic phases.

Select one of the following:

  • Three

  • Four

  • Five

  • Six

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

Which of the following civilian position sensitivity designations is applied to positions that include duties associated with Special Programs such as NC2 and SAP?

Select one of the following:

  • Non-critical sensitive

  • Non-sensitive

  • Critical sensitive

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

Which security briefing is intended to reinforce good security practices, and remind people of the continuing need to follow the rules?

Select one of the following:

  • Termination

  • Foreign Travel

  • Initial

  • Annual or Refresher

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

Which element of the Personnel Security Program involves monitoring employees for new information that could affect their security clearance eligibility status?

Select one of the following:

  • Designation

  • Investigation

  • Reinvestigation

  • Continuous Evaluation

  • Adjudication

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

An __________ allows an individual to begin working on sensitive projects prior to being granted a security clearance eligibility.

Select one of the following:

  • Interim access to classified information

  • Interim eligibility

  • Interim sensitive position

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

A security clearance eligibility determination is required when an individual has a need for “regular access” to classified information and/or assignment to a sensitive position.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

You are holding a piece of classified information and some of the information is portion marked (S//RD-N). What type of information are you holding?

Select one of the following:

  • Top Secret

  • Formerly Restricted Data

  • Critical Nuclear Weapon Design Information (CNWDI)

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

The portion marking for a URL reflects the classification of the URL text.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

Which of the following statements applies to derivative classifiers?

Select one of the following:

  • They are not responsible for marking the classified information they derive.

  • They are governed by a different Executive Order than Original Classification Authorities (OCAs).

  • They must receive refresher training every two years.

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

A URL appears on a webpage you are using. How should it be marked?

Select one of the following:

  • The URL is banner marked

  • The URL is not portion marked

  • The URL is portion marked in a way that does not render it inoperable

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

An OCA previously classified a recent government breakthrough in energy technology as Confidential. The military is developing a new weapons system that will use this technology, and it has been determined it will now cause greater damage to national security if the information is released. How should the OCA responsible for classifying the energy technology change the classification level?

Select one of the following:

  • Downgrade the energy technology classification

  • Extend the duration of classification

  • Declassify the energy technology information

  • Upgrade the energy technology classification

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

Which of the following does NOT apply to original classification?

Select one of the following:

  • It can only be determined by an OCA

  • It is the initial decision that information if disclosed could cause damage to national security and must be protected

  • It is the job of every cleared DoD employee who handles classified materials

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following types of classified materials require all standard classification markings?

Select one of the following:

  • Instant messages

  • Photographs

  • Emails

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

When filling out the classification authority block of a newly declassified document, it is acceptable to use a personal identifier if the identity of the declassification authority is classified.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

In the banner line CONFIDENTIAL//FGI GBR, what is “GBR” considered as?

Select one of the following:

  • In the banner line CONFIDENTIAL//FGI GBR, what is “GBR” considered as?

  • The three-letter country code

  • The level of classification of FGI

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

A U.S. classified document containing NATO information must include a statement that clearly identifies the presence of NATO classified information and its level of classification within the U.S. document.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

Which of the following represent special types of materials that may contain classified information?

Select one of the following:

  • Photographs

  • CDs containing classified information

  • Working papers

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

You are taking notes at a classified meeting where Secret information is disclosed. You are to include banner markings, date the document was created, and the annotation Working Paper in your notes.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

Which of the following is provided by classification markings?

Select one of the following:

  • Presence of classified information

  • Process for destroying the information

  • How to release the information publicly

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

You are generating a derivatively classified piece of information and are looking for information in a classified database. While you are searching, you find a piece of information that is extremely helpful. It includes a banner line and a notice regarding the content only being marked at the highest level of classification within the database. Is this information authorized for use as a source of derivative classification?

Select one of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

Which of the standard classification markings appear at the bottom of the first page and provides information regarding who classified the document, the reason for classification, downgrading instructions, and the declassification date?

Select one of the following:

  • Banner marking

  • Classification authority block

  • This information is not included with classified materials

  • Portion marking

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

You are sending Confidential information to a colleague in another office. You want to give her some background information and decide to attach a letter of transmittal. You include your name, a short greeting, and a Confidential description of the project. What markings must you apply to the letter of transmittal?

Select one of the following:

  • Classification authority block

  • Banner markings

  • Portion marking

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

The technology behind the navigation system used in one class of fighter jets is classified Secret. The technology is now obsolete and has been replaced. It has been determined the information’s release no longer threatens national security. What should the OCA do?

Select one of the following:

  • Extend the information’s duration of classification

  • Upgrade the information’s classification

  • Declassify the information at this time

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

Which of the following is true of the Original Classification Authority (OCA)?

Select one of the following:

  • The OCA can be a government or contractor employee.

  • All cleared personnel are authorized as OCAs.

  • The OCA is the person authorized to originally classify information.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

Banner markings identify the ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • classification levels of individual sections of the document

  • highest overall classification level of the document or page

  • downgrading and declassification dates

  • name of the derivative classifier who created the document

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

Which of the following is the portion marking that would be used for Confidential information from a Special Access Program (SAP) with the code word abbreviation HT?

Select one of the following:

  • (C//SAP)

  • (HT//C)

  • (C//HT)

  • (C//SAR-HT)

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

The Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO) released 32 CFR Parts 2001 and 2003, which established ______________.

Select one of the following:

  • the DoD procedures for the classification of national security information

  • the new standards for establishing controlled unclassified information

  • an implementation guide for the classification of national security information

  • a pocket guide for the classification of national security information

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

A new satellite system is about to come online. Some components covered by the current security classification guide (SCG) will need to have their classification level upgraded. You are working on a document referencing some of these components at their prior level of classification, which is currently the highest level of classification in the document. How will the banner markings on your document change once the SCG has been updated to reflect the new classification level?

