SFPC 4 | Quiz

Question 1 of 200

1

ISCM strategy at this level is focused on ensuring that all system-level security controls are implemented correctly, operate as intended, produce the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system, and continue to be effective over time.

Select one of the following:

Tier 1
Tier 2
Tier 3

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

Which of the following are security-focused configuration management (SecCM) roles in risk management?

Select one or more of the following:

Ensuring that adjustments to the system configuration do not adversely affect the security of the information system
Establishing configuration baselines and tracking, controlling, and managing aspects of business development
Ensuring that adjustments to the system configuration do not adversely affect the organizations operations
Establishing a firm schedule for security patch updates every six months

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

This security Configuration Management (CM) control includes physical and logical access controls and prevents the installation of software and firmware unless verified with an approved certificate.

Select one of the following:

Configuration Change Control
Access Restrictions for Change
Configuration Settings
Least Functionality
Software Usage Restrictions
User-Installed Software

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

This security Configuration Management (CM) control ensures that software use complies with contract agreements and copyright laws, tracks usage, and is not used for unauthorized distribution, display, performance, or reproduction.

Select one of the following:

Configuration Change Control
Access Restrictions for Change
Configuration Settings
Least Functionality
Software Usage Restrictions
User-Installed Software

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

This security Configuration Management (CM) control involves the systematic proposal, justification, implementation, testing, review, and disposition of changes to the systems, including system upgrades and modifications.

Select one of the following:

Configuration Change Control
Access Restrictions for Change
Configurations Settings
Least Functionality
Software Usage Restrictions
User-Installed Software

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

This security Configuration Management (CM) control applies to the parameters that can be changed in hardware, software, or firmware components that affect the security posture and/or funtionality of the system, including registry settings, account/directory permission setting, and settings for functions, ports and protocols.

Select one of the following:

Configuration Change Control
Access Restrictions for Change
Configuration Settings
Least Functionality
Software Usage Restrictions
User-Installed Software

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

Which of the following describes the role of the National Industrial Security Program (NISP) in continuous monitoring?

Select one of the following:

The NISP ensures that requirements for continuous monitoring are undertaken by the government before any classified work may begin
The NISP ensures the partnership between the federal government and private industry places the burden of risk on the subcontractors.
The NISP ensures that restrictions on continuous monitoring activities are in place before any classified work may begin.
The NISP ensures that monitoring requirements, restrictions, and safeguards that industry must follow are in place before any classified work may begin.

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

Which of the following describes the relationship between configuration management controls and continuous monitoring?

Select one of the following:

The configuration management process ensures that patches are applied on systems once a year as a continuous monitoring activity.
Implementing information system changes almost always results in some adjustment to the system configuration that requires continuous monitoring of security controls.
The configuration management process ensures that a schedule for continuous monitoring is in place for anticipated future interconnected systems.

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

Which of the following is a role of risk management in continuous monitoring?

Select one of the following:

Risk management in continuous monitoring ensures that information security solutions are broad-based, consensus-driven, and address the ongoing needs of and risks to the government and industry.
Cybersecurity requirements are managed through the risk management framework while continuous monitoring activities address password changes and Help Desk tasks.
Risk management facilitates an organization-wide vision for security but does not impact continuous monitoring daily and weekly activities.

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following describe continuous monitoring capabilities for detecting threats and mitigating vulnerabilities?

Select one or more of the following:

Conducting frequent audits
Not relying on firewalls to protect against all attacks
Disseminating a fillable form to information system owners to log suspicious activity
Reporting intrusion attempts

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

Which of the following describes how the Information System Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) strategy supports the Tier 2 MISSION/BUSINESS PROCESSES approach to risk management?

Select one of the following:

Tier 2 ISCM strategies focus on ensuring that all system-level security controls
are implemented correctly, operate as intended, produce the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system, and continue to be effective over time.
Tier 2 ISCM strategies focus on the controls that address the establishment and management of the organization’s information security program, including establishing the minimum frequency with which each security control or metric is to be assessed or monitored.
Tier 2 ISCM strategies focus on high-level information security governance policy as it relates to risk to the organization as a whole, to its core missions, and to its business functions.

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

Which of the following is an example of how counterintelligence and cybersecurity personnel support continuous monitoring?

Select one of the following:

Counterintelligence and cybersecurity personnel test automated tools and make recommendations to industry and DoD organizations.
Through aggregation and analysis of Suspicious Network Activity via cyber intrusion, viruses, malware, backdoor attacks, acquisition of user names and passwords, and similar targeting, the DSS CI Directorate produces and disseminates reports on trends in cyberattacks and espionage.

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

Which of the following describes how audit logs support continuous monitoring?

Select one of the following:

Security auditing is a fundamental activity in continuous monitoring in order to schedule automatic security maintenance.
Security auditing is a fundamental activity in continuous monitoring in order to ensure access restriction controls are in place on an information system.
Security auditing is a fundamental activity in continuous monitoring in order to determine what activities occurred and which user or process was responsible for them on an information system.

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

Which of the following identifies how the Risk Management Framework (RMF) supports risk management?

Select one of the following:

The RMF process provides a flexible approach with decision-making at Tier 3.
The RMF process ensures that business process decisions can override user information system concerns.
The RMF process emphasizes continuous monitoring and timely correction of deficiencies.

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are key information provided in a security audit trail analysis?

Select one or more of the following:

Budgeting and cost controls not operating as intended
Unsuccessful accesses to security-relevant objects and directories
Successful and unsuccessful logons/logoffs
Denial of access for excessive logon attempts

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

Which of the following fundamental concepts does continuous monitoring support that means DoD information technology is managed to minimize shared risk by ensuring the security posture of one system is not undermined by vulnerabilities of interconnected systems?

Select one of the following:

Keep up-to-date inventories
Interoperability and operational reciprocity
Force users to use encryption

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

Which of the following ensures that a process is in place for authorized users to report all cybersecurity-related events and potential threats and vulnerabilities and initiates protective or corrective measures when a cybersecurity incident or vulnerability is discovered?

