Arthur Casto
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Arthur Casto
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SFPC 3

Question 1 of 196

1

Jackson Perkins is being considered for promotion to a higher risk position in the federal agency for which he currently works. His suitability investigation reflected two speeding tickets in the past five years on the compound where he currently works but no other traffic violations or criminal activity. Which suitability factor is most applicable to the facts in this scenario?

Select one of the following:

  • Factor 1: Misconduct or Negligence in Employment

  • Factor 2: Criminal or Dishonest Conduct

  • Factor 3: Material, Intentional False Statement or Deception or Fraud in Employment

Explanation

Question 2 of 196

1

Which system captures position information to include position risk and sensitivity?

Select one of the following:

  • Position Designation Automated Tool (PDT)

  • Electronic Questionnaire for Investigations Processing (eQIP) system

  • Defense Civilian Personnel Data System (DCPDS)

Explanation

Question 3 of 196

1

Who primarily conducts suitability adjudications?

Select one of the following:

  • Office of Personnel Management (OPM)

  • Defense Civilian Personnel Advisory Service (DCPAS)

  • Adjudicator from the employing agency, component or DoD CAF

Explanation

Question 4 of 196

1

Which type of investigation is used to reinvestigate employees in non-sensitive, high risk public trust positions?

Select one of the following:

  • T1R

  • T2R

  • T4R

Explanation

Question 5 of 196

1

Which type of adjudication is required to determine if an individual should be allowed to hold a position of public trust?

Select one of the following:

  • Public Trust adjudication

  • HSPD-12 adjudication

  • Suitability adjudication

Explanation

Question 6 of 196

1

When does OPM or the agency or component notify the subject of his or her appeal rights?

Select one of the following:

  • In the final decision

  • In the answer to the notice of a proposed action

  • In the notice of proposed action

Explanation

Question 7 of 196

1

Larry Lengal is applying for a federal position. Mr Lengal’s investigation revealed that he joined a group called Freedom Youth when he was in college. The group participated in anti-US demonstrations by the White House. Which suitability factor is most applicable to the facts in this scenario?

Select one of the following:

  • Factor 2: Criminal or Dishonest Conduct

  • Factor 7: Knowing and Willful Engagement in Acts/Activities designed to overthrow the US Government by Force

  • Factor 8: Statutory or Regulatory Bar to Employment

Explanation

Question 8 of 196

1

Who is responsible for issuing government-wide debarments?

Select one of the following:

  • FBI

  • OPM

  • DoD

Explanation

Question 9 of 196

1

What is the course of action if suitability issues are revealed during prescreening?

Select one of the following:

  • The applicant will be debarred

  • The file is referred to the suitability adjudicator

  • An unfavorable suitability determination will be made

Explanation

Question 10 of 196

1

Why is it important that components and agencies report their adjudicative decisions to OPM?

Select one of the following:

  • To comply with Federal Law

  • To ensure the information is available to other agencies to ensure efficiency of the civil service

Explanation

Question 11 of 196

1

In which of the following cases would a suitability adjudication NOT be automatically required?

Select one of the following:

  • Janice is being promoted to a new position within the federal government which has a higher level of risk than her previous position.

  • Jeff is applying for a federal position with the Department of Agriculture and has not previously held a federal job.

  • Carla is returning to the federal workforce after she left her federal service position 1 year ago to have her first child.

Explanation

Question 12 of 196

1

To which of the following groups do fitness requirement apply?

Select one of the following:

  • Contractor employees, employees serving in Federal competitive service position or Federal expected service positons that may convert to competitive service positions

  • Contractor employees, and employees serving in Federal excepted service positions that cannot be noncompetitively converted to competitive service positions.

  • Applicants, appointees, and employees serving in Federal competitive services positions or Federal excepted service positions that may convert to competitive service positions.

Explanation

Question 13 of 196

1

Which of the following is used to assess a position levels of risk and sensitivity?

Select one of the following:

  • Position Designation Automated Tool (PDT)

  • Electronic Questionnaires for Investigations processing (eQIP) system

  • Personnel Investigations Processing System (PIPS)

  • Central Verification System (CVS)

Explanation

Question 14 of 196

1

What is a common problem found in personnel security investigation requests?

Select one of the following:

  • Subject provided discrepant information

  • Subject is not a federal employee

  • Subject has worked for several agencies

  • Subject has lived at one location for over 10 years

Explanation

Question 15 of 196

1

The appeals process is centralized for all agencies, so the steps are the same no matter who the employing agency is.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 16 of 196

1

Review the following case details and determine whether a favorable adjudicative determination should be made.

The investigation into Stacy Brewer reveals that although she has never been implicated in a crime herself, her live-in boyfriend has multiple, drug-related convictions, and several of Ms. Brewer’s friends are in and out of jail on theft and drug charges. She did not disclose that she lived with her boyfriend on her SF-86. When asked about it, she said she intentionally did not list him on her SF-86 as she was afraid her clearance would be denied.

Should Ms. Brewer be granted eligibility?

Select one of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 17 of 196

1

The careful evaluation of favorable and unfavorable information from a subject’s past and present must take the __________ into consideration.

Select one of the following:

  • Review items

  • Continuous evaluation process

  • Investigative process

  • Whole-person

Explanation

Question 18 of 196

1

Straightforward cases may be reviewed automatically by an electronic adjudication system.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 19 of 196

1

To develop and resolve issues flagged in a standard investigation prior to completion of the personnel security investigation, which of the following is used?