Select one of the following:

  • The overall classification level will increase

  • The overall classification level will remain the same

  • The overall classification level will decrease

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

You have a draft version of a classified document that contains handwritten notes that you want to send to a colleague outside of your activity. It currently has banner markings, the creation date, and a “working paper” annotation. How should the markings change before you send the document out?v

Select one of the following:

  • Add portion markings only

  • No change are necessary

  • It should have the same markings as a finished document

  • Add the classification authority block only

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

After successful completion of a recent military mission, information regarding the mission would cause less damage to national security should it be released. However, the information could still cause some damage to national security if released to the general public. How should the OCA responsible for classifying this military information assign classification instructions?

Select one of the following:

  • Make no change to the classification

  • Assign downgrade instructions regarding mission completion

  • Upgrade the recent mission classification

  • Declassify the recent mission information

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

Select the correct banner marking if the following information appeared on your document:

(U) This information is not classified.

(S) This information is classified Secret.

(U) This information is not classified.

(C) This information is classified Confidential.

Select one of the following:

  • TOP SECRET

  • UNCLASSIFIED

  • SECRET

  • CONFIDENTIAL

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

Which portion marking is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • (T)

  • TOP SECRET

  • COSMIC

  • (TS)

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

An event has occurred that affects information scheduled to be declassified. The OCA, as a result, has decided to extend the duration of the information’s classification. How will the markings in the classification authority block of a document containing this information change?

Select one of the following:

  • The OCA responsible for the change will be cited. No additional action is required.

  • The OCA responsible for the change as well as the date will be cited. Additionally, the old Declassify On date will be lined through and the new date will appear next to it.

  • No change

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

You are compiling information from multiple sources. In addition to applying the standard markings, is there any information specific to compilation that need to be applied?

Select one of the following:

  • Yes, annotate that the information was “Compiled”

  • Yes, include an explanation for the basis of compiled classification

  • No, only standard markings apply

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

You are deriving information from one properly marked source document. What information will you apply to the Declassify On line of your new document?

Select one of the following:

  • The same declassification information as the source document

  • A date 25 years older than the source document’s creation date

  • A date 10 years older than the source document’s creation date

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

You have finished marking several digital photographs that contain varying levels of classified information with several dissemination control markings. You saved them to a CD for storage. How should the CD be marked?

Select one of the following:

  • The CD must be marked with the lowest level of classification of the images

  • The CD is marked with the word CLASSIFIED

  • The CD requires markings according to the classification of the subject of the CD and not the images contained on the CD

  • The CD must be marked with the highest level of classification with all dissemination control markings of the images

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

What is the final phase of the Special Access Program (SAP) life cycle?

Select one of the following:

  • Exploration

  • Management & Administration

  • Establishment

  • Disestablishment

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

Renee is working on a Special Access Program (SAP) whose purpose is to plan and coordinate covert military operations. This SAP most likely falls under which SAP category?

Select one of the following:

  • Intelligence Special Access Program (SAP)

  • Operations and Support Special Access Program (SAP)

  • Acquisition Special Access Program (SAP)

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

Carlo has just been assigned to an Unacknowledged Waived SAP. What should be expected in terms of reporting requirements?

Select one of the following:

  • The Secretary of Defense has waived applicable reporting requirements and, therefore, waived SAPs have less restrictive Congressional reporting requirements.

  • The Secretary of Defense has waived applicable reporting requirements and, therefore, waived SAPs have no Congressional reporting requirements.

  • The Secretary of Defense has waived applicable reporting requirements and, therefore, waived SAPs have more restrictive Congressional reporting requirements.

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

Which category of Special Access Program (SAP) involves military personnel and operations?

Select one of the following:

  • Acquisition Special Access Program (SAP)

  • Intelligence Special Access Program (SAP)

  • Operations and Support Special Access Program (SAP)

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

Heidi has just been assigned to a Special Access Program (SAP) that is openly recognized; however, specifics are classified within that SAP, and program funding is generally unclassified. To what type of SAP is Heidi assigned?

Select one of the following:

  • Waived SAP

  • Unacknowledged SAP

  • Acknowledged SAP

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

SAP capabilities may be nominated for which phase once they are considered to be operationally relevant?

Select one of the following:

  • Establishment

  • Disestablishment

  • Apportionment

  • Management & Administration

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

Which of the following is true about the Department of Defense (DoD) Special Access Program (SAP) life cycle?

Select one of the following:

  • Special Access Programs (SAPs) follow a different life cycle depending on their protection level.

  • Special Access Programs (SAPs) follow a different life cycle depending on their category.

  • All Special Access Programs (SAPs) follow the same life cycle.

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

SAPs require all of the following except:

Select one of the following:

  • Identification of special handling procedures

  • Use of customized classification levels specific to the particular Special Access Program (SAP)

  • Assignment of a nickname and/or codeword

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

Program Alpha exists to provide logistical assistance to a covert military operation in a turbulent foreign country. It’s funding is classified and the program is subject to stricter Congressional reporting requirements. Which type of Special Access Program (SAP) does this most likely describe?

Select one of the following:

  • An Acknowledged Waived Operations and Support SAP

  • An Acknowledged Operations and Support SAP

  • An Unacknowledged Intelligence SAP

  • An Unacknowledged Waived Operations and Support SAP

  • An Unacknowledged Acquisition SAP

  • An Acknowledged Acquisition Waived SAP

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

All documents required for approval are developed in the Management and Administration phase.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

SAPs shall be established only when the program is required by statute or upon the specific finding that the vulnerability of, or threat to, specific information is exceptional, and the normal criteria for determining access to information classified at the same level are not sufficient.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

Department of Defense (DoD) Special Access Programs (SAPs) are categorized and managed by the Under Secretaries of Defense. Which Under Secretary oversees DoD Acquisition SAPs?

Select one of the following:

  • Under Secretary of Defense, Policy (USD (P))

  • Under Secretary of Defense, Acquisition, Logistics, and Technology (USD (AT&L))

  • Under Secretary of Defense, Intelligence (USD (I))

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

The goal of a SAP is to maintain enhanced security to protect the SAP’s mission and maintain knowledge within the SAP.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

Which of the following most completely describes what is required of personnel to access Special Access Programs (SAPs)?

Select one of the following:

  • An individual must be a government employee with a clearance.

  • An individual must have only a clearance and formal access approval.

  • An individual must have only a formal access approval.

  • An individual must have a clearance, formal access approval, and a valid need-to-know.