Select one of the following:

Program Manager/System Manager
Information System Owner
Information System Security Officer
User Representative

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

Which of the following are the initial steps for finding the Security Event Log on a computer running Windows 7?

Select one of the following:

Select Control Panel from the Windows Start menu and then select the Security Event Log
Select Control Panel from the Windows Start menu and then select Windows Log
Select Control Panel from the Windows Start menu and then select the Administrative Tools link
Select Control Panel from the Windows Start menu and then select the System and Security link

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

During which of the following Risk Management Framework steps does continuous monitoring take place?

Select one of the following:

Step 1, categorize the system
Step 4, assess the controls
Step 5, authorize the information system
Step 6, monitor the security controls

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

Which of the following describes the role of counterintelligence and cybersecurity in identifying threats to DoD information systems?

Select one of the following:

Counterintelligence and cybersecurity personnel ensure the contractor’s Information System Security Manager checks for unusual activity on a classified system at least once during the contract period of performance.
Counterintelligence and cybersecurity personnel share and report unauthorized accesses attempts, denial of service attacks, exfiltrated data, and other threats/vulnerabilities.
Counterintelligence and cybersecurity personnel ensure the contractor’s Information System Security Officer checks for unusual activity on a classified system at least once during the contract period of performance.

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

Given the information system continuous monitoring (ISCM) process, in which step is security-related information required for metrics, assessments, and reporting collected and, where possible, the collection, analysis, and reporting of data is automated?

Select one of the following:

Step 1: Define an ISCM strategy
Step 2: Establish an ISCM program
Step 3: Implement an ISCM program
Step 4: Analyze data and report findings
Step 5: Respond to findings
Step 6: Review and update the monitoring program

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

Which of the following configuration management controls supporting continuous monitoring activities focuses on configuring the IS to provide only essential capabilities to limit risk and to prevent unauthorized connection of devices, unauthorized transfer of information, or unauthorized tunneling?

Select one of the following:

Baseline Configuration
Least Functionality
Software Usage Restrictions
Information System Component Inventory

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are requirements for audits as outlined in the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)?

Select one or more of the following:

Audit trail contents must be protected against unauthorized access, modification, or deletion.
Audit trail analysis and reporting of security events must be performed annually.
Audit trail contents should be made accessible to the information system user upon written request.
Audit trail analysis and reporting of security events must be performed at least weekly.

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

Which of the following describes the how the patch management process integrates with security-focused configuration management (SecCM)?

Select one of the following:

The patch management process integrates with SecCM once a year when system maintenance is performed.
The patch management process integrates with SecCM on a regular basis when restrictions must be lifted so that all system users can download software updates.
The patch management process integrates with SecCM when performing a Security Impact Analysis to determine whether unanticipated effects from a patch resulted in a change to existing security controls.

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

The patch management process integrates with SecCM when performing a Security Impact Analysis to determine whether unanticipated effects from a patch resulted in a change to existing security controls.

Select one of the following:

Phase 1: Planning
Phase 2: Identifying and Implementing Configurations
Phase 3: Controlling Configuration Changes
Phase 4: Monitoring

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are sources of information system change that security-focused configuration management (SecCM) addresses to mitigate risk?

Select one or more of the following:

New, enhanced, corrected, or updated hardware and software capabilities
Changing business functions
Help Desk tickets
Patches for correcting software flaws and other errors to existing components
New security threats

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

Which of the following requires that individual’s actions on an information system be auditable?

Select one of the following:

National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM), Chapter 1.
National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM), Chapter 3.
National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM), Chapter 5.
National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM), Chapter 8.

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

At what tier of the Risk Management Framework does continuous monitoring take place?

Select one of the following:

Tier 1 - the Organization level
Tier 2 - the Mission/Business Process level
Tier 3 - the Information System level

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following describe how audit logs support continuous monitoring?

Select one or more of the following:

Audit logs are essential in continuous monitoring because they record system activity, application processes, and user activity.
Audit logs are essential in continuous monitoring because they will automatically defragment an information system to increase its speed and response time to user input.
Audit logs are essential in continuous monitoring because they can be used to detect security violations, performance problems, and flaws in applications.

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

Which of the following configuration management controls supporting continuous monitoring activities focuses on physical and logical access controls, workflow automation, media libraries, abstract layers, and change windows and supports auditing of the enforcement actions?

Select one of the following:

Least Functionality
User-Installed Software
Baseline Configuration
Access Restrictions for Change

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

Which of the following describes how the Information System Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) strategy supports the Tier 1 ORGANIZATION approach to risk management?

Select one of the following:

Tier 1 ISCM strategies focus on assessing and monitoring hybrid and common controls implemented at the system level.
Tier 1 ISCM strategies focus on how the organization plans to assess, respond to, and monitor risk as well as the oversight required to ensure that the risk management strategy is effective.
Tier 1 ISCM strategies focus on how ensuring that all system-level security controls (technical, operational, and management controls) are implemented correctly and operate as intended.

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are requirements for audits as outlined in the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)?

Select one or more of the following:

Audit trail contents must be protected against unauthorized access, modification, or deletion.
Audit trail contents should be made accessible to the information system user upon written request.
Audit records must address individual accountability with unique identification and periodic testing of the security posture by the ISSO or ISSM.

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

Which of the following identifies how the Risk Management Framework (RMF) supports risk management?

Select one of the following:

The RMF process provides a flexible approach to decision-making at Tier 3.
The RMF process ensures traceability and transparency across all levels of the organization.
The RMF process ensures that business process decisions can override user information system concerns.

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

Which of the following is a risk management role in continuous monitoring (CM)?

Select one of the following:

Determining whether a contractor should be allowed to monitor and assess their classified network activity.
Determining whether a contractor audit trail is a necessary indicator cyber defense
Addressing risks from an information system and platform information technology system perspective to ensure a process for analyzing threats and vulnerabilities is in place, defining the impact, and identifying countermeasures.

