Arthur Casto
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Arthur Casto
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SFPC 5

SFPC 5

Question 1 of 172

1

Which of the following statements are true?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Physical security systems provide the means to counter threats only during wartime.

  • Physical security measures are a combination of active or passive systems, devices, and security personnel used to protect a security interest from possible threats.

  • DoD 5200.8-R addresses the physical security of personnel, installations, operations, and assets of DoD Components.

Explanation

Question 2 of 172

1

Which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • The Commander is responsible for the development of the AT plan.

  • The ATO is responsible for the writing of the AT plan.

  • The ATO is responsible for leveraging the capabilities of the organization’s AT Working Group to assist with creating the AT plan.

Explanation

Question 3 of 172

1

Which paragraph of the AT plan lists the specific task for each subordinate unit?

Select one of the following:

  • Execution

  • Situation

  • Mission

  • Annexes

Explanation

Question 4 of 172

1

Which AT plan exercise(s) uses scenario driven events to test specific portions of the AT plan?

Select one of the following:

  • Table-top

  • Drill

  • Full-scale

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 5 of 172

1

Which of the following are reasons why AT plan exercises are important?

Select one of the following:

  • They increase anti-terrorism awareness

  • They provide a way to assess and identify vulnerabilities and resources

  • They confirm training adequacy

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 6 of 172

1

Whose primary responsibility is working with Industrial Security Representatives (IS Reps) and contractor personnel to authorize and maintain classified Information Systems?

Select one of the following:

  • Counterintelligence Special Agent (CISA)

  • Information System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)

  • Information System Security Manager (ISSM)

  • Facility Security Officer (FSO)

Explanation

Question 7 of 172

1

True or false? An employee’s need for a Personnel Security Clearance (PCL) is determined by the program manager, but the clearance level is determined by the Government Contracting Activity (GCA).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 8 of 172

1

When an employee no longer needs access to classified information, who is responsible for removing access and debriefing the employee?

Select one of the following:

  • Industrial Security Representative (IS Rep)

  • Information System Security Manager (ISSM)

  • Facility Security Officer (FSO)

  • Information System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)

Explanation

Question 9 of 172

1

Which of the following organizations conducts periodic Security Vulnerability Assessments (SVAs) of contractor facilities as the CSO to the Department of Defense?

Select one of the following:

  • Defense Security Service (DSS)

  • Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)

  • Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

  • Federal Acquisition Service (FAS)

Explanation

Question 10 of 172

1

When cleared contractors visit a cleared facility or government installation, whose security requirements take precedence?

Select one of the following:

  • The security requirements of the contractor’s home facility

  • The security requirements of the host activity/facility

Explanation

Question 11 of 172

1

After a need is identified, the Government Contracting Activity (GCA) ___________________.

Select one of the following:

  • awards the contract

  • defines the initial requirements for the product/service

  • publishes a Request for Proposal (RFP)

  • evaluates the contractors’ proposals

Explanation

Question 12 of 172

1

Who administers and oversees the contractor security program?

Select one of the following:

  • Facility Security Officer (FSO)

  • Information System Security Manager (ISSM)

  • Information System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)

  • Counterintelligence Special Agent (CISA)

Explanation

Question 13 of 172

1

True or false? The Contracting Officer’s Representative (COR) is authorized to make changes to the contract, even if those changes affect price or quality.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 14 of 172

1

Which contracting document provides a record of the contractor’s commitment to comply with the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)?

Select one of the following:

  • DD Form 254, Department of Defense Contract Security Classification Specification

  • Statement of Work (SOW)

  • DD Form 441, Department of Defense Security Agreement

Explanation

Question 15 of 172

1

The ______________ has been designated as the Cognizant Security Office (CSO) for the DoD and over 30 other non-DoD agencies.