  • An individual must be a government employee and have a valid need-to-know.

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

You are working on a Special Access Program (SAP) and have a question about some of the contractual obligations. You need to meet with the individual that executes the Statement of Work, contract, task order, and all contractual obligations for industry. With whom should you meet?

Select one of the following:

  • Contractor Program Manager (CPM)

  • Contractor Program Security Officer (CPSO)

  • Government SAP Security Officer (GSSO)

  • Government Program Manager (GPM)

  • Program Security Officer (PSO)

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

Which guidance disseminates policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for implementation and use in the management, administration, and oversight of all Department of Defense (DoD) Special Access Programs (SAPs)?

Select one of the following:

  • DoD Directive 5205.07, DoD Special Access Program Policy

  • DoDI 5205.11, Management, Administration, and Oversight of DoD Special Access Programs

  • DoD 5220.22-M-Sup 1, National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM) Supplement

  • Department of Defense (DoD) Overprint to the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual Supplement

  • Joint Air Force-Army-Navy (JAFAN) Manual 6/0: Special Access Program Security Manual

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

Which entities serve as the oversight authority for Acquisition, Intelligence, and Operations and Support SAPs?

Select one of the following:

  • Component-Level Special Access Program Central Offices (SAPCOs)

  • DoD Special Access Program Central Office (SAPCO)

  • Senior Review Group (SRG)

  • OUSD (A,T, & L) (AQ-SAP), OUSD (I) (IN-SAP), and OUSD (P) (O&S-SAP), respectively

  • Special Access Program Oversight Committee (SAPOC)

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

Which of the following most completely describes the circumstances under which Special Access Programs (SAPs) are established?

Select one of the following:

  • The program involves military operations.

  • The program requires funding that needs to be approved by specific Congressional committees.

  • The program is a Department of Defense Acquisition, Intelligence, or Operations and Support program.

  • The program is required by statute, the vulnerability of or threat to specific information is exceptional, and the normal criteria for determining access are insufficient.

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

You are a government contractor working at an industrial facility and need to review baseline guidance in preparation for your work on a new Special Access Program (SAP). Which guidance establishes the standard procedures and requirements for all government contractors, with regard to classified information?

Select one of the following:

  • DoD 5200.2-R, Personnel Security Program

  • DoD 5220.22-M: National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)

  • DoDM 5200.01, Vols. 1-4, Information Security Program

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

Some Special Access Programs (SAPs) are not assigned to a SAP category (Acquisition, Intelligence, or Operations and Support).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

Which individual is a senior government program official that has ultimate responsibility for all aspects of the Special Access Program (SAP)?

Select one of the following:

  • Contractor/Command Program Security Officer (CPSO)

  • Contractor/Command Program Manager (CPM)

  • Government Program Manager (GPM)

  • Government SAP Security Officer (GSSO)

  • Program Security Officer (PSO)

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

Department of Defense (DoD) Special Access Programs (SAPs) are the responsibility of the Deputy Secretary of Defense (DEPSECDEF).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

All of the following are true about Special Access Programs except:

Select one of the following:

  • Special Access Programs (SAPs) have always been publicly acknowledged.

  • At one time, Special Access Programs (SAPs) were restricted mainly to Department of Defense (DoD) Acquisition programs.

  • At one time, Special Access Programs (SAPs) were referred to as Black Programs.

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

Paolo requires access to an automated information system that houses classified information. Which briefing must he receive?

Select one of the following:

  • Cybersecurity briefing

  • Security professionals briefing

  • ISSM briefing

  • FGI briefing

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

______________ instills in personnel a desire and commitment to be proactive in the execution of their security responsibilities.

Select one of the following:

  • Awareness

  • Motivation

  • Education

  • Training

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

What is Standard Form 312?

Select one of the following:

  • DoD Contract Security Classification Specification

  • Department of Defense Security Agreement

  • Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

Marie is an engineer, and Paul is a technical writer. Both have Secret security clearances and work on the same project for the same contractor. Marie and Paul should receive identical initial security briefings.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

Security education requirements specific to contractors are identified in the NISPOM.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

A personnel security initial briefing must be provided to any individual with duties requiring a trustworthiness determination.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

Security education and training programs exist solely to fulfill regulatory
requirements.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

Which of the following topics must always be included in initial security briefings for all cleared personnel?

Select one of the following:

  • Procedures for safeguarding COMSEC information

  • An overview of the classification system

  • Defensive measures used to reduce vulnerability to terrorist acts

  • Protection and defense of automated information systems

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

Which of the following policy documents mandate initial security briefings?
A. DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4, DoD Information Security Program
B. DoD 5200.2-R, Personnel Security Program
C. National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual

Select one of the following:

  • A and B only

  • C only

  • None of these

  • All of these

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

The purpose of performing program oversight on a regular basis is to _______________.

Select one of the following:

  • measure success by providing a picture of how the system is working

  • punish individuals who are struggling with their security responsibilities

  • replace reviews performed due to administrative inquiry or security violations

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

John has just assumed the role of security manager and is responsible for implementing the security program in his unit. Which special briefing must he receive?

Select one of the following:

  • Security professionals training

  • ACCM briefing

  • OPSEC briefing

  • FSO training

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

Who is responsible for ensuring that security procedures communicated by a security education program are properly implemented?

Select one of the following:

  • The security manager or FSO

  • The security manager or FSO and the audience of the program

  • The security manager or FSO and senior management

  • The security manager or FSO, senior management, and the audience of the training

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

You are a Facility Security Officer, and your facility no longer has need for access to classified information. Which security briefing should all employees of your facility receive?

Select one of the following:

  • Refresher training

  • Termination briefing/debriefing

  • Declassification authority briefing

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

Bob has been asked to deliver a classified document to the offices of a cleared facility. Which briefing must he receive prior to making the delivery?

Select one of the following:

  • COMSEC briefing

  • Courier briefing

  • SCI briefing

  • Foreign travel briefing

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

Who is responsible for providing security education and training to users of automated information systems?