Select one of the following:

  • T3R

  • PR

  • NAC

  • EFI Model

Explanation

Question 20 of 196

1

A more comprehensive personnel security investigation may replace a less comprehensive one.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 21 of 196

1

The subject interview is a standard investigative element of which two PSIs?

Select one of the following:

  • Tier 5 and T5R

  • Tier 3 and Tier 5

  • Tier 3 and T3R

  • T3R and T5R

Explanation

Question 22 of 196

1

Prior and current investigative records (for example, from DoD, OPM, and IC databases) are always checked for Tier 3 and Tier 5 initial reinvestigations.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 23 of 196

1

The Supreme Court found in Cole v. Young that the regulations of the personnel security program (PSP) apply to all Federal government employees.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 24 of 196

1

A contractor employee requiring initial secret eligibility and access needs a Tier 3 investigation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 25 of 196

1

Information from private individuals and the news media occasionally provides information to be about an individual holding security eligibility that is reviewed under continuous evaluation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 196

1

What is the relationship between vulnerabilities and threats?

Select one of the following:

  • Both are based in honesty

  • There is no relationship between them

  • Vulnerabilities exploit threats

  • Threats exploit vulnerabilities

Explanation

Question 27 of 196

1

Review the following case details and determine whether a favorable adjudicative determination should be made.

The agency IT department discovered that Jerome Wilson accessed a network folder to which he was not authorized to use. Subsequent investigation showed that his supervisor had asked him to store sensitive files in the folder and had told Mr. Wilson his use was approved. When Mr. Wilson learned that his use was in fact unauthorized, he reported the situation to his supervisor and the security office and stated that he would not access the folder again.

Should Mr. Wilson be granted eligibility?

Select one of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 28 of 196

1

________ is the program name for the Intelligence Community Security Clearance Repository.

Select one of the following:

  • Central Verification System (CVS)

  • Scattered Castles

  • Security/Suitability Investigations Index (SII)

  • Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)

Explanation

Question 29 of 196

1

An individual may be disqualified if available information reflects a recent or recurring pattern of questionable judgment, irresponsibility, or emotionally unstable behavior.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 30 of 196

1

Failure to comply with prescribed treatment is a mitigating condition under the psychological conditions adjudicative guideline.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 196

1

Which of the following lays out standards and procedures for SCI access?

Select one of the following:

  • ICD 704

  • E.O. 13567

  • Title 5, Code of Federal Regulation, Part 732

  • Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act

Explanation

Question 32 of 196

1

The deliberate falsification of facts on a personnel security questionnaire is a disqualifying condition under which of these adjudicative guidelines?

Select one of the following:

  • Use of Information Technology Systems

  • Handling Protected Information

  • Outside Activities

  • Personal Conduct

Explanation

Question 33 of 196

1

The personnel security program is concerned only with the threat posed by foreign intelligence service.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 34 of 196

1

The federal government is exempt from the Privacy Act of 1974 and as such, can collect personal information without notifying the subject of why said information is being collected.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 35 of 196

1

An individual seeking secret clearance eligibility failed to report as required the possession of a foreign passport, and has used the foreign passport to enter and exit the United States, the individual may be granted eligibility.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 36 of 196

1

The highest OPM-defined civilian position sensitivity level is _________.

Select one of the following:

  • Top Secret

  • Critical-Sensitive

  • Special-Sensitive

  • Confidential

Explanation

Question 37 of 196

1

Which of the following was previously a stand-alone investigation but now is a foundational component of other investigations?

Select one of the following:

  • NACLC

  • ANACI

  • SSBI

  • NAC

  • NACI

Explanation

Question 38 of 196

1

When evaluating an individual’s foreign contacts and interests, what should the adjudicator consider about the associated country?

Select one of the following:

  • Does the country have a trade agreement with the US?

  • Is the country associated with a risk of terrorism?

  • Foreign business or financial interests may not benefit the US

  • Is the country an economic competitor with the US?

  • Is the country a member of NATO?

Explanation

Question 39 of 196

1

Tier 5 is the minimum investigation to support initial assignment to non-critical sensitive.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 40 of 196

1

The deliberate falsification of fact on a personnel security questionnaire is a disqualifying condition under which of these national security adjudicative guidelines?

Select one of the following:

  • Handling Protected Information

  • Outside Activities

  • Use of Information Technology

  • Personal Conduct

Explanation

Question 41 of 196

1

Review the following case details and determine whether a favorable adjudicative termination should be made.
Melissa Stewart listed mental health treatment on her SF-86. A qualified and approved mental health care provider advised that her condition is in remission and has a low probability of recurrence.
Should Ms. Stewart be granted eligibility?

Select one of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 42 of 196

1

A mitigating condition does which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Overcomes a disqualifying condition in every case and permits a favorable determination

  • Lessens the severity or seriousness of a disqualifying condition

  • The adjudicator may consider it to decide a ‘borderline’ case

  • Has almost no effect on the final determination

Explanation

Question 43 of 196

1

An individual with a history of excessive alcohol consumption has applied for clearance eligibility. The behavior occurred long ago, and in the years since, the individual has acknowledged and overcome the problem, and successfully completed treatment, Therefore, the individual may be granted eligibility.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 44 of 196

1

_____________ establishes a uniform Federal PSP for all employees who hold sensitive positions or who must access classified information.

Select one of the following:

  • White House Memorandum of Dec 29, 2005

  • Executive Order 12968

  • DoDI 5200.02/DoDM 5200.02

Explanation

Question 45 of 196

1

The Tier 3 investigation replaced the ANACI, which was the former investigation used to grant initial secret of confidential eligibility for civilians.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 46 of 196

1

Which of the following is a function of the DoD CAF?