Select one of the following:

  • Department of Energy (DOE)

  • Defense Security Service (DSS)

  • Office of the Director of National Intelligence (ODNI)

  • Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

Explanation

Question 16 of 172

1

Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

Select one of the following:

  • works for a company with a Facility Clearance (FCL)

  • might work on a classified contract

  • requires access to classified information

Explanation

Question 17 of 172

1

True or false? A contractor facility may access and store classified material as soon as the Facility Clearance (FCL) is granted.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 18 of 172

1

Which of the following topics is NOT included in the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)?

Select one of the following:

  • General policies and procedures

  • Facility Clearances (FCLs)

  • Acquisitions guidelines

  • Reporting requirements

Explanation

Question 19 of 172

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following roles are filled by contractor employees?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Information System Security Manager (ISSM)

  • Insider Threat Program Senior Official (ITPSO)

  • Information System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)

  • Facility Security Officer (FSO)

Explanation

Question 20 of 172

1

Select ALL the correct responses. The National Industrial Security Program (NISP) is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a voluntary program for cleared contractor facilities

  • designed to safeguard classified information entrusted to industry

  • a government-industry partnership

  • established by Executive Order 12829

Explanation

Question 21 of 172

1

Select ALL the correct responses. The Cognizant Security Office (CSO) does which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Establishes industrial security programs

  • Provides security guidance

  • Provides policy clarifications

  • Administers the National Industrial Security Program (NISP)

Explanation

Question 22 of 172

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are Counterintelligence Special Agent (CISA) responsibilities?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Provide advice, assistance, and guidance regarding counterintelligence best practices

  • Authorize and maintain Information Systems

  • Assist with foreign travel briefings and debriefings

Explanation

Question 23 of 172

1

To issue a Facility Clearance (FCL), the Facility Clearance Branch (FCB) reviews which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Information System Security Plans

  • Facility sponsorship

  • Employee foreign travel records

Explanation

Question 24 of 172

1

Who performs classified Information System assessments?

Select one of the following:

  • Insider Threat Program Senior Official (ITPSO)

  • Information System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)

  • Counterintelligence Special Agent (CISA)

  • Facility Security Officer (FSO)

Explanation

Question 25 of 172

1

Select ALL the correct responses. DD Form 254, Department of Defense Contract Security Classification Specification, contains which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Travel requirements

  • Specific clearance and access requirements

  • Authorization to generate classified information

  • Classified storage requirements

Explanation

Question 26 of 172

1

What is OPSEC?

Select one of the following:

  • A process, not a set of rules

  • A method for denying an adversary access to our critical information

  • Part of everyone’s job – including yours

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 27 of 172

1

How many steps are there in the OPSEC process?

Select one of the following:

  • Two

  • Five

  • Six

  • Too many

Explanation

Question 28 of 172

1

What step in the OPSEC process is Analyzing Threats?

Select one of the following:

  • Step Three

  • Step Five

  • Step Six

  • Step Two

Explanation

Question 29 of 172

1

____________ are like pieces of a puzzle an adversary uses to reveal a picture of our operations.

Select one of the following:

  • Threats

  • Indicators

  • Questions

  • Critical information

Explanation

Question 30 of 172

1

What is the last step in the OPSEC process?

Select one of the following:

  • Identify threats

  • Identify OPSEC countermeasures

  • Identify vulnerabilities

  • Identify critical information

Explanation

Question 31 of 172

1

Simonne left a safe containing classified material open while she went out for lunch. There is no evidence that anyone had access to the material while she was out, but nobody can confirm that the materials were safe from disclosure. What type of violation has occurred?

Select one of the following:

  • Suspected compromise of classified information

  • Loss of classified information

  • Compromise of classified information

Explanation

Question 32 of 172

1

Security violations are reported to which entity?

Select one of the following:

  • the DoD System of Record

  • PSMO-I

  • DSS IS Rep

  • FBI

Explanation

Question 33 of 172

1

Changes in a facility's storage capability are reported how?