Select one of the following:

  • DoD Component Head or Contractor Senior Management

  • Security Manager or Facility Security Officer

  • Information Systems Security Manager

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

Security education is not an expense, it’s an investment.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

When is an oral COMSEC debriefing required?

Select one of the following:

  • An oral debriefing is always required for employees with access to COMSEC information

  • When the employee has had access to CRYPTO information

  • When an employee with access to COMSEC information returns from travel to a foreign country

  • An oral debriefing is never required for employees with access to COMSEC information

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

Employees should be informed of techniques employed by foreign intelligence entities to obtain classified information. This aspect of security education and training is referred to as _______________.

Select one of the following:

  • Continuous evaluation and reporting

  • Classification system

  • Threat awareness

  • Defensive security

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

In addition to periodic refresher training for cleared personnel, the DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4, DoD Information Security Program, also mandates __________________.

Select one of the following:

  • continuous and ongoing education

  • refresher training for uncleared personnel

  • remedial training for personnel who violate security procedures

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are important components for management to demonstrate its commitment to a successful security education and awareness program?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Emphasize security as a critical organizational priority

  • Provide a budget

  • Restrict staff meeting attendance to management to ensure that security programs and security education programs are prioritized appropriately

  • Offer organizational motivation

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

During the Design phase of your security education program, you should:

Select one of the following:

  • Develop specific, behavioral objectives

  • Solicit feedback on the effectiveness of the program

  • Develop training materials

  • Deliver the training

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

Which of the following are topics that should be covered in training for those with access to international programs?
A. Special markings for Foreign Government Information
B. Cooperative research
C. Travel procedures
D. Foreign disclosure

Select one of the following:

  • A, C, and D only

  • A, B, and D only

  • B, C, and D only

  • A, B, C, and D

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

The main goals of a security education program include which of the following:
A. Safeguard national security and protect the warfighter
B. Communicate threats to classified information
C. Promote security best practices and awareness
D. Inform personnel of their security responsibilities

Select one of the following:

  • A and B only

  • A, C, and D only

  • B, C, and D only

  • All of these

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

Effective security education programs are:

Select one of the following:

  • Reactive

  • Comprehensive

  • Inflexible

  • Fun

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

Refresher training should be tailored to meet the needs of experienced personnel.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

Individuals responsible for managing the OPSEC Program for an organization must be trained commensurate with their duties.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

The purpose of security _____________ is to ensure that personnel remain continuously alert to security threats and vulnerabilities.

Select one of the following:

  • education

  • motivation

  • training

  • awareness

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

Original classification authorities and declassification authorities must receive identical training.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

John, as the newly assigned Antiterrorism Officer (ATO), must complete what level of Antiterrorism and Force Protection training?

Select one of the following:

  • Level I

  • Level II

  • Level III

  • Level IV

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

Initial Briefings will vary slightly based on job role.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

You are checking your records and see that Ricardo has not received any formal briefings in the year since he was first granted access to classified information. What briefing should he attend?

Select one of the following:

  • Refresher training

  • Termination briefing

  • Initial briefing

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

CNWDI briefings should cover:

Select one of the following:

  • Requirements and standards for creating, maintaining, and publishing security classification guides

  • Procedures for handling classified information while in transit, modes of transportation that may be used, and authorized destinations of classified materials

  • Processes for classifying information originally and derivatively, and the standards applicable to each

  • Special markings, transmission requirements, and other special handling requirements for Critical Nuclear Weapons Design Information

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

The physical security briefing should cover security-in-depth, to include perimeter fences, employee and visitor access controls, and random guard controls, among other topics.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

What purpose do security education programs serve?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase vigilance and awareness for the detection of internal and external threats and vulnerabilities that lead to security breaches

  • Increase vigilance and awareness of security personnel only

  • Decrease the number of personnel granted access to classified information

  • Minimize the number of safeguarding practices required for classified information

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

During the Analysis phase of your security education program, you should:

Select one of the following:

  • Establish overall program goals

  • Select instructional media

  • Assess the effectiveness of the program

  • Create course materials

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

Uncleared personnel should never be included in security education regarding procedures for handling classified information

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

Refresher training is required ___________________.

Select one of the following:

  • only when there is a change in policy

  • at least annually

  • once every five years

  • only when employees change positions

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

It is important to communicate to employees the positive roles they can play in the security program and stress that everyone is part of the security team.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the special handling requirements of Foreign Government Information (FGI)?

Select one of the following:

  • When the classification marking on a document containing FGI is not in English, or when the foreign government marking requires a different degree of protection than the same U.S. classification designation, a U.S. marking that results in a degree of protection equivalent to that required by the foreign government shall be applied.

  • A U.S. document containing FGI cannot be declassified or downgraded below the highest level of FGI contained in the document without the permission of the foreign government or international organization that originated the information.

  • Those holding security clearances issued by the U.S. government cannot access U.S. documents containing FGI without written consent from the originating foreign government.

  • The receiving DoD Components must maintain records for 1 year of the receipt, internal distribution, destruction, annual inventory, access, reproduction, and transmittal of foreign government Top Secret information.

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

Two security professionals – Paul and Ashley – are discussing the destruction of classified information. Paul says the destruction of classified documents and material shall be accomplished by means that eliminate risk of reconstruction
of the classified information they contain. Ashley says the material that has been identified for destruction shall continue to be protected, as appropriate, for its classification until it is actually destroyed. Who is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Paul is correct

  • Ashley is correct

  • Paul and Ashley are both correct

  • Paul and Ashley are both incorrect

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

A paragraph of a document which includes an “(N)” as part of the portion marking indicates what specific type of classified information is contained in the paragraph?

Select one of the following:

  • The additional (N) in the portion marking denotes that the classified material in the paragraph
    contains North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) information.

  • The additional (N) in the portion marking denotes that the classified material in the paragraph contains Critical Nuclear Weapons Design Information (CNWDI).

  • The additional (N) in the portion marking indicates that only those with Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) access eligibility may access such information.

  • The additional (N) in the portion marking denotes that dissemination of such information may be
    made only to properly cleared Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) personnel.

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

Which of the following is a requirement for access to North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) information?