Select one of the following:

  • Making final appointments to civilian sensitive positions after completion of the PSIs.

  • Making final determinations on appeals of denied or revoked security clearances.

  • Determining a subject’s eligibility for military service.

  • Denying or revoking security clearance eligibility for access to classified information and/or assignment to a sensitive position.

Explanation

Question 47 of 196

1

Which of the following statements is true regarding criminal conduct?

Select one of the following:

  • Only felony convictions are disqualifying

  • Criminal conduct may be mitigated if there is evidence of rehabilitation

  • All criminal convictions are viewed equally during an adjudication

Explanation

Question 48 of 196

1

The DoD DOES NOT need a Personnel Security Program because all people are equally trustworthy.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 49 of 196

1

The subject of an investigation may request a copy of their PSI from which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • The investigative agency

  • The activity security office

  • The DoD CAF

  • The supervisor

Explanation

Question 50 of 196

1

_________________ is the investigative agency authorized to conduct investigations for the DoD PSP.

Select one of the following:

  • Federal Bureau of Investigations

  • Central Intelligence Agency

  • Defense Intelligence Agency

  • National Background Investigations Bureau

Explanation

Question 51 of 196

1

Which of the following would be required for all levels of DoD Interim clearances?

Select one of the following:

  • Favorable review of FBI fingerprint records

  • Favorable review of local records

  • Favorable review of a completed form SF-86

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 52 of 196

1

All DoD personnel have an obligation to report information that reflects an actual or potential danger to national security.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 53 of 196

1

Which civilian position sensitivity level has the potential for inestimable damage to the nation security or for inestimable adverse impact to the efficiency of the DoD or the Military Services?

Select one of the following:

  • Non-Sensitive

  • Critical-Sensitive

  • Noncritical-Sensitive

  • Special-Sensitive

Explanation

Question 54 of 196

1

The step in due process for military and civilian personnel are different.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 55 of 196

1

Review the following case details and determine whteher a favorable adjudicative determination should be made.
Stan Nelson revealed on his SF-86 that he pled guilty to statutory rape when he was 18, for having consensual sexual relations with his 16-year-old girlfriend. Mr. Nelson served a 90-day sentence and successfully completed his probation and required community service; his girlfriend subsequently express remorse that he was charged with a crim. In the 12 years since, Mr. Nelson has not had additional arrests or incidents concerning sexual or criminal behavior.
Should Mr. Nelson be granted eligibility?

Select one of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 56 of 196

1

Discovery of adverse information after issuance of security clearance eligibility _________.

Select one of the following:

  • Will be considered at the next periodic reinvestigation

  • Automatically triggers a new investigation

  • May result in access suspension

Explanation

Question 57 of 196

1

What is the purpose of the National Background Investigations Bureau (NBIB) Case Closing Transmittal cover sheer?

Select one of the following:

  • Report an unfavorable adjudicative determination to the subject

  • Recommend an adjudicative determination to the DoD CAF

  • Document complete, incomplete, and pending checks from the investigation

Explanation

Question 58 of 196

1

The briefing given to personnel who have recently been approved for access to classified information or assigned to a position of trust is the:

Select one of the following:

  • Initial Briefing

  • Refresher Briefing

  • Termination Briefing

  • Foreign Travel Briefing

Explanation

Question 59 of 196

1

A subject interview is a standard investigative element for Tier 3 and Tier 5 investigations.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 60 of 196

1

________________ are weaknesses, characteristics or circumstances that can be exploited by an adversary to gain access to or information from an asset.

Select one of the following:

  • Vulnerabilities

  • Risks

  • Threats

Explanation

Question 61 of 196

1

Although the specific content of a Physical Security Plan may vary between components, installations, units, or activities, the format remains the same.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 62 of 196

1

Rivers, cliffs, and dense growth are examples of which type of barrier?

Select one of the following:

  • Active barrier

  • Natural barrier

  • Passive barrier

Explanation

Question 63 of 196

1

Physical security planning is deciding which security measures will be used to prevent unauthorized access to DoD assets and to safeguard those assets against threats.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 64 of 196

1

__________________ are conducted by peers or by senior agency personnel in the chain-of-command.

Select one of the following:

  • Compliance inspections

  • Self-inspections

  • Surveys

  • Staff assist visits

Explanation

Question 65 of 196

1

In a tactical environment, Physical Security Plans should be based on METT-TC, which stands for mission, _______________, terrain and weather, troops, time available, and civilian considerations.

Select one of the following:

  • Exercises

  • Equipment

  • Enemy

Explanation

Question 66 of 196

1

Providing information on the capabilities and intentions of our adversaries is the responsibility of the ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • Physical Security Officer

  • Commander or Director

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • Operational Security Officer

  • Counterintelligence Support

Explanation

Question 67 of 196

1

Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs) are graduated categories of measures or actions commanders take to protect personnel and assets from attack.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 68 of 196

1

________________ establish duties, roles and responsibilities at individual assignments, checkpoints, gates and guard posts.

Select one of the following:

  • Physical Security Plans (PSP)

  • Memorandums of Understanding (MOU)

  • Post Orders

Explanation

Question 69 of 196

1

_________________, the inspector should review any local security directives, the Physical Security Plan, its Standard Operating Procedures, and any previous inspection reports, exceptions, and waivers.