Select one of the following:

  • By phone to the FBI

  • To PSMO-I via the DoD System of Record

  • In writing to your DSS IS Rep at the DSS field office

  • To your DSS IS Rep via e-FCL

Explanation

Question 34 of 172

1

Cleared employees who refuse to execute Standard Form 312 are reported how?

Select one of the following:

  • In writing to your IS Rep at the DSS field office

  • To PSMO-I via the DoD System of Record

  • By phone to the FBI

  • To your IS Rep via e-FCL

Explanation

Question 35 of 172

1

Loss, compromise, and suspected compromise of classified information are reported how?

Select one of the following:

  • In writing to your DSS IS Rep at the DSS field office

  • By phone to the FBI

  • To PSMO-I via the DoD System of Record

  • To your IS Rep via e-FCL

Explanation

Question 36 of 172

1

Any individual or group that represents a foreign government is considered a security threat.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 37 of 172

1

Reports on changes in KMP are required only when there is a change in the president, CEO, or FSO.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 38 of 172

1

Of the scenarios listed below, which ones must be reported to your IS Rep as change conditions affecting the facility's clearance?

a. The company has merged with another company and is under new ownership.
b. The company has hired 12 new employees to support a new major contract.
c. The company is moving to a new location to meet the needs of its growing staff.
d. The company just lost its largest contract and has filed for bankruptcy.

Select one of the following:

  • a, b, c, and d

  • a, b, and c

  • a, c, and d

  • a and d

Explanation

Question 39 of 172

1

Evidence of tampering with your facility's classified storage container is an example of what type of security threat?

Select one of the following:

  • Espionage

  • Sabotage

  • Subversive activity

  • Terrorism

Explanation

Question 40 of 172

1

Which of the following is reported to PSMO-I?

Select one of the following:

  • Suspicious contacts

  • Unauthorized receipt of classified material

  • Security equipment vulnerabilities

  • Changes in cleared employee status

Explanation

Question 41 of 172

1

After returning from a recent professional conference, Franklin received a request for classified information from an uncleared person that he met at the conference. What kind of report should be submitted?

Select one of the following:

  • Suspicious contact

  • Individual culpability

  • Adverse information

  • Unauthorized receipt of classified material

Explanation

Question 42 of 172

1

The two primary methods of submitting reports to your DSS IS Rep at the DSS Field Office are _________ and __________.

Select one of the following:

  • in writing; through e-FCL

  • in writing; through the DoD System of Record

  • through the DoD System of Record; through e-FCL

  • by phone; through e-FCL

Explanation

Question 43 of 172

1

Working late one evening on a priority project, Helen left several classified documents visible on her desk while she stepped away from her desk for a moment. When she returned, she found a member of the cleaning crew straightening the classified documents on her desk. What type of violation has occurred?

Select one of the following:

  • Loss of classified information

  • Suspected compromise of classified information

  • Compromise of classified information

Explanation

Question 44 of 172

1

Of the following types of personnel-related information, which is NOT reported to PSMO-I?

Select one of the following:

  • Suspicious contacts

  • Adverse information

  • Refusal to execute Standard Form (SF) 312

  • Citizenship by naturalization

Explanation

Question 45 of 172

1

Failure to report unauthorized disclosure of classified information does not affect the service members’ safety.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 46 of 172

1

According to the NISPOM, espionage, sabotage, terrorism, or subversive activities should be reported as a(n) ___________________.

Select one of the following:

  • National security threat

  • Individual culpability

  • Security violation

Explanation

Question 47 of 172

1

Contractors must report to the DSS IS Rep only those violations that result in the loss, compromise, or suspected compromise of classified information.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 48 of 172

1

NISPOM paragraph 1-300 states that contractors must report certain events to the government.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 49 of 172

1

According to NISPOM paragraph 1-300, which of the following is the contractor required to report to the government?