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

Which of the following Event Viewer Logs provides an audit of a user’s log-on events and are classified as successful or failed attempts?

Select one of the following:

Security event log
Setup event log
System event log
Forwarded event log

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

Which of the following describes the how the patch management process integrates with security-focused configuration management (SecCM)?

Select one of the following:

The patch management process integrates with SecCM on a regular basis when restrictions must be lifted so that all system users can download software updates.
The patch management process integrates with SecCM once a year when system maintenance is performed.
The patch management process integrates with SecCM when updating the baseline configuration to the current patch level and then testing and approving patches as part of the configuration change control process.

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

Which of the following describes the relationship between configuration management controls and continuous monitoring?

Select one of the following:

A well-defined configuration management process that integrates continuous monitoring ensures a firm schedule for security patch updates once a year.
A well-defined configuration management process that integrates continuous monitoring ensures the system baseline will not change.
A well-defined configuration management process that integrates continuous monitoring ensures that the required adjustments to the system configuration do not adversely affect the security of the information system.

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

Which of the following describes continuous monitoring capabilities for detecting threats and mitigating vulnerabilities?

Select one of the following:

Investigation of the reasoning behind access restrictions at all levels of the organization.
Investigation into events of unauthorized downloads or uploads of sensitive data; unexplained storage of encrypted data; and unauthorized use of removable media or other transfer devices.
Investigation into physical security breaches at the facility.

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

Which of the following describes continuous monitoring supports interoperability, operational resilience, and operational reciprocity?

Select one of the following:

Continuous monitoring capabilities can detect transmission of information to foreign IP addresses but cannot determine whether classification markings have been removed.
Continuous monitoring capabilities enable security professionals to make quick adjustments to access restriction controls.
Continuous monitoring capabilities and tools ensure cybersecurity products operate in a net-centric manner to enhance the exchange of data and shared security policies.

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

Which of the following would not be considered a possible indicator of recruitment?

Select one of the following:

Offer of financial assistance by a foreign national or stranger
Unreported or frequent foreign travel
Termination notice to go work for a competing company
Contact with an individual who is suspected of being associated with foreign intelligence

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

An unwitting insider is best described as:

Select one of the following:

a person who works overtime
a person with access to information who unknowingly reveals more than they should to persons without a need to know
a person with access to multiple Special Access Programs
a person who discusses their job with co-workers within the Sensitive Compartmented Information Facility (SCIF)

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

An insider threat could pose a threat to:

Select one of the following:

National security
Your job
Your company’s proprietary and research information
All of the above

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

Failure to report suspicious behaviors or possible insider threat indicators could result in punitive or disciplinary actions.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

Exploitable weaknesses considered by a Foreign Intelligence Service when considering a source for recruitment may include:

Select one of the following:

Drugs or alcohol
Gambling
Adultery
Financial problems
All of the above

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

Known or suspected espionage should always be reported to the FBI.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

Removing classification markings from a document is not necessarily considered a possible insider threat indicator and should not be reported to the security office unless there are other suspicious behaviors displayed.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

If a coworker seeks additional information outside the scope of his or her responsibility, this is always a sign that the individual is an insider threat.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

Elicitation is an effective means of information collection by an insider. When done well, elicitation can seem like simple small talk.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

A coworker, who may be of Middle Eastern descent and often speaks in Farsi from his work telephone, is considered suspicious behavior and should always be reported to the security officer.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

Collection methods of operation frequently used by Foreign Intelligence Entities to collect information from DoD on the critical technology being produced within the cleared defense contractor facilities we support include:

Select one of the following:

Unsolicited requests for information
Solicitation and marketing of services
Cyber Attacks
International conventions, seminars, and exhibits
All of the above

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are examples of a “Security Anomaly” and should be reported?

Select one or more of the following:

Foreign officials claim they already knew about a program after the program was made public
Foreign officials reveal details they should not have known
An adversary conducts activities with precision that indicates prior knowledge
Media reports on current operations in the Middle East

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

To be an “Insider Threat” a person MUST knowingly cause malicious damage to their organization.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

Personnel who fail to report CI Activities of concern as outlined in Enclosure 4 of DoD Directive 5240.06 are subject to appropriate disciplinary action under regulations.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

The following actions can potentially reduce or compromise your network security and place in jeopardy the lives of our men and women:

Select one of the following:

Hacking
Inputting falsified corrupted data
Phishing
Introducing malicious code such as a virus, logic, or Trojan horse
All of the above

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

Cyber Vulnerabilities to DoD Systems may include:

Select one of the following:

Illegal downloads
Viruses
Weak passwords
Disgruntled or Co-opted employee
All of the above

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. To minimize the ability of an Insider Threat to go undetected, you and your coworkers must:

Select one or more of the following:

Report all security infractions, violations, or suspicious activity to your supervisor and the Office of Security
Never log onto your computer network outside of normal working hours
Follow all security rules and regulations
Never gossip about any of your coworkers
Show up to work on time every day

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

DoD personnel who suspect a coworker of possible espionage should:

Select one of the following:

Call the FBI Hot Line
Report directly to your CI or Security Office
Start recording their conversations to gather evidence
Discuss situation with others to get second opinion

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

An adversary uses technical countermeasures to block a previously undisclosed or classified U.S. intercept technology. This is an example of:

Select one of the following:

An unidentified press release
A lucky guess
A paid source
A Security Anomaly

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

Offers or Invitations for cultural exchanges, individual-to-individual exchanges, or ambassador programs are indicators of this collection method:

Select one of the following:

Solicitation and Marketing of Services
International conventions, seminars, and exhibits
Elicitation
Visits to Department of Defense (DoD) or contractor facilities

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

This is used to collect documentation regarding FOCI, KMP Lists, SF-328 and other facility documents to the DSS.

Select one of the following:

Industrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)
Electronic Facility Clearance (e-FCL) System
Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)
Electronic Questionnaires for Investigations Processing (e-QIP)

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

This is used by DSS to document Industrial security actions regarding contractor facilities.