Select one of the following:

  • When preparing the inspection report

  • In preparation for an inspection

  • During the inspection

Explanation

Question 70 of 196

1

____________________ use Defense Terrorism Warning Reports to convey _________________.

Select one of the following:

  • The DIA and COCOMs / DoD Terrorist Threat Levels

  • COCOMs and Installation Commanders / Force Protection Conditions

  • The DHS and COCOMs / DoD Terrorist Threat Levels

Explanation

Question 71 of 196

1

A ______________ defines emergency delegations of authority and orders of succession to ensure DoD Component Mission Essential Functions (MEFs) continue under all circumstances.

Select one of the following:

  • Physical Security Plan (PSP)

  • Continuity of Operations Plan (COOP)

  • Memorandum of Agreement (MOA)

Explanation

Question 72 of 196

1

Threat levels assist senior leaders to determine the appropriate ________ level.

Select one of the following:

  • Classification designation

  • FPCON

  • SOP

  • GSA security specification

Explanation

Question 73 of 196

1

Two antiterrorism tools the DoD uses to safeguard DoD assets are __________________ and _______________.

Select one of the following:

  • Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs) and Terrorist Threat Levels

  • Threat Working Group and Post Orders

  • Countermeasures and Standard Operating Procedures

Explanation

Question 74 of 196

1

__________________ issue Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs).

Select one of the following:

  • COCOMs and Installation Commanders/Facility Directors

  • The DHS and COCOMs

  • The DIA and COCOMs

Explanation

Question 75 of 196

1

It’s better for an inspector not to announce the inspection in order to create a surprise effect and see how everything really operates.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 76 of 196

1

Which system detects a change in the environment and transmits an alarm?

Select one of the following:

  • CCTV

  • Access Controls System

  • IDS

Explanation

Question 77 of 196

1

___________________ are often overlooked in physical security planning and implementation.

Select one of the following:

  • Lights

  • Barriers

  • Man-passable openings

Explanation

Question 78 of 196

1

Lighting deters unauthorized entry by providing a psychological deterrence to intruders.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 79 of 196

1

______________________ are formal agreements that provide security assistance between DoD activities and from local law enforcement agencies as well as mutual aid from local fire and medical services.

Select one of the following:

  • Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

  • Physical Security Plans (PSP)

  • Memorandums of Understanding and Agreement (MOU/MOA)

Explanation

Question 80 of 196

1

When assessing an asset, you must determine the nature and the value of that asset and the degree of impact if the asset is damaged or lost.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 81 of 196

1

FPCON _________ applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific target is imminent.

Select one of the following:

  • Normal

  • Alpha

  • Bravo

  • Charlie

  • Delta

Explanation

Question 82 of 196

1

There is a one for one correlation between Terrorist Threat Levels and force Protection Conditions.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 83 of 196

1

The _____________________ develops and refines terrorism threat assessments and coordinates and disseminates threat warnings, reports, and summaries.

Select one of the following:

  • Defense Critical Infrastructure Protection (DCIP) Working Group

  • Antiterrorism Working Group (ATWG)

  • Threat Working Group (TWG)

Explanation

Question 84 of 196

1

Examples of oversight tools include day-to-day observations, surveys, staff assist visits, ______________, and the operational environment.

Select one of the following:

  • Policy manuals

  • Inspections

  • Executive Orders

Explanation

Question 85 of 196

1

_____________________ are based on information about terrorist groups such as their operational capability, intentions, activity, and the operational environment.

Select one of the following:

  • Continuity of Operations Plans (COOPs)

  • Counterterrorism measures

  • DoD Terrorist Threat Levels

  • Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs)

Explanation

Question 86 of 196

1

Although the DoD issues DoD-wide guidance for physical security planning and implementation, you should always consult ______________ for specific guidance.

Select one of the following:

  • Your component’s policies

  • Congressional legislation

  • Executive Orders

Explanation

Question 87 of 196

1

As a physical security specialist, you may assume different physical security roles or serve on different working groups, such as the ATWG, TWG, and DCIP.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 88 of 196

1

_______________ can result from day-to-day observations or more formal oversight.

Select one of the following:

  • Inspection reports

  • Incident reports

  • Surveys

Explanation

Question 89 of 196

1

Antiterrorism physical security measures incorporate detection, deterrence, denial and ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • Documentation

  • Evaluation

  • Determination

  • Notification

Explanation

Question 90 of 196

1

The only factor that should be considered when selecting an Intrusion Detection System is the criticality of the asset.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 91 of 196

1

What type of access control system uses verification of an acceptable form of identification such as the Common Access Card, or CAC?

Select one of the following:

  • Manual

  • Combination

  • Biometric

  • Physical

  • Mechanical

  • Automated

Explanation

Question 92 of 196

1

Controlled lighting is used when it is necessary to limit the brightness of the light.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 93 of 196

1

What kind of light should be selected in order to enable the security guards to observe intruders at a considerable distance beyond the perimeter?

Select one of the following:

  • Glare projection

  • Emergency projection

  • Downside illumination

  • Standby illumination

Explanation

Question 94 of 196

1

Response forces ___________________________________ .

Select one of the following:

  • respond to alarms and incidents

  • dispatch response forces and mobile patrols

  • guard a high-priority resource

  • can cover large areas in a timely manner

Explanation

Question 95 of 196

1

The purpose of an intrusion detection system is to deter, detect, and _____________ intrusion.

Select one of the following:

  • Forbid

  • Prevent

  • Document

  • Thwart

Explanation

Question 96 of 196

1

A security system with a camera that captures an image, converts it to a video signal, and transmits it to a monitoring station defines _______________________ .