Select one of the following:

  • Personnel has been subject of a Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI), including a National Agency Check (NAC) on the spouse and all members of the individual’s immediate family of 18 years of age or over who are United States citizens other than by birth or who are resident aliens.

  • Personnel has been subject of a favorably adjudicated background investigation (BI) (10-year scope), Tier 5, current within five years prior to the assignment, and completed a NATO brief.

  • Personnel has been subject of a favorably adjudicated BI (10-year scope), Defense National Agency Check with Inquiries (DNACI)/ National Agency Check with Inquiries (NACI) or NACI Entrance
    National Agency Check (ENTNAC), current within five years prior to the assignment.

  • Personnel requiring access to NATO COSMIC (Top Secret) or SECRETinformation must at least possess the equivalent interim U.S. security clearance.

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

According to Executive Order 13556, which of the following is considered a type of controlled unclassified information (CUI)?

Select one of the following:

  • Communications Security (COMSEC) Information

  • Declassified Information

  • Law Enforcement Sensitive (LES) Information

  • North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Information

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

What is the purpose of marking classified materials?

Select one of the following:

  • To alert holders to the presence of classified information, how to properly protect it, and for how long.

  • To deter foreign adversaries from committing actions aimed at accessing such information

  • To provide guidance for interpretation and analysis of classified information.

  • To alert holders to the methods used to collect classified information.

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

What is included in the markings of classified information?

Select one of the following:

  • Derivative classifier as the authority to make declassification determinations.

  • Agencies and authorities that have previously accessed theclassified information.

  • Document holder as the sole authority to make transfer and dissemination determinations.

  • Sources and reasons for the classification.

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

What is the purpose of the Controlled Access Program Coordination (CAPCO) register?

Select one of the following:

  • To identify the categories, types, and levels of Special Access Programs (SAPs.)

  • To define the authorities for classifying, declassifying, and regrading sensitive documents

  • To identify the official classification and control markings, and their authorized abbreviations and portion markings.

  • To define the requirements, restrictions, and measures necessary to safeguard classified information from unauthorized disclosure.

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

When a classified data spill occurs, who is responsible for ensuring that policy requirements for addressing an unauthorized
disclosure are met?

Select one of the following:

  • Activity Security Manager

  • Information Assurance Staff

  • Information Assurance Manager

  • Information Assurance Officer

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

What are the information assurance attributes that are important to protect and defend DoD networks and information. If there was a loss in nonrepudiation, what would this cause in relation to information assurance?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Data is no longer reliable, accurate, nor trusted.

  • Data may potentially be available to unauthorized users via electronic form.

  • General communications are no longer trusted.

  • Potential of unauthorized access to classified data

  • Data is no longer available to authorized users, and missions cannot be conducted.

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

Which of the following examples describes a security violation rather than a security infraction?

Select one of the following:

  • On a busy day, Karen printed classified documents on the printer in her open storage/secure room. She forgot about the documents and they remained on the printer for about an hour before she retrieved them.

  • Karen was late for a meeting in a different area of her building. She put a classified document in a folder she believed was marked for carrying classified materials. When handing out the materials, Karen realized that the folder was not marked for carrying classified materials, she had put the documents in the wrong folder.

  • At the end of the day, Karen was leaving and taking with her unclassified documents she would review at home. When she began to review those documents that night, she realized that classified materials had slipped in between the unclassified materials.

  • Karen was working a mission related to Mexican Drug cartel operating out of Playa Carmen. Her husband planned a golf trip with friends to that area. She advised him not to go, and believing that it was a safety issue, she provided sensitive details about the cartel to make sure that he did not go.

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

The inability to deny you are the sender of an email would be an indication of a lapse in:

Select one of the following:

  • Non-Repudiation

  • Confidentiality

  • Integrity

  • Availability

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

Unauthorized disclosure and loss of privacy is a lapse in:

Select one of the following:

  • Confidentiality

  • Integrity

  • Availability

  • Authentication

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

Which of the following is the first action done to downgrade, declassify or remove classification markings?

Select one of the following:

  • Through the appropriate chain of command, contact the original classification authority (OCA) to confirm that information does not have an extended classification period.

  • Change the classification authority block to indicate “Declassify ON:” to show the new declassification instructions.

  • Take all classification markings off the document and redistribute.

  • Request a waiver from the Information Security Oversight. Office (ISOO) to remove the declassification markings.

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

What is the purpose of the Personnel SecurityProgram (PSP)?

Select one of the following:

  • To define original classification for DoD assets and information.

  • To designate individuals for positions requiring access to classified information.

  • To ensure that only loyal, trustworthy, and reliable individuals may access classified information or perform sensitive duties.

  • To describe the safeguarding requirements personnel must employ when handling classified materials at a cleared contractor facility.

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

DoD reciprocally accepts existing national security eligibility determinations or clearances from other Government agencies in accordance with which of the following policy documents?

Select one of the following:

  • Office of Management and Budget Memorandum M-05-24, “Implementation of Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD) 12 - Policy for a Common Identification Standard for Federal Employees and Contractors,”.

  • Executive Order 13467, “Reforming Processes Related to Suitability for Government Employment, Fitness for Contractor Employees, and Eligibility for Access to Classified National Security Information”

  • Sections 301 and 7532 of title 5, United States Code.

  • Executive Order 13526, “Classified National Security Information”.

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

Review of Tier 5 on an individual disclosed that the subject had been a member of an anarchist organization dedicated to disestablishing existing Federal laws and overthrowing the U.S. government by any means necessary, including violence. Although the subject terminated his membership with the organization upon learning he would be investigated for a clearance for his new position, he still maintains social contact with several members of the anarchist organization. Based on this information, which of the following adjudicative guidelines is most appropriate for an adjudicator to apply to the case?

Select one of the following:

  • Psychological Conditions

  • Foreign Preference

  • Allegiance to the United States

  • Criminal Activity

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

Which of the following is considered an element of the Personnel Security Program (PSP)?

Select one of the following:

  • Risk Assessment and Analysis

  • Implementation

  • Classification

  • Continuous Evaluation

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

Limited access to classified information for specific programs may be approved for non-U.S. citizens only under which of the following conditions?