Select one of the following:

Industrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)
Electronic Facility Clearance (e-FCL) System
Joint Personnel Adjudicatoin System (JPAS)
Electronic Questionnaires for Investigations Processing (e-QIP)

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

Facility M has a facility security clearance at the Confidential level. It has not performed work on an active classified contract in 12 months but expects to begin performance of work on a classified contract next month. What action needs to be taken regarding its facility security clearance?

Select one of the following:

It should be downgraded
It should be revoked
It should be terminated
No action is necessary

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

In the case of a multiple facility organization, which facility should complete the SF-328?

Select one of the following:

The branch facility
Both the home office facility and the branch facility
The home office facility

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

Facility U has a facility security clearance at the Secret level. It has not performed work on an active classified contract in 12 months and does not expect to perform work on a classified contract in the near future. What action needs to be taken regarding its facility security clearance?

Select one of the following:

It should be revoked
It should be downgraded
It should be administratively terminated
No action is necessary

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

As long as a contractor has a bona fide classified procurement need, it can make the request for its own facility security clearance.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

A business comprised of two separate and distinct companies that have formed a relationship where one company establishes or takes control of a smaller company is a _____.

Select one of the following:

Limited liability company
Multiple facility organization
Parent-Subsidiary
Partnership

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

Who evaluates information related to a prospective contractor facility?

Select one of the following:

Government Contracting Activity
Industrial Security Representative
PSMO-I

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

In addition to completing an SF-86, an individual being investigated for a personnel security clearance must also submit which form?

Select one of the following:

SF-312
Exclusion resolution
Fingerprint card
SF-328

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

A DD Form 441-1 is required to be executed for _____.

Select one of the following:

A division or branch within a multiple facility organization
A partnership
A limited liability corporation
A cleared parent company

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

Whose CAGE code should be provided in the sponsorship letter?

Select one of the following:

The government contracting activity sponsoring the facility security clearance request
There is no need to provide a CAGE code for any party in the sponsorship letter
The cleared prime contractor sponsoring the facility security clearance request and the uncleared contractor being sponsored, if it has one

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

A business that has one or more owners, usually known as members, which may be individuals or corporations, is a _____.

Select one of the following:

Sole proprietorship
Corporation
Limited liability company

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

If the sponsor is a cleared prime contractor, a copy of which document should be enclosed with the sponsorship letter?

Select one of the following:

KMP List
DD Form 441
DD Form 254

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

In a parent-subsidiary relationship where both the parent and the subsidiary require a facility security clearance, but only the subsidiary is required to store classified information, who must execute DD Form 441?

Select one of the following:

Only the subsidiary must execute DD Form 441.
Only the parent must execute DD Form 441.
Both the parent and the subsidiary must execute their own DD Form 441.

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

Which of the following is a secure website designed to facilitate the processing of standard investigative forms used when conducting background investigations?

Select one of the following:

JPAS
ISFD
e-QIP
e-FCL

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

Failure to submit paperwork for security clearance investigations for key management personnel in a timely manner may result in the discontinuance of the facility security clearance request process.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

Why would an interim facility security clearance be granted instead of a final facility security clearance?

Select one of the following:

Because final eligibility determinations for all key management personnel have not yet been completed
Because all required documentation has not yet been completed
Because all FOCI factors have not yet been favorably adjudicated

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

When an uncleared parent with a cleared subsidiary does not require access to classified information, which of the following actions is required?

Select one of the following:

The parent must obtain a facility security clearance at a level equal to the level at which the subsidiary is cleared.
The parent will be formally excluded from all access to classified information.
No action is required.

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

The Facility Security Officer of a cleared contractor facility has recently retired. The new FSO is currently cleared but has no security experience. Does this need to be reported to the facility’s Industrial Security Representative as a change condition?

Select one of the following:

No, because the new FSO is already cleared, a report is not required
No, this does not need to be reported
Yes, this is a reportable change

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

Does being processed for a facility security clearance have a direct cost to the contractor?

Select one of the following:

No, the sponsoring activity is responsible for all costs associated with the facility security clearance process.
No, there is no direct cost to the contractor for being processed for a facility security clearance
Yes, the contractor must pay the government for services rendered during the facility security clearance request process.

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

A post office box is an acceptable address to include on the sponsorship letter for the uncleared contractor facility.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

A contractor with a cleared facility recently sold some of its shares of stock, but the sale did not result in a change in majority ownership stakes. Does this need to be reported to the facility’s Industrial Security Representative as a change condition?

Select one of the following:

No, the sale of stocks is never a reportable change
No, this does not need to be reported
Yes, this is a reportable change

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

The evaluation of which of these identifies key management personnel?

Select one of the following:

Sponsorship Letter
Business structure
SF-328
DD Form 441

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

To be eligible for consideration for a facility security clearance, a contractor must be physically located within the U.S. or its territories.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

Can a final facility security clearance be issued if all the key management personnel involved with the facility security clearance request process have not yet received final eligibility determinations for access to classified information?

Select one of the following:

No. All the involved key management personnel must have final personnel security clearance determinations in order for the facility to be issued a final facility security clearance.
Yes. A final facility security clearance may be issued as long as all the involved key management personnel have interim personnel security clearance determinations.
Yes. Personnel security clearance determinations for key management personnel are not required in order to be issued a facility security clearance.

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

_____ may terminate the DD Form 441 by written notice 30 days in advance of the requested termination.

Select one of the following:

The contractor
The government
Either the government or the contractor

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

Once a contractor has met all the eligibility requirements, which of the following are key evaluation areas examined when determining whether to issue a facility security clearance?

Select one of the following:

Sponsorship, bona fide classified procurement need, business structure
Legal entity organized under U.S. laws, company has reputation for integrity, FOCI factors sufficiently managed
Sponsorship, DD Form 441, key management personnel

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

Who works with a contractor facility to ensure that their security program meets NISP requirements?