Select one of the following:

  • screening equipment

  • visual monitoring and deterrence

  • access control systems

  • closed circuit television (CCTV)

Explanation

Question 97 of 196

1

The central point for collecting the alarm status from the Premise Control Units (PCU s) handling the alarms under the control of an IDS is the _______________________________ .

Select one of the following:

  • Transmission line hub

  • Security technology and equipment installation

  • monitoring station

Explanation

Question 98 of 196

1

Biometric and non-biometric access control systems are examples of the __________________________ type of access control system.

Select one of the following:

  • Combination

  • Automated

  • Manual

  • Mechanical

  • Physical

Explanation

Question 99 of 196

1

What Security-in-Depth principle is illustrated by a vault with special controls to limit access to only some of the personnel that work within a secure facility?

Select one of the following:

  • control

  • area security

  • enclaving

  • separation

Explanation

Question 100 of 196

1

What type of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitoring provides local centralized monitoring?

Select one of the following:

  • Proprietary monitoring

  • Central station monitoring

  • Local monitoring

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 101 of 196

1

A visitor with a record in the Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS) reflecting the appropriate level of access eligibility but who does not have a verified need-to-know for information protected within the controlled area would require ___________________________.

Select one of the following:

  • a visitor badge

  • an "escort required" visitor badge only

  • an "escort required" visitor badge and escort

  • a CAC and escort

Explanation

Question 102 of 196

1

A closed circuit television (CCTV) is an especially valuable security asset because it can be used effectively without establishing procedures and providing training in its use.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 103 of 196

1

When is a security force response required?

Select one of the following:

  • When an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) sensor is triggered.

  • When an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is not reporting an alarm.

  • When an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) protects a highly critical asset.

  • When an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) alarm notification is received.

Explanation

Question 104 of 196

1

Conveyor belt style x-ray machines are classified as what type of screening equipment?

Select one of the following:

  • Pedestrian

  • Fixed

  • Intrusive

  • Portable

Explanation

Question 105 of 196

1

What are the types of screening equipment most frequently used by the Department of Defense (DoD)?

Select one of the following:

  • Fixed and portable

  • Portable and closed circuit television (CCTV)

  • Detection and reporting

Explanation

Question 106 of 196

1

What Intrusion Detection System (IDS) operational phase is activated when the Premise Control Unit (PCU) receives signals from sensors in a protected area and incorporates these signals into a communications scheme?

Select one of the following:

  • Response/Assessment

  • Detection

  • Dispatch

  • Reporting

Explanation

Question 107 of 196

1

What is the preferred method of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitoring?

Select one of the following:

  • Central station monitoring

  • Proprietary monitoring

  • Remote monitoring

  • Local monitoring

Explanation

Question 108 of 196

1

What type of access control system is a card swipe, with or without a personal identification number, or PIN?

Select one of the following:

  • Combination

  • Physical

  • Manual

  • Automated

  • Biometric

Explanation

Question 109 of 196

1

What type of lighting is used when additional lighting is necessary and may be activated by alarm or motion detector?

Select one of the following:

  • Standby lighting

  • Surface lighting

  • Emergency lighting

  • Continuous lighting

Explanation

Question 110 of 196

1

What are signs, barriers, and fences used for in perimeter protection systems?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Deterring unlawful or unauthorized entry

  • Establishing legal boundaries

  • Preventing all types of penetration

  • Integrating protection assets

  • Preventing observation from outside

Explanation

Question 111 of 196

1

Active barrier systems define perimeters and ensure only authorized personnel are permitted access.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 112 of 196

1

When are static observation posts used?

Select one of the following:

  • When continuous surveillance is required.

  • To cover large areas in a timely manner.

  • To monitor alarms and respond to emergencies.

  • To monitor entry to a facility or secure area.

Explanation

Question 113 of 196

1

The use of _____________________ provides security personnel the ability to visually monitor multiple areas simultaneously.

Select one of the following:

  • access control

  • closed circuit television (CCTV)

  • a visual deterrent system

  • screening equipment

Explanation

Question 114 of 196

1

What does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) detect?

Select one of the following:

  • Only unauthorized intrusions

  • A change in the state of an indoor detection device by a change in outdoor environmental devices

  • A change in state of detection devices that may require further investigation

  • Prevention of an unauthorized intrusion

Explanation

Question 115 of 196

1

While both Class V and Class VI GSA-approved containers offer protection against covert and surreptitious entry, only Class V containers offer protection against forced entry.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 116 of 196

1

What is the purpose of the warning label on GSA-approved containers manufactured beginning April 2007?

Select one of the following:

  • Warns against storing classified information with sensitive materials such as money and weapons

  • Warns against storing unclassified information in the container

  • Warns against unapproved modification of the container

Explanation

Question 117 of 196

1

In AA&E storage facilities, why must drainage structures be secured if they cross the fence line and meet certain size requirements?

Select one of the following:

  • To prevent rats from infesting the facility

  • To prevent anyone from crawling into the area

  • To prevent water from backing up into the facility

Explanation

Question 118 of 196

1

Unauthorized entrance into restricted areas is subject to prosecution.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 119 of 196

1

Which is NOT approved for the open storage of classified information?

Select one of the following:

  • Storage closet

  • Secure room

  • Vault

Explanation

Question 120 of 196

1

Which DoD-mandated practice reduces protection, storage, and inventory costs?