Select one of the following:

  • The subject is eligible to access material marked by a foreign government that is equivalent to a U.S. Top Secret classification marking.

  • The subject will only have one-time access to specific material, after which the material will be appropriately destroyed or returned to the originating U.S. agency

  • The subject will only have access to classified U.S. documents containing Foreign Government Information (FGI) originating from the foreign country of which the subject is a citizen.

  • The prior 10 years of the subject’s life can be appropriately investigated.

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

Which of the following is the investigative requirement for access to Single Integrated Operational Plan-Extremely Sensitive Information (SIOPESI)?

Select one of the following:

  • Individual has a valid favorably adjudicated Tier 5 or Single Scope Background (SSBI) Investigation.

  • Individual has a valid favorable adjudicated Tier 3 or National Agency Check with Local Agency Check (NACLC) investigation.

  • Individual has a valid favorably adjudicated Tier 3 or Access National Agency Check with Written Inquiries and Credit Check (ANACI) investigation.

  • Individual has a valid favorably adjudicated Tier

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

Which of the following is not qualifying criteria for personnel assigned to nuclear weapons personnel reliability assurance positions?

Select one of the following:

  • Individual must be a U.S. Citizen

  • Individual has a security clearance eligibility in accordance with the position

  • Individual is subject to a periodic reinvestigation every three years

  • Individual must be continuous evaluated

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

Which of the following is correct regarding the investigation requirement for initial assignment to a Presidential Support Activities (i.e. Yankee White) Category 2 position?

Select one of the following:

  • Favorably completed Tier 5/Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI) within 36 months preceding selection.

  • Favorably completed Tier 3/National Agency Check with Local Agency Check (NACLC) within 36 months preceding selection.

  • Favorably completed Tier 5/SSBI within 24 months preceding selection.

  • Favorably completed Tier 3/NACLC within 24 months preceding selection.

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

Which of the following adjudication processes refers to a person’s identifiable character traits and conduct sufficient to decide whether employment or continued employment would or would not protect the integrity or promote the efficiency of the Federal service?

Select one of the following:

  • Homeland Security Presidential Directory (HSPD) 12 credentialing

  • National security adjudication

  • Suitability adjudication

  • Continuous evaluation

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

Copies of personnel security investigative reports must be destroyed by DoD recipient organizations, within how many days following completion of the necessary personnel security determination?

Select one of the following:

  • 30 days

  • 45 days

  • 60 days

  • 90 days

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

Which of the following limitations is true regarding Limited Access Authorization (LAA) to non-U.S. citizens?

Select one of the following:

  • LAAs shall only be granted access at the Secret and Confidential levels.

  • A favorably completed and adjudicated Tier 3 or National Agency Check with Local Agency Check (NACLC). investigation within the last five years is required.

  • An LAA is the same as a security clearance eligibility.

  • Access to classified information Is not limited to a specific program or project.

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

Which of the following is not considered when making a security clearance eligibility determination?

Select one of the following:

  • Education Level

  • Alcohol consumption

  • Financial considerations

  • Psychological Conditions

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

A position designated as a DoD noncritical-sensitive civilian position may fall under any of
the following criteria, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • A position not requiring eligibility for access to classified information, but having the potential to cause significant or serious damage to the national security

  • A position requiring eligibility for access to Top Secret information.

  • A position requiring eligibility for access to confidential information.

  • A position requiring eligibility for access to secret information.

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

What information must a statement of reasons (SOR) include?

Select one of the following:

  • SOR must state why an unfavorable national security eligibility determination is being proposed.

  • SOR must explain each security concern and state the specific facts that trigger each security concern.

  • The SOR must identify applicable adjudicative guideline(s) for each concern, and provide the disqualifying conditions and mitigating conditions for each guideline.

  • All of the Above

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

Which type of briefing is used to obtain confirmation that a cleared employee agrees never to disclose classified information to an unauthorized person?

Select one of the following:

  • Special Briefings – Courier

  • Original Classification Authority (OCA) Briefing

  • Special Briefings – Non-Disclosure

  • Debriefing

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

___________ is the security system performance goal of immediate indication of deliberate attempts, security probing and warning for inadvertent or mistaken intention is an example of which system security capability?

Select one of the following:

  • Detect

  • Assessment

  • Deterrence

  • Delay

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

Two security professionals - Paul and Ashley - are discussing secure rooms, containers, and vaults. Paul says weapons or sensitive items such as funds, jewels, or precious metals should not be stored in the same security container as classified information. Ashley says the General Service Administration approves security containers used to store classified information. Who is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Paul is correct

  • Ashley is correct

  • Paul and Ashley are both correct

  • Paul and Ashley are both incorrect

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

Which of the following is not a distinct phase of the Intrusion Detection System?

Select one of the following:

  • Detection

  • Control

  • Assessment

  • Response

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

Which of the following would be considered a public safety crime?

Select one of the following:

  • Theft of ammunition shipment for the purpose of criminal or gang related activity.

  • Theft of sensitive, proprietary information relating to US aerospace and defense technologies

  • Deliberate destruction of DoD assets or interruption of normal operations.

  • Theft of an item and use of it outside of its intended purpose or without permission.

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

Which of the following best describes the goal of the Physical Security Program?

Select one of the following:

  • To ensure that industry safeguards the classified information in their possession, while performing work on contracts, bids, or research and development efforts on behalf of the government.

  • To protect assets against compromise resulting from activities such as espionage, sabotage, terrorism, damage or loss, and criminal.

  • To ensure that only loyal, trustworthy, and reliable individuals may access classified information or perform sensitive duties.

  • To create uniform policies and procedures for defense acquisition by all executive agencies.

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

Preventing unauthorized access to information and equipment, safeguarding DoD assets against espionage and criminal activity, and providing the means to counter threats when preventative measures are ignored, best characterize the primary functions of which of the following programs or processes?

Select one of the following:

  • Physical Security Program

  • Operations Security (OPSEC) process

  • Security incident response process

  • Personnel Security Program

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

The process of integrating active and passive complementary physical security measures to ensure the protection of DoD assets is known as which of the following concepts?