Select one of the following:

Contract Officer
FCB Security Specialist
Industrial Security Representative

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

Within a multiple facility organization, only the home office facility is required to have a CAGE code.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

Invalidation of a facility security clearance does not prevent a contractor from receiving new contracts.
Invalidation of a facility security clearance is a final terminating action revoking all privileges associated with an active clearance.
Invalidation of a facility security clearance is an interim measure allowing a contractor to correct negative security circumstances.

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

Of the following assessments, which are used to help complete the threat assessment summary? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

History assessment
Operations assessment
Intent assessment
Collection capabilities assessment

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

Poor tradecraft practices are an example of a/an ______ vulnerability.

Select one of the following:

Information
Operational
Equipment
Facility

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

Analyzing an asset in an unprotected state first and then analyzing the asset considering the current countermeasures is called ______ analysis.

Select one of the following:

Vulnerability
Risk
Threat
Regressive

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

When measuring an impact and assigning a value to an undesirable event, which one of the following SME interview questions will help guide you?

Select one of the following:

What undesirable events regarding a particular asset concern the asset owner?
Could significant damage to national security or loss/injury to human life occur as a result of this event?
What critical/valuable equipment is located at this site? Why is it critical or valuable?
Where are the assets located?

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

________________ is the least expensive countermeasure to implement?

Select one of the following:

Manpower
Equipment
Written Procedure

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

The ability of each existing countermeasure to prevent or minimize a specific type of attack defines what vulnerability criteria?

Select one of the following:

Quantity
Undesirable event
Effectiveness
Quality

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

One step in regressive analysis is reevaluating an asset’s vulnerabilities.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

The fifth and final step in the risk management process is to determine countermeasure options. Which of the following is the goal of this step?

Select one of the following:

To identify potential countermeasures for reducing an asset’s vulnerabilities and overall risk to the asset
To identify the value of assets and the degree of impact if they are damaged or lost
To identify vulnerabilities

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

The criteria used to determine the level of vulnerability include which of the following? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

Last testing of the vulnerability
Effectiveness of countermeasures
Quantity
Quality

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

After you’ve completed all other steps, what final chart would you use to summarize and record your information in order to get the total cost for all countermeasures?

Select one of the following:

Intent Assessment Chart
Collection Capability Assessment Chart
Threat Assessment Summary Chart
Countermeasure Analysis Chart

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

When performing a countermeasures cost benefit analysis, which two of the following are good questions to ask?

Select one or more of the following:

To what degree does the option delay, deter, detect, defend, or destroy?
Is the option available from several contractors?
How does the asset value compare to proposed cost of protection?
What are the methods an adversary might use to destroy an asset?

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

Criminal, terrorist, insider, and natural disasters are examples of categories of ______.

Select one of the following:

Threats
Vulnerabilities
Countermeasures
Assets

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

Persons , facilities, materials, information, and activities are categories of ______.

Select one of the following:

countermeasures
assets
vulnerabilities
threats

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

The smaller the risk area shared by assets, threats, and vulnerabilities, the higher the risk level.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

One way to describe asset value is:

Select one of the following:

What is the potential for an event to take place?
What is the capability of a specific threat?
What is the impact of an undesirable event?
What is the level of weakness at the site?

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

Risk management is defined as the process of selecting and implementing ______ to achieve an acceptable level of risk at an acceptable cost.

Select one of the following:

countermeasures
procedures
assets
policies

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

When determining an adversary’s history, the fact that the adversary might attempt an attack at a foreseeable future event is irrelevant.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

The time to implement and oversee the countermeasure, the time to prepare for its implementation, and any time required for follow-up and evaluation have no impact when determining the cost of a countermeasure.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

Which of the following statements defines an adversary?

Select one of the following:

Intended plans that may pose a threat to an asset.
The identification of an asset’s threats.
Any individual, group, organization, or government that conducts activities, or has the intention and capability to conduct activities detrimental to assets.
Any indication, circumstance, or event with the potential to cause the loss of, or damage to an asset.

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

What is the risk rating of an asset with an impact of 10, a threat rating of .12 and a vulnerability rating of .40?

Select one of the following:

32
48
1
5

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

When determining an adversary’s capability, which of the following collection methods includes resources such as newspapers, internet, magazines, and conventions, FOIA requests, seminars, and exhibits?

Select one of the following:

IMINT
HUMINT
SIGINT
OSINT

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

You should use the intent, capability, and history charts to create the Threat Assessment Summary Chart.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

You are the one who decides what constitutes an acceptable level of risk for an organization’s assets.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

The formula R=I [T x V] is used for calculating a risk rating. What risk factors do R, I, T, and V represent?

Select one of the following:

return, impact, threat, vulnerability
risk, impact, threat, vulnerability
return, importance, threat, vulnerability
risk, importance, threat, vulnerability

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

There are six steps in the analytical risk management process. True or false?

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

When determining the cost associated with a loss, only monetary loss is considered in the risk management process. True or false?

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

An asset can be defined as anything that ______. (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

Has a weakness
Is of value
Requires protection

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

The five general areas open to potential asset vulnerabilities include: human, operational, information, facility, and equipment. True or false?

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT a good interview question for determining an adversary’s history?

Select one of the following:

Has the adversary attacked or exploited assets and personnel before?
Does the adversary have the weapons or tools for exploiting or attacking an asset?
Has the adversary been suspected of attacking or exploiting assets?
Might some foreseeable event cause the adversary to attempt an attack in the future?

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

Different perspectives to any terrorist event include which of the following?
(Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

The terrorist perspective that feels killing innocent people is morally justified to achieve objectives.
The victim perspective that sees terrorist acts as criminal and immoral.
The military perspective that feels that all terrorist events are evil and warrant retaliatory action.
The general public perspective that either supports or opposes the terrorist causes.

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

A state-supported terrorist group operates:

Select one of the following:

As a recognized religion or radical offshoot
Independently, but receives some support from governments
Primarily by the support of a state or country
Autonomously, receiving no support from any governments

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

Which of the following is considered a common characteristic of terrorist groups?