Select one of the following:

  • Consolidate AA&E storage facilities

  • Categorize and store AA&E by security risk categories

  • Demilitarize/dispose of obsolete and unserviceable AA&E

Explanation

Question 121 of 196

1

You can find construction standards for vaults and secure rooms in DoD facilities by reviewing _________________.

Select one of the following:

  • the NISPOM

  • ICS 705

  • DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4, Information Security Program

Explanation

Question 122 of 196

1

DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4, Information Security Program
Which of the following statements is true about locks and keys for security containers?

Select one of the following:

  • Keys may be stored in your desk drawer as long as it locks.

  • Key-operated locks may not be used on storage containers securing classified material.

  • Locks and keys should be afforded the same level of protection as the material or information being secured.

Explanation

Question 123 of 196

1

Certain non-GSA-approved security containers are approved for storage of classified information in the DoD.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 124 of 196

1

The design goal for an AA&E storage facility is that is must meet or exceed 10 minutes of resistance to _________________ entry.

Select one of the following:

  • covert

  • surreptitious

  • forced

Explanation

Question 125 of 196

1

Why should you categorize, store, and protect AA&E by security risk categories?

Select one of the following:

  • To reduce overall protection costs

  • To save space

  • To identify obsolete AA&E

Explanation

Question 126 of 196

1

Storage containers and facilities protect valuable, sensitive, and classified information by ________________.

Select one of the following:

  • consolidating no longer needed classified information

  • delaying unauthorized entry

  • preventing all unauthorized entry

Explanation

Question 127 of 196

1

If you need to know the manufacture date of a GSA-approved container, on which label would you find that information?

Select one of the following:

  • Number label

  • GSA-approved label

  • Warning label

  • Test certification label

  • Container identification label

Explanation

Question 128 of 196

1

Which of these statements is true about storage of Confidential information?

Select one of the following:

  • Supplemental protection is not normally required when storing Confidential information in an approved storage container.

  • Supplemental protection is always required when storing Confidential information regardless of which storage container is used.

  • Supplemental protection is usually required when storing Confidential information in a secure room.

Explanation

Question 129 of 196

1

Storage containers and facilities are not only important to our national security, but also to the safety of the general public.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 130 of 196

1

For AA&E SRC III & IV, if no IDS is present Security Force checks during non-duty hours is required.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 131 of 196

1

Storage containers or facilities will always provide enough protection for certain types of information or material on their own.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 132 of 196

1

To store classified information, you may only use Class V or Class VI GSA-approved containers as the other classes of containers may no longer be used.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 133 of 196

1

What is considered an additional measure for AA&E storage?

Select one of the following:

  • IDS

  • Communications

  • CCTV

  • Security Forces

Explanation

Question 134 of 196

1

There are certain times when you must change the combination on locks securing classified information. Which of the following is not a time when you must change the combination?

Select one of the following:

  • When the container is taken out of service

  • When the container or lock has been subject to possible compromise

  • When anyone with knowledge of the combination no longer requires access

  • Prior to going on extended leave

Explanation

Question 135 of 196

1

Which group uses the same set of storage requirements based on security risk categories?

Select one of the following:

  • Arms and ammunition

  • Arms and explosives

  • Ammunition and explosives

Explanation

Question 136 of 196

1

What items can a Nuclear Storage Facility store?

Select one of the following:

  • Nothing

  • Weapons

  • Precious metals

  • Money

Explanation

Question 137 of 196

1

Perimeter lighting in AA&E storage facilities is _________________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Determined by DoD Components

  • A good best practice

  • Required

Explanation

Question 138 of 196

1

Which of these statements is true about storage of Secret information?

Select one of the following:

  • Supplemental protection is not required when storing Secret information in a vault.

  • Supplemental protection is always required when storing Secret information.

  • Supplemental protection is never required when storing Secret information in a secure room.

Explanation

Question 139 of 196

1

What do the classes of GSA-approved containers represent?

Select one of the following:

  • Which ones are approved for the storage of classified information

  • The types of sensitive material for which each container is approved

  • Varying degrees of protection against different types of unauthorized entry

Explanation

Question 140 of 196

1

Who uses SCIFs?

Select one of the following:

  • The intelligence community

  • Only those who have a Top Secret clearance

  • Anyone who stores classified information

Explanation

Question 141 of 196

1

If you needed to find information on physical security standards for SCIFs, which reference would you consult?

Select one of the following:

  • ICD 705

  • The NISPOM

  • DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4

Explanation

Question 142 of 196

1

For storage of classified you may use which GSA-approved containers?

Select one of the following:

  • Only containers with black labels

  • Containers with any GSA-approved label

  • Only containers with red labels

Explanation

Question 143 of 196

1

Which of the following is an example of a locking device?

Select one of the following:

  • Bolt

  • Cylinder

  • Key

Explanation

Question 144 of 196

1

You are considering locking solutions for your facility. When assessing the life safety aspect of the solution, which of the following must be considered?

Select one of the following:

  • fire alarms on doors

  • keeping intruders out

  • emergency exit from a locked door

Explanation

Question 145 of 196

1

The use of a master key system is not acceptable in ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • barracks

  • general office areas

  • secure areas

Explanation

Question 146 of 196

1

Which of the following must you do when opening an electromechanical lock such as the X-07, X-08, X-09, and X-10?

Select one of the following:

  • Count the number of dial rotations in between each number in the combination.

  • Turn the dial and stop it when you see the correct number displayed on the LCD.

Explanation

Question 147 of 196

1

All locks consist of three components, one of which is an operating mechanism. Which of the following is NOT one of the other two components?