Select one of the following:

  • Area security

  • Threat-vulnerability assessment

  • Security-in-depth

  • Point security

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

The stealing of sensitive, proprietary information related to U.S. aerospace and defense technologies with the intent to provide such information to a foreign adversary is an example of which type of threat to DoD assets?

Select one of the following:

  • Criminal activity

  • Economic espionage

  • Treason

  • Terrorism

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

When a Terrorism Threat Level is escalated from LOW to MODERATE, a DoD Component Head should employ which of the following countermeasures?

Select one of the following:

  • Cease all flying except for specifically authorized operational sorties.

  • Direct the execution of advance site reviews to facilitate the antiterrorism planning process.

  • Encourage dependent family members to complete Level I Antiterrorism Awareness Training before any travel outside the continental United States (OCONUS).

  • Conduct an immediate Terrorism Vulnerability Assessment for off-installation housing, schools, daycare centers, transportation

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

Requests for authorizing disclosure of classified information during visits must include all the following information, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • The explanation of the government purpose to perform when disclosing classified information.

  • The subject of the meeting, scope of classified topics and classification level

  • Expected time and location of the meeting.

  • The main content of the invitation to send to the participants.

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

Two security professionals – Paul and Ashley – are discussing the security procedures for visits and meetings. Paul says visits must serve a specific U.S. Government purpose. Ashley says DoD Components should, as a minimum, establish procedures that include verification of the identity, personnel security clearance, access (if appropriate), and need-to-know for all visitors. Who is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Paul is correct

  • Ashley is correct

  • Paul and Ashley are both correct

  • Paul and Ashley are both incorrect

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

Executive Order 12829, signed in January 1993, mandated that which of the following entities be responsible for implementing and monitoring the National industrial Security Program (NISP)?

Select one of the following:

  • Director of the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO)

  • Secretary of Defense

  • National Security Council (NSC)

  • Director, Defense Security Services (DSS)

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

What is the role of the government contracting activity (GCA), or cleared prime contractor, when a contractor that does not have a Facility Clearance (FCL) wants to bid on a Request for Proposal (RFP) that requires access to classified information?

Select one of the following:

  • The GCA must issue a formal letter rejecting the contractor’s bid since the contractor does not have the requisite FCL.

  • The contractor must submit a sponsorship request to DSS, who will decide whether to allow the contractor to bid on the contract.

  • The GCA must sponsor the contractor for a facility security clearance by submitting a sponsorship request to DSS, which initiates the facility clearance process

  • The GCA must ensure that the all owners and senior management of the uncleared contractor are U.S. citizens and are eligible to be processed for a personnel security clearance.

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

What is the purpose of the Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR)?

Select one of the following:

  • To codify and publish uniform policies and procedures for acquisition by all executive agencies.

  • To manage DoD funds and prioritize the development of vital research and technology.

  • To provide small businesses and minority owned companies an opportunity to compete in the government acquisition process.

  • To promote uniform standards and best practices of technology acquisition across U.S. industry.

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

What is the role of the security professional during the “Award Contract” step of the contracting process?

Select one of the following:

  • To ensure the appropriate classification level for the bid, and to define unique security requirements associated with the product.

  • To interface with the Cognizant Security Organization (CSO) to ensure oversight is performed and review results of and previous assessments on behalf of component.

  • To ensure that the contractor follows proper safeguarding and disposition guidance

  • To review and define the specific security requirements with the contracting officer – specifically, block 13 of DD Form 254.

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

What is the purpose of DD Form 254?

Select one of the following:

  • To convey security classification guidance and to advise contractors on the handling procedures for classified material.

  • To document the formal agreement between the US government and a cleared contractor in which the contactor agrees to maintain a security program in compliance with the NISPOM and the government agrees to security guidance and program oversight.

  • To validate details regarding the foreign ownership, control or influence affecting that cleared contractor facility

  • It replaces the actual contract document for any contract requiring access to classified information.

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

As part of Operations Security (OPSEC), a program coordinator should use which of the following tools to assess assets as part of the risk management process for critical information?

Select one of the following:

  • Critical Information List

  • Threat vulnerability matrix

  • Risk Rating Table

  • Security Classification Guide

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

What is the role of the Special Access Program Oversight Committee (SAPOC) during the maintenance phase of the Special Access Program (SAP) lifecycle?

Select one of the following:

  • To ensure that the SAP has adequate Internal Review and Audit Compliance (IRAC) support, including accessed auditors at\ supporting offices, to meet program audit needs.

  • To review existing programs annually to determine whether to revalidate them as SAPs

  • To provide oversight of SAP program and budget accomplishments.

  • To provide oversight of SAP audits and inspections.

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

Which of the following describes a Special Access Program (SAP) that is established to protect sensitive research, development, testing and evaluation, modification, and procurement activities?

Select one of the following:

  • Research and Technology SAP

  • Operations and Support SAP

  • Acquisition SAP

  • Intelligence SAP

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

Which type of briefing is used to identify security responsibilities, provide a basic understanding of DoD security policies, and explain the importance of protecting government assets?

Select one of the following:

  • Indoctrination Briefing

  • Original Classification Authority (OCA) Briefing

  • Foreign Travel Briefing

  • Debriefing

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

Which type of briefing is used to reinforce the information provided during the initial security briefing and to keep cleared employees informed of appropriate changes in security regulations?

Select one of the following:

  • Annual Refresher Briefings

  • Indoctrination Briefings

  • Attestation Briefings

  • Courier Briefings

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

Which step of the Operations Security (OPSEC) process would be applied when conducting exercises, red teaming and analyzing operations?

Select one of the following:

  • Conduct a Risk Assessment

  • Apply OPSEC Countermeasures

  • Conduct a Threat Analysis

  • Conduct a Vulnerability Analysis

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

Which step of the Operations Security (OPSEC) process would be applied when identifying potential adversaries and the associated capabilities and intentions to collect, analyze, and exploit critical information and indicators?

Select one of the following:

  • Conduct a Vulnerability Analysis

  • Conduct a Threat Analysis

  • Conduct a Risk Assessment

  • Apply OPSEC Countermeasures

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

Please determine which of the following is an element of an Operations Security (OPSEC) Assessment.