Select one of the following:

Operating overtly
Being rurally based
Being highly mobile
Considering tactical success as mission success

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

Training conducted in a clandestine fashion at the cell level by members of the terrorist group within the targeted country is considered ______________________.

Select one of the following:

External training
Revolutionary training
Militaristic training
Internal training

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

Internal training

Select one or more of the following:

Having positive contact with the captor
Accepting the situation as not long-term since authorities will come to the rescue
Seeing the captor's human qualities

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

A dirty bomb ______________________.
(Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

Upon detonation will produce mass casualties but will not penetrate a building
Is used by terrorists to frighten people and make the land around the explosion unusable for a long period of time
Combines conventional explosives with radioactive materials

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

To minimize the insider threat, practice:

Select one of the following:

Awareness, Prevention, and Deterrence
Mitigation, Reaction, and Destruction
Detection, Protection, and Action

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

Which of the following statement(s) are true?

Select one of the following:

A Vulnerability Assessment should focus only on WMD.
It is an annual requirement to receive a Higher Headquarters Vulnerability Assessment.
The Commander uses a Vulnerability Assessment to determine the susceptibility of assets to attack from threats.
All of the above.

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

During a Risk Assessment, which element(s) must be considered to make well-informed decisions?

Select one of the following:

Vulnerability
Asset Criticality
Threat
All of the above

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

A typical AT program organization includes the following members:
(Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

DTRA
The ATO and the Installation Commander
Antiterrorism Executive Committee
The Threat Working Group

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

Security functions that must be performed for a physical security system to protect DoD assets include ______________________.

Select one of the following:

Threat delay
Threat detection
Threat response
All of the above

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

When placing vehicle barriers, consider __________________

Select one or more of the following:

Location
Aesthetics
Safety

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

Which of the following are examples of temporary barriers?
(Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

Berms
Jersey barriers
Ropes

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

DoD AT Construction Standards:
(Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

Specify design criteria for incorporating threat-based AT requirements
Provide minimum construction requirements for new construction and major renovations
Mandate Services and/or Agencies establish AT guidelines for new construction to counter terrorism threat capabilities

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

An AT plan ______________________.
(Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

Is written from the Service or Agency level down to the Installation level for permanent operations or locations
Contains all of the specific measures that need to be taken in order to establish and maintain an AT program
Is incorporated in operation orders for temporary operations or exercises

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

Which paragraph of the AT plan lists the specific tasks for each subordinate unit?

Select one of the following:

Execution
Annexes
Situation
Mission

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

Which paragraph of the AT plan defines the requirements for supporting the AT Plan?

Select one of the following:

Execution
Annexes
Mission
Administration and Logistics

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

The ATO is ______________________.
(Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

Responsible for making decisions regarding requirement funding
Responsible for continuously documenting funding requirements
The expert within an organization for generating, prioritizing, and appropriately documenting AT requirements

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

Which funding category does a resource fall in if it is important to the mission, but has a low vulnerability?

Select one of the following:

Need to fund
Should fund
Must fund

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

Which of the following are reasons a future captor may have for selecting potential victims?

Select one or more of the following:

The amount of money the U.S. Government offers for hostages
The victims' nationality
The victims' value to their families
The victims' financial resources

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

Immediately upon capture, the victim must decide to resist the captor, escape the situation, or surrender and cooperate with the captor. Which of the following will influence the victim's decision?

Select one or more of the following:

The victim's self-defense and survival skills
The victim's personal wealth
The number of captors
Whether or not the captors are armed

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

A captor will exert control and dominance over a hostage by:

Select one or more of the following:

Confiscating a hostage's personal items, such as a watch or wallet
Isolating a hostage from any human contact
Providing a hostage with regular meals
Taking all of a hostage's life quality aids, such as glasses or hearing aids

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

Which of the following are symptoms that a hostage may be experiencing Stockholm syndrome?

Select one or more of the following:

Receiving insufficient nourishment
Perceiving the captor as a victim of circumstance versus an aggressor
Being belligerent towards the captor
Identifying with the captor

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

Which of the following may be reasons for a hostage situation ending with little to no harm to the hostage?

Select one or more of the following:

The hostages become combative with the captors.
Authorities may achieve a successful negotiation with the captors resulting in the release of the hostage.
Hostages remain uncooperative with the captors.

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

The anger and frustration hostage survivors experience may sometimes be directed toward the:

Select one or more of the following:

DoD
Rescuers
Themselves
U.S. Government

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

Training related to the Code of Conduct is conducted at different levels based on:

Select one or more of the following:

The amount of sensitive information the Service member has.
A potential captor's assessment of the Service member's usefulness.
The Service member's tenure in the military.
The Service member's susceptibility to capture.

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

Specific guidance for captured U.S. military personnel applies to situations in which they:

Select one of the following:

Have been released
Are on assignment
Have been captured
All of the above

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

What techniques should a victim use to try and avoid unnecessary violence during capture?

Select one or more of the following:

Hide materials indicating affiliation with the U.S. Government for leverage.
Resist panicking.
Anticipate the captor's efforts to create confusion.
Catch the captor off guard in hopes of escaping.

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

There are several techniques hostages can use to help them survive a hostage situation. They should:

Select one or more of the following:

Vary their voice levels so their captors do not hear them speaking.
Maintain a regular exercise routine.
Remain realistic about their situation and not make future plans for themselves.
Remain constantly alert for any sign of being rescued.

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

If a hostage senses or realizes a rescue attempt is imminent, the hostage should:

Select one or more of the following:

Prepare to escape the situation as soon as there is an opportunity to do so.
Drop to the floor.
Remain still until rescuers provide instructions.
Motion to rescuers so that they are easily identified.

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

Techniques for helping a hostage survivor return to a daily routine include:

Select one or more of the following:

Limiting contact with the press.
Refraining from making public statements about the captor.
Speaking openly about the rescue with reporters.
Being accessible to the press to discuss being held hostage and rescued.