Select one of the following:

  • Locking device

  • Switching device

  • Securing device

Explanation

Question 148 of 196

1

Which of the following should you do before changing a combination?

Select one of the following:

  • Try the combination three times

  • Call your FSO

  • Lock drawer in open position

Explanation

Question 149 of 196

1

The lock you are using has an LCD rather than a dial with imprinted numbers. You are using _______________________.

Select one of the following:

  • an electromechanical combination lock

  • a combination padlock

  • a mechanical combination lock

Explanation

Question 150 of 196

1

Under Federal Specification FFL-2937, only the S&G 2740 is approved for use as a mechanical combination lock.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 151 of 196

1

Which of the following is not a locking device for a key-operated lock?

Select one of the following:

  • Bolt

  • Pin

  • Latch

Explanation

Question 152 of 196

1

Which type of cylinder provides a locking solution that minimizes the rekeying burden?

Select one of the following:

  • Rim cylinder

  • Interchangeable core cylinder

  • Mortise cylinder

Explanation

Question 153 of 196

1

When assessing the life safety aspect of a locking solution for a facility door, which of the following must be considered?

Select one of the following:

  • The door must be locked to prevent unauthorized entry, but allow those inside to exit through the door without unlocking it.

  • The door must be locked to prevent unauthorized entry and exit.

  • The door must be unlocked so that those inside can exit without having to unlock the door.

Explanation

Question 154 of 196

1

RIsk Management is defined as the process of selecting and implemeting ________________________ to achieve an acceptable level of risk at an acceptable cost.

Select one of the following:

  • Assets

  • Countermeasures

  • Procedures

  • Threats

Explanation

Question 155 of 196

1

Select the correct order of steps in the Risk Management Process.

Select one of the following:

  • Identify Assets, Identify Threats, Assess Vulnerabilities, Assess Risks, Determine Countermeasures

  • Identify Threats, Assess Vulnerabilities, Identify Assets, Determine Countermeasures, Assess Risks

  • Assess Vulnerabilities, Identify Assets, Determine Countermeasures, Identify Threats, Assess RIsks

  • Determine Countermeasures, Assess RIsks, Assess Vulnerabilities, Identify Assets, Identify Threats

Explanation

Question 156 of 196

1

A key and lock custodian should change or rotate locks at least _____________.

Select one of the following:

  • monthly

  • annually

  • quarterly

Explanation

Question 157 of 196

1

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

  • You may not change a combination without a commercial locksmith.

  • You may never allow a commercial locksmith to change your combination.

  • You may allow a commercial locksmith to change your combination under certain circumstances.

Explanation

Question 158 of 196

1

Susan Johnson knows the combination to a security container and Susan lost her clearance today, but she was not terminated from her job. What must happen?

Select one of the following:

  • The combination on that security container must be changed.

  • Nothing must happen. Susan knows she’s no longer authorized and will not access the storage container.

  • The security container must be replaced.

Explanation

Question 159 of 196

1

Which electromechanical lock uses battery power?

Select one of the following:

  • S&G 2740B

  • X-10

  • X-08

Explanation

Question 160 of 196

1

Which of the following is the purpose of a lock’s switching device?

Select one of the following:

  • To allow or deny entry into a container or area

  • To authorize the locking device to open

  • To keep the area or container secured

Explanation

Question 161 of 196

1

You need to decide what type of locking system to use for a storage closet. The closet does not hold classified or sensitive information, but you want to deter entry. Which type of key-operated lock should you use?

Select one of the following:

  • A padlock

  • A built-in lock

Explanation

Question 162 of 196

1

The two primary types of locks used within DoD are ___________ and key locks.

Select one of the following:

  • Biometric

  • Encoded

  • Voice activated

  • Combination

Explanation

Question 163 of 196

1

Which statement best describes the relationship between a locking solution’s level of protection and its cost and labor effort?

Select one of the following:

  • Locking solutions do not have a correlation between level of protection and cost and labor effort; it simply depends on the specific solution.

  • Locking solutions that provide a higher level of protection are more costly, but less labor-intensive.

  • Locking solutions that provide a higher level of protection are more costly and labor-intensive.

Explanation

Question 164 of 196

1

Using birth dates when changing combination numbers is acceptable as long as you don’t use your own.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 165 of 196

1

Pin tumblers are most commonly employed on _______ locks?

Select one of the following:

  • combination

  • tubular

  • cylinder

Explanation

Question 166 of 196

1

What is not a responsibility of the Key Custodian?

Select one of the following:

  • Audit Keys monthly

  • Change or rotate locks quarterly

  • Audit Locks monthly

  • Keep key control register

Explanation

Question 167 of 196

1

Which of the following is the switching device for a key-operated lock?

Select one of the following:

  • bolt

  • cylinder

  • key

Explanation

Question 168 of 196

1

Which of the following is a disadvantage to using a master key system?

Select one of the following:

  • The cost to re-key all of the locks in the system.

  • It is harder to pick the locks.

  • It is harder to copy the locks.

Explanation

Question 169 of 196

1

The S&G 2937 lock is an example of which type of combination lock?

Select one of the following:

  • mechanical

  • padlock

  • electromechanical built-in

Explanation

Question 170 of 196

1

Many building codes require a facility’s exit doors to contain which of the following devices?

Select one of the following:

  • An access card

  • Emergency egress hardware

  • A padlock

Explanation

Question 171 of 196

1

You are making a decision about the locking system to be used in a bulk storage area that contains classified information. Which type of key-operated lock should you use?