Select one of the following:

  • Events that require the facility to be open outside of regular business hours

  • Events that affect the proper safeguarding of classified information

  • Any change in the number of GSA security containers being used at the contractor facility to protect classified information

  • An increase or decrease in the number of classified documents stored at the contractor facility

Explanation

Question 50 of 172

1

Assessing a vulnerability in conjunction with the threat, and then determining the impact this would have on an operation if the vulnerability is exploited determines the level of risk.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 51 of 172

1

OPSEC is a systematic, proven process to identify, control and protect classified information about a mission, operation or activity, and, thus, denying/mitigating adversary's ability to compromise/interrupt that mission, operation or activity.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 52 of 172

1

Patterns, stereotypes, and predictable actions are all types of which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Risks

  • Indicators

  • Vulnerabilities

  • Threats

Explanation

Question 53 of 172

1

An adversary's capability is defined as his ability to do which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Acquire critical information

  • None of these choices

  • Acquire and exploit critical information

  • Exploit critical information

Explanation

Question 54 of 172

1

What are the elements of threat?

Select one of the following:

  • All of these choices

  • Intent and Capability

  • Friendly and Adversarial perspectives

  • Vulnerabilities and Indicators

Explanation

Question 55 of 172

1

Which step in the OPSEC process is a decision making step because it helps the decision maker prioritize and decide whether or not to apply a countermeasure?

Select one of the following:

  • Identify critical information

  • Apply countermeasures

  • Assess Risk

  • Analyze vulnerabilities

Explanation

Question 56 of 172

1

The development of a countermeasure focuses directly on the

Select one of the following:

  • level of risk to the organization.

  • adversary it is guarding against.

  • importance of the critical information item.

  • vulnerability it is designed to protect.

Explanation

Question 57 of 172

1

Why do we need to have threat information?

Select one of the following:

  • We need to identify an adversary's intent.

  • We need to identify an adversary's capability.

  • Knowledge of the threat supports all other steps in the OPSEC process.

  • All of these choices

Explanation

Question 58 of 172

1

What is the preferred method of assessing the risk to your organization?

Select one of the following:

  • Use of expert testimony

  • All of the choices

  • Intuitive reasoning

  • The committee approach

Explanation

Question 59 of 172

1

Which organizations are tasked with establishing OPSEC programs under the law signed by President Reagan?

Select one of the following:

  • The Interagency OPSEC Support Staff

  • All executive departments and agencies

  • All executive departments and agencies with national security missions

  • All government departments and agencies

Explanation

Question 60 of 172

1

What factor takes into account the impact that a compromise would have on your operation?

Select one of the following:

  • Threat

  • Risk

  • Countermeasure

  • Vulnerability

Explanation

Question 61 of 172

1

Why should organizations use and practice OPSEC?

Select one of the following:

  • To protect their critical information

  • To maintain the element of surprise

  • To protect the integrity of their mission

  • All of these choices

Explanation

Question 62 of 172

1

OPSEC focuses on what type of critical information?

Select one of the following:

  • Sensitive but unclassified information

  • All of these choices

  • All levels of classified information

  • Highly classified information

Explanation

Question 63 of 172

1

Lack of proper training, use of non-secure communications, and poor system design are all examples of

Select one of the following:

  • risks.

  • vulnerabilities.

  • indicators.

  • threats.

Explanation

Question 64 of 172

1

When dealing with countermeasure development, what is the bottom line?

Select one of the following:

  • Always develop countermeasures on a first-come, first-served basis

  • Always apply a unique countermeasure to each vulnerability

  • Always think of a countermeasure as a smarter way to do a task

  • Always weigh the cost of the countermeasure against its benefit

Explanation

Question 65 of 172

1

Identifying what an adversary already knows about your operation helps you to

Select one of the following:

  • determine the collection methods the adversary is using against you.

  • prioritize the distribution of resources for applying countermeasures.

  • look at your operation from both the friendly and adversary perspectives.

  • assess the level of risk to your operation.