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

Symptoms exhibited when suffering from the Stockholm Syndrome include:

Select one or more of the following:

Refusing to assist the captor
Losing touch with reality
Hindering rescue efforts
Suffering from long-term emotional instability

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

Which of the following statements illustrate the correct application of the DoD Code of Conduct?

Select one or more of the following:

During capture, Service members should resist their potential captors in an effort to break free.
As a hostage, Service members should not, under any circumstances, support or encourage their captors.
Service members on assignment in an area prone to terrorist activity shall follow the appropriate counter-terrorism measures.
As a hostage, Service members should accept release regardless of the consequences of such action.

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

If a terrorist group is labeled state-directed:

Select one or more of the following:

The group is primarily supported by a country or state
The group is usually an insurgent movement
Activities are conducted at the direction of the state
The group may be an element of the state's security organization

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

Terrorist groups labeled by their political affiliation:

Select one or more of the following:

Are considered to be political extremists
Have suicidal members
Have a charismatic leader who preaches a form of exclusivity
Consist of young members, generally between 19 and 35 years old

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

Which of the following are considered common characteristics of terrorist groups?

Select one or more of the following:

Highly mobile
Operate covertly
Urban based
Militarily stronger than their opposition

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

Which of the following statements are true?

Select one or more of the following:

To achieve a chaotic atmosphere, a terrorist group will disrupt lines of communication.
Terrorist groups will encourage foreign investments to boost and strengthen their country’s economy.
Attacks against a state government’s security forces are used to erode public confidence.
Major acts or a successful terrorist campaign can attract additional support for the group’s cause.

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

Which of the following terrorist group goals is generally accomplished through skyjacking and hostage taking?

Select one of the following:

Satisfying vengeance
Turning the tide in a Guerrilla War
Causing an overreaction
Release of incarcerated comrades

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

An intelligence cell of a terrorist group:

Select one or more of the following:

Collects target-specific information
Is comprised of people who conduct kidnappings
Recruits new members
Provides OPSEC

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

When an operative travels abroad to a training camp, then returns home to put their training into practice, this is considered:

Select one of the following:

Internal training
External training
Survival training
Communications training

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

Which of the following are considered common goals of terrorist groups?

Select one or more of the following:

Obtaining money and equipment
Release of imprisoned comrades
Creating a safe environment for their people
Influencing government decisions, legislations, or elections

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

The number, size, and the overall structure of the terrorist group cells depends on:

Select one or more of the following:

Goals of the terrorist group
The security in the group's operating area
The abilities of the group's communication network
Media publicity of the group

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

Training conducted in a clandestine fashion at the cell level by members is referred to as:

Select one of the following:

External training
Internal training
Revolutionary training
Militaristic training

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

Which of the following statement(s) pertaining to terrorist operations are true?

Select one or more of the following:

Terrorist operations are relatively easy to execute because they are relatively easy to command, control, and support.
To ensure a sound operation, terrorists rehearse the operation in an environment mirroring the target location.
Terrorists select multiple targets as potential locations for the actual operation.
Terrorist operations are designed to impact only direct victims.

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

Terrorists gather information on security measures and observable routines.

Select one of the following:

Phase II: Intelligence Gathering and Surveillance
Phase IV: Pre-Attack Surveillance and Planning
Phase V: Attack Rehearsal
Phase VII: Escape

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

Terrorists deploy into the target area.

Select one of the following:

Phase I: Broad Target Selection
Phase IV: Pre-Attack Surveillance and Planning
Phase V: Attack Rehearsal
Phase VI: Actions on the Objectives

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

Terrorists determine the weapon or attack method.

Select one of the following:

Phase II: Intelligence Gathering and Surveillance
Phase III: Specific Target Selection
Phase IV: Pre-Attack Surveillance and Planning
Phase VI: Actions on the Objectives

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

Terrorists collect information from media and internet research.

Select one of the following:

Phase I: Broad Target Selection
Phase III: Specific Target Selection
Phase IV: Pre-Attack Surveillance and Planning
Phase VI: Actions on the Objectives

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

Skyjacking

Select one of the following:

The forceful seizure of an aircraft, its passengers, and cargo.
The unlawful seizure and detainment of a person, where the person is usually held for ransom.
The most common type of terrorist attack because of the relatively low risk of injury to the terrorist.
One of the oldest terrorist tactics, it means murdering someone in a surprise attack, usually with small arms or bombs.

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

Assassination

Select one of the following:

The most common type of terrorist attack because of the relatively low risk of injury to the terrorist.
The unlawful seizure and detainment of a person, where the person is usually held for ransom.
The forceful seizure of an aircraft, its passengers, and cargo.
One of the oldest terrorist tactics, it means murdering someone in a surprise attack, usually with small arms or bombs.

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

Kidnapping

Select one of the following:

The forceful seizure of an aircraft, its passengers, and cargo.
The unlawful seizure and detainment of a person, where the person is usually held for ransom.
The most common type of terrorist attack because of the relatively low risk of injury to the terrorist.
One of the oldest terrorist tactics, it means murdering someone in a surprise attack, usually with small arms or bombs.

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

Bombing

Select one of the following:

The forceful seizure of an aircraft, its passengers, and cargo.
The unlawful seizure and detainment of a person, where the person is usually held for ransom.
The most common type of terrorist attack because of the relatively low risk of injury to the terrorist.
One of the oldest terrorist tactics, it means murdering someone in a surprise attack, usually with small arms or bombs.

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

Raid

Select one of the following:

The forceful seizure of a surface vehicle, its passengers, and/or its cargo.
A surprise attack by a small armed force on a previously defined target.
The seizure of a facility to include taking all persons inside hostage.
A sudden attack made from a concealed position on a previously defined target.

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

Ambush

Select one of the following:

The forceful seizure of a surface vehicle, its passengers, and/or its cargo.
A surprise attack by a small armed force on a previously defined target.
The seizure of a facility to include taking all persons inside hostage.
A sudden attack made from a concealed position on a previously defined target.