Select one of the following:

  • A built-in lock

  • An approved padlock

Explanation

Question 172 of 196

1

You need to review the requirements that electromechanical locks meet. Which of the following specifications should you reference?

Select one of the following:

  • Federal Specification FF-L-2740B

  • Federal Specification FF-P-110

  • Federal Specification FF-L-2937

Explanation

Question 173 of 196

1

Which of the following is authorized by the DoD for securing conventional arms, ammunition, and explosives (AA&E)?

Select one of the following:

  • X-10 lock

  • Combination padlock

  • S&G 833C

Explanation

Question 174 of 196

1

You need to secure classified information. Which of these locks could you use?

Select one of the following:

  • X-10 electromechanical lock

  • S&G 2740B

  • S&G 8077 padlock

  • All of these locks

Explanation

Question 175 of 196

1

In the Risk Management Process, Assets can be assigned to each of the following categories:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Information

  • Activities and Operations

  • Security

  • People

Explanation

Question 176 of 196

1

Which of the following are undesirable events that can adversely affect an asset?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Access controls

  • Loss of classified documents

  • Terrorist bombing

  • Unauthorized access to sensitive computer files

Explanation

Question 177 of 196

1

In the Risk Management Process, a _____________ rating indicates that a compromise to assets would have serious consequences resulting in loss of classified or highly sensitive data that could impair operations affecting nation interest for a limited period of time

Select one of the following:

  • Medium

  • Low

  • High

  • Critical

Explanation

Question 178 of 196

1

Which of the following are examples of threats?

Select one of the following:

  • Terrorists

  • Insiders

  • Natural Disasters

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 179 of 196

1

A threat may include which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

  • The intention and capability of an adversary to undertake detrimental action against an asset owners interest.

  • Potential vulnerabilities related to specific assets and their undesirable actions.

  • Any indication, or event with the potential to cause loss or damage to an asset.

Explanation

Question 180 of 196

1

Which of the following are general areas of potential vulnerabilities?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Operational

  • Facility

  • Security

  • Human

  • Information

Explanation

Question 181 of 196

1

Compute this Risk Assessment formula: Risk = Impact x (Threat x Vulnerability)
Impact = 75
Threat = 0.6
Vulnerability = 0.5

Select one of the following:

  • 225

  • 75.1

  • 22.5

  • 738

Explanation

Question 182 of 196

1

Which of the following are categories of countermeasures in the Risk Management Process?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Security

  • Manpower

  • Procedures

  • Equipment

Explanation

Question 183 of 196

1

Risk Management is the process of selecting and implementing security countermeasures to achieve an acceptable level of risk at any cost.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 184 of 196

1

Capability refers to an adversary's ability to act as a potential threat.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 185 of 196

1

What common vulnerability areas might an adversary exploit?

Select one of the following:

  • Assets at risk of visual observation

  • Information leaks

  • Physically stored equipment

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 186 of 196

1

Wireless computer networks are an example of a vulnerability in which category?

Select one of the following:

  • Human

  • Operational

  • Informational

  • Facility

  • Equipment

Explanation

Question 187 of 196

1

Which property control systems are an example of a vulnerability in which category?

Select one of the following:

  • Human

  • Operational

  • Informational

  • Facility

  • Equipment

Explanation

Question 188 of 196

1

Which of the following are important roles of the NISP in Continuous Monitoring?

Select one or more of the following:

  • to establish organizational business practices

  • to ensure that cleared industry safeguards classified information and information systems

  • to protect critical assets

  • to thwart foreign adversaries and insider threats to information systems

Explanation

Question 189 of 196

1

This guidance requires that individuals' actions on a classified contractor information system be auditable.

Select one of the following:

  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)

  • National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication (NIST SP)

  • DoD Policy and Guidance

Explanation

Question 190 of 196

1

These policies and guidance establishes the requirement for a continuous and integrated capability to monitor and audit for threats and vulnerabilities from internal and external sources.

Select one of the following:

  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)

  • National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication (NIST SP)

  • DoD Policy and Guidance

Explanation

Question 191 of 196

1

This publication provides detailed guidance on the development and implementation of an Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) program and security-focused configuration management.

Select one of the following:

  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)

  • National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication (NIST SP)

  • DoD Policy and Guidance

Explanation

Question 192 of 196

1

Which of the following identify how the RMF supports risk management?

Select one or more of the following:

  • The RMF process ensures that business process decisions can override user information system concerns.

  • The RMF process provides a flexible approach with decision-making at tier 3.

  • The RMF process ensures traceability and transparency across all levels of the organization,

  • The RMF process emphasizes continuous monitoring and timely correction of deficiencies,

Explanation

Question 193 of 196

1

An Information Systems Owner (ISO) categorizes systems at this RMF level:

Select one of the following:

  • Tier 1

  • Tier 2

  • Tier 3

Explanation

Question 194 of 196

1

The Program Manager/System Manager (PM/SM) enforces RMF authorizations decisions at this level:

Select one of the following:

  • Tier 1

  • Tier 2

  • Tier 3

Explanation

Question 195 of 196

1

ISCM strategy at this level is focused on the controls that address the establishment and management of the organization's information security program, including establishing the minimum frequency with which each security control or metric is to be assessed or monitored.

Select one of the following:

  • Tier 1

  • Tier 2

  • Tier 3

Explanation

Question 196 of 196

1

ISCM strategy at this level is focused on high-level information security governance policy as it relates to risk to the organization as a whole, to its core missions, and to its business functions.

Select one of the following:

  • Tier 1

  • Tier 2

  • Tier 3

Explanation

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