Explanation

Question 66 of 172

1

In order to determine our critical information, we need to consider both the friendly and adversary points of view.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 67 of 172

1

Which of the following statements concerning activity tip-offs is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • They are indicators that tell adversaries where to focus their collection efforts

  • They are vulnerabilities that tell adversaries where to focus their collection efforts

  • They are indicators that are not part of a unit's normal conduct

  • They are vulnerabilities that are not part of a unit's normal conduct

Explanation

Question 68 of 172

1

The level of risk is indirectly proportional to all three factors of risk.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 69 of 172

1

The more we know about an adversary's intent and capability, the better we can judge how and why he may collect the information that he needs.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 70 of 172

1

Identifying a unit based upon how they deploy their equipment is an example of

Select one of the following:

  • a pattern example of an indicator.

  • a predictable action example of a risk.

  • a stereotype example of a vulnerability.

  • pattern example of a threat.

Explanation

Question 71 of 172

1

Which of the following is NOT a step in the OPSEC process?

Select one of the following:

  • Lock all classified material

  • Identify critical information

  • Analyze the threat

  • Apply countermeasures

Explanation

Question 72 of 172

1

Which step in the OPSEC process requires you to look at your operation through the eyes of the adversary?

Select one of the following:

  • Analyze vulnerabilities

  • Apply countermeasures

  • Identify critical information

  • All of the choices

Explanation

Question 73 of 172

1

Which of the following statements BEST describes the risk status if any one element of risk shrinks to zero?

Select one of the following:

  • There is no risk.

  • The level of risk remains constant.

  • The level of risk increases.

  • The level of risk decreases.

Explanation

Question 74 of 172

1

Specific facts about friendly intentions, capabilities, and operations vitally needed by adversaries to plan and act effectively is called

Select one of the following:

  • critical information.

  • vulnerabilities.

  • indicators.

  • risk

Explanation

Question 75 of 172

1

Which of the following countermeasures may be necessary if routine activities provide an adversary with tip-offs to critical information?

Select one of the following:

  • Awareness training

  • Speed of execution

  • Cover and deception

  • Changes in procedure

Explanation

Question 76 of 172

1

An advantage of incorporating the use of OPSEC surveys is that it

Select one of the following:

  • provides for early detection of OPSEC problems.

  • reduces indicators and avoids giving an adversary activity tip-offs.

  • makes OPSEC principles second nature to your employees

  • allows for any changes in OPSEC factors over time.

Explanation

Question 77 of 172

1

Which of the following countermeasures should be used sparingly because of its expense and maintenance difficulty?

Select one of the following:

  • Changes in procedure

  • Cover and deception

  • Speed of execution

  • Awareness training

Explanation

Question 78 of 172

1

Your knowledge of which factors impact your capability to analyze your vulnerabilities?

Select one of the following:

  • Your mission

  • Your operations

  • The interaction with other OPSEC steps

  • All of these choices

Explanation

Question 79 of 172

1

Which of the following BEST identifies the goal of OPSEC?

Select one of the following:

  • To provide you with a holistic picture of your operation

  • To protect your operation by properly controlling classified information

  • To establish a systematic process to assess the requirements for mission success

  • To control information about your capabilities and intentions

Explanation

Question 80 of 172

1

What document signed by President Reagan directed the establishment of OPSEC programs, and in what year did this document become law?

Select one of the following:

  • NSDD 289; in 1988

  • NSDD 289; in 1989

  • NSDD 298; in 1988

  • NSDD 298; in 1989

Explanation

Question 81 of 172

1

Observable and detectable items that can be pieced together through analysis to reveal sensitive information about your operation are called

Select one of the following:

  • indicators.

  • critical information items.

  • threats.

  • vulnerabilities.

Explanation

Question 82 of 172

1

Which of the following countermeasures is considered among the most effective for all organizations?