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

Hijacking

Select one of the following:

The forceful seizure of a surface vehicle, its passengers, and/or its cargo.
A surprise attack by a small armed force on a previously defined target.
The seizure of a facility to include taking all persons inside hostage.
A sudden attack made from a concealed position on a previously defined target.

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

Hostage Barricade

Select one of the following:

The forceful seizure of a surface vehicle, its passengers, and/or its cargo.
A surprise attack by a small armed force on a previously defined target.
The seizure of a facility to include taking all persons inside hostage.
A sudden attack made from a concealed position on a previously defined target.

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

The deliberate weakening of another entity through subversion, obstruction, disruption, and/or destruction.

Select one of the following:

Environmental Destruction
Seizure
Sabotage
Threats/Hoaxes

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

The destruction of oil fields or attacks on oil tankers.

Select one of the following:

Environmental Destruction
Seizure
Sabotage
Threats/Hoaxes

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

An active shooter is an individual actively engaged in killing or attempting to kill people in a confined and populated area.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

During an active shooter situation, you should:

Select one or more of the following:

Hide
Scream
Evacuate
Take Action

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

When law enforcement arrives, you should:

Select one or more of the following:

Immediately raise hands and spread fingers
Ask for help
Remain calm, and follow officers’ instructions
Point to where the active shooter is

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

Which of the following are sources of insider security problems?

Select one of the following:

Maliciousness
Disdain of security practices
Carelessness in protecting DoD information
Ignorance of security policy and security practices
All of the above

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

“Insider threat” is that an insider will, by acts of commission or omission, intentionally or unintentionally, use their authorized access to do harm to the security of the U.S.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

The terrorist’s objectives are controlled and/or condoned by an established state.

Select one of the following:

Sub-Revolutionary
Establishment
Revolutionary

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

The terrorist’s objectives are to overthrow the existing government, particularly in the area of operations.

Select one of the following:

Sub-Revolutionary
Establishment
Revolutionary

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

The terrorist’s objectives are to influence an unwilling government or group into making political, social, or economic changes.

Select one of the following:

Sub-Revolutionary
Establishment
Revolutionary

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

The terrorist threat level that indicates that anti-U.S. terrorists are present with limited operational activity.

Select one of the following:

High
Significant
Moderate
Low

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

FPCON BRAVO will apply when:

Select one of the following:

A general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists
An increased threat of terrorist activity exists
A terrorist attack has occurred
Intelligence indicates some form of terrorist activity is likely

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

RAM is the random use of various protective measures in order to:

Select one or more of the following:

Rehearse procedures
Frustrate terrorist planning
Replace FPCON
Heighten unit awareness

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

Perspectives to any terrorist event are:

Select one or more of the following:

The terrorist perspective that feels killing innocent people is morally justified to achieve objectives
The victim perspective that sees terrorist acts as criminal and immoral
The general public perspective that either supports or is against the terrorist causes
The military perspective that feels that all terrorist events are evil and warrant retaliatory action

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

Which of the following methodology factors did the DoD take into account?

Select one or more of the following:

Terrorist Targets
Terrorist History
Terrorist Capabilities
Terrorist Intentions

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

A terrorist threat level is:

Select one or more of the following:

Identified as High, Significant, Moderate, or Low
Identified as NORMAL, ALPHA, BRAVO, CHARLIE, or DELTA
The random use of various security measures normally employed at higher force protection conditions in order to rehearse procedures
An intelligence community judgment about the likelihood of terrorist attacks on U.S. interests

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs) are:

Select one or more of the following:

An intelligence community judgment about the likelihood of terrorist attacks on U.S. interests
Identified as Normal, Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, or Delta
A system of protective measures used by DoD installations and organizations to guard against and deter terrorist attacks

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

A terrorist threat level is ________________. (Select all that apply)

Select one of the following:

An intelligence community judgment about the likelihood of terrorist attacks on US interests.
Identified as NORMAL, ALPHA, BRAVO, CHARLIE, or DELTA.
Identified as High, Significant, Moderate, or Low.

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

Which of the following are consider common goals of terrorist groups?

Select one of the following:

Releasing imprisoned comrades
Influencing government decisions, legislations, or elections
Obtaining money and equipment
All of the above

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

The number, size, and overall structure of terrorist group cells depend upon ________________________.

Select one or more of the following:

The goals of the terrorist group
The security in the group’s operating area
The number of members in the terrorist group
The abilities of the group’s communication network

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

Which of the following statements are true regarding terrorist operations? (Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

Terrorist operations are difficult to execute due to the large group of individuals to train and command.
Terrorists select multiple targets as potential locations for the actual operation.
Terrorist operations are always designed on the defensive.
Terrorist rehearse the operation in an environment mirroring the target location or in the target location itself.

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

Why might a potential captor take a victim hostage? (Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

For the publicity the situation would generate
Because the victim drives and expensive car
Because the victim is in the wrong place at the wrong time
Because the victim may be a source of trouble otherwise

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

If a hostage senses or realizes a rescue attempt is imminent, the hostage should:

Select one of the following:

Motion to rescuers so they are easily identified
Prepare to escape the situation as soon as there is an opportunity to do so
Drop to the floor and remain still until rescuers provide instructions
All of the above

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

Chemical agents are:

Select one or more of the following:

Nerve agents, such as sarin, that interfere with the functioning of the nervous system
Likely to be used in large quantities by terrorist
Substances that are created by plants and animals that are poisonous to humans
Identifiable with the sudden onset of symptoms

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

Which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

There is no antidotal treatment for nerve agent poisoning.
A sudden onset of symptoms is a characteristic of chemical agents.
Terrorists will likely use small quantities of chemical agents in a highly populated area where the potential for exposure is the greatest.

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

Which of the following are potential indicators of an insider threat?

Select one of the following:

Copying Files
Unusual work hours
Taking short trips
Unexplained affluence
All of the above

	Created by Arthur Casto over 6 years ago