Select one of the following:

  • Small in scale and focused on evaluating the effectiveness of the OPSEC program.

  • Conducted on an annual basis.

  • Uses external resources collectively to conduct with or without the use of indigenous resources.

  • Determines the likelihood that critical information can be protected based on procedures that are currently in place.

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

To provide access to Social Media sites, the DoD agency must provide all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Protection against malware and advance threats.

  • Blocked access to prohibited sites and content.

  • Individual compliance with Joint Ethics Regulations and guidelines.

  • Constant monitoring to deter inappropriate site access.

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

Who’s responsibility is it during the categorize steps to identify a potential impact (low, moderate, or high) due to loss of confidentiality, integrity, and availability if a security breach occurs?

Select one of the following:

  • Information System Owner (ISO)

  • Information Owner (IO)

  • Information System Security Manager (ISSM)

  • Authorizing Official (AO)

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

Please determine which of the following is an example of reportable foreign intelligence contacts, activities, indicators, and behaviors.

Select one of the following:

  • Authorizing others to acquire unauthorized access to classified or sensitive information systems.

  • Unauthorized downloads or uploads of sensitive data.

  • Network spillage incidents or information compromise.

  • Use of DoD account credentials by unauthorized parties.

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

Limiting nonsecure computer e-mail messages to nonmilitary activities and not providing operational formation in nonsecure e-mail messages are functions of which OPSEC measure?

Select one of the following:

  • Operational and Logistic Measures

  • Technical Measures

  • Administrative Measures

  • Operations Security and Military Deception

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT a category of Information Technology (IT)?

Select one of the following:

  • Platform Information Technology (PIT)

  • Information Technology Services

  • Information Technology Products

  • Information Technology Applications

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

What step within the Risk Management Framework (RMF) does system categorization occur?

Select one of the following:

  • Categorize Information System

  • Select Security Controls

  • Implement Security Controls

  • Assess Security Controls

  • Authorize

  • Monitor Security Controls

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

At what step of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) would you develop a system-level continuous monitoring strategy?

Select one of the following:

  • Categorize Information System

  • Select Security Controls

  • Implement Security Controls

  • Assess Security Controls

  • Authorize

  • Monitor Security Controls

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

One responsibility of the Information System Security Manager (ISSM) during Step 6 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) is:

Select one of the following:

  • Review and approve the security plan and system-level continuous monitoring strategy developed and implemented by the DoD Components.

  • Monitor the system for security relevant events and configuration changes that affect the security posture negatively.

  • Determine and documents a risk level in the Security Assessment Report (SAR) for every non-compliant security control in the system baseline.

  • Coordinate the organization of the Information System (IS) and Platform Information Technology (PIT) systems with the Program Manager (PM)/System Manager (SM), Information System Owner (ISO), Information Owner (IO), mission owner(s), Action Officer (AO) or their designated representatives.

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

What family of controls does Security Functionality Verification belong to?

Select one of the following:

  • System and Communications Protection

  • Maintenance

  • System and Information Integrity

  • Audit and Accountability

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

The _________________________ provides oversight in mission assurance efforts on issues that cut across all DoD protection programs and functions as an Office of Secretary of Defense (OSD) and Joint Staff-level management and decision support forum.

Select one of the following:

  • Antiterrorism Executive Committee

  • Mission Assurance Senior Steering Group

  • Threat Working Group

  • Antiterrorism Working Group

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

The primary purpose of physical security is prevention and protection.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are facility access control procedures?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Entry and exit inspections

  • Electronic gate

  • Identification systems

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following protective measures can make doors more attack-resistant?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Install solid steel doors

  • Mount cameras on the roof

  • Limit the number of entrances and exits to what is necessary

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

In order to plan and implement effective physical security measures, you must use the __________________ to determine where and how to allocate your security resources.

Select one of the following:

  • risk management process

  • threat assessment process

  • operation assessment process

  • vulnerability assessment process

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

Which of the following best defines security-in-depth?

Select one of the following:

  • The use of fencing around the perimeter of a structure

  • The use of barriers around the perimeter of a structure

  • The layering of physical security measures through the application of active and passive complementary security controls

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

True or false? Commanders should comply with and integrate DoD physical security and installation access control policies into their Force Protection Conditions (FPCON) plans.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

______________ are provided to senior leaders to assist in determining the appropriate Force Protection Condition (FPCON) level.

Select one of the following:

  • Antiterrorism countermeasures

  • Physical security layer strategies

  • Threat levels

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

__________ authorizes commanders to issue regulations for the protection or security of property and places under their command and establishes guidelines to build consistent minimum standards for protecting DoD installations and resources.

Select one of the following:

  • DoDM 5200.01

  • DoDI 5200.08

  • DoD 5200.08-R

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

Which of the following establishes duties and responsibilities that assist in maintaining operational order during both normal and stressful situations?

Select one of the following:

  • Standard Operating Procedures and Post Orders

  • Standard Operating Procedures and the Physical Security Plan

  • Post Orders and the Physical Security Plan

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

Security systems such as intrusion detection systems (IDS) and closed circuit television (CCTV) systems are countermeasures.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

Who is responsible for physical security planning, coordination, and integration of identified mission essential capabilities?

Select one of the following:

  • OPSEC Officer

  • CI Support

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • Installation Commander/Facility Director

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

Inspections can ensure compliance with the physical security plan, verify policy compliance, and promote cost effective security.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

Which of the following is the purpose of an interior intrusion detection system (IDS)?

Select one of the following:

  • To provide a complete solution to a facility security posture.

  • To terminate any intrusion into a facility.

  • To deter, detect, and document intrusion in the environment.

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

_____________ have reinforced concrete on all walls, ceilings, and floors and hardened steel doors.

Select one of the following:

  • Secure rooms

  • Vaults

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

Which threat level signifies terrorists are present but there are no indications of anti-U.S. activity and the Operating Environment favors the Host Nation or the U.S.?

Select one of the following:

  • Significant

  • Low

  • High

  • Moderate

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

The primary purpose of physical security is ____________ and protection.

Select one of the following:

  • attacking intruders

  • prevention

  • security-in-depth

Explanation