Select one of the following:

  • Cover and deception

  • Changes in procedure

  • Awareness training

  • Speed of execution

Explanation

Question 83 of 172

1

It's often the little things we do every day that can develop into vulnerabilities and cause damage to our operation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 84 of 172

1

An advantage of incorporating OPSEC principles in the planning stage of any operation is that it

Select one of the following:

  • makes OPSEC principles second nature to your employees.

  • provides for early detection of OPSEC problems.

  • reduces indicators and avoids giving an adversary activity tip-offs.

  • allows for any changes in OPSEC factors over time.

Explanation

Question 85 of 172

1

An advantage of using good OPSEC principles during contingencies is that it

Select one of the following:

  • makes OPSEC principles second nature to your employees.

  • reduces indicators and avoids giving an adversary activity tip-offs.

  • allows for any changes in OPSEC factors over time.

  • provides for early detection of OPSEC problems.

Explanation

Question 86 of 172

1

Because each adversary may have different intentions and capabilities, you may need to enact different scenarios for different adversaries.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 87 of 172

1

Which of the following, when looked at by itself or in conjunction with something else, can point to a vulnerability that an adversary can exploit?

Select one of the following:

  • Critical information item

  • Risk

  • Indicator

  • Threat

Explanation

Question 88 of 172

1

What is defined as a weakness that can be exploited by an adversary?

Select one of the following:

  • Vulnerability

  • Risk

  • Countermeasure

  • Threat

Explanation

Question 89 of 172

1

Risk is a function of the

Select one of the following:

  • threat only.

  • threat, vulnerability, and impact.

  • vulnerability and impact.

  • threat and vulnerability.

Explanation

Question 90 of 172

1

An advantage of integrating OPSEC principles in your day-to-day operations is that it

Select one of the following:

  • allows for any changes in OPSEC factors over time.

  • reduces indicators and avoids giving an adversary activity tip-offs.

  • provides for early detection of OPSEC problems.

  • makes OPSEC principles second nature to your employees.

Explanation

Question 91 of 172

1

OPSEC differs from other programs because it requires you to look at yourself through the eyes of the adversary.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 92 of 172

1

Anyone who opposes or acts against your interest is called a(n)

Select one of the following:

  • liability.

  • threat.

  • adversary.

  • risk.

Explanation

Question 93 of 172

1

In analyzing the threat, we are concerned with adversaries that

Select one of the following:

  • possess the ability to acquire and exploit our critical information.

  • intend to do us harm.

  • demonstrate the intent and capability to be a threat to our mission.

  • possess the ability to exploit our critical information.

Explanation

Question 94 of 172

1

Stan has recently witnessed some unusual behavior from a co-worker. He’s not sure if he should report it, but he knows it is better not to report an incident or behavior than to make a potentially false report.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 95 of 172

1

Jorge is a security official for a DoD organization. Where can he find reporting procedures that pertain to his organization?

Select one of the following:

  • DoD Directive 5240.06, CI Awareness and Reporting (CIAR)

  • DoD 5220.22-M, the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)

  • DSS Counterintelligence Office

Explanation

Question 96 of 172

1

Security officials should seek out and consider threat information only from official, government sources.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 97 of 172

1

Which of the following is an objective of the DSS CI Directorate?

Select one of the following:

  • Provide for the early detection and referral of potential espionage cases

  • Conduct counterintelligence investigations for the U.S.

  • Maintain list of militarily critical technology

Explanation

Question 98 of 172

1

Specific reporting procedures vary widely across agencies and contractor facilities. While imminent threats should be reported directly to the FBI, employees should use their agency’s or facility’s reporting procedures to report other threats through their chain of command.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 99 of 172

1

Incorporating counterintelligence and threat awareness into a security program can potentially prevent theft, espionage, and loss of life.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 100 of 172

1

Jack is his organization’s Facility Security Officer. He is working with other company officials to identify the organization’s assets. When they identify assets, they should include only classified information.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 101 of 172

1

Sam is a Facility Security Officer for a cleared defense contractor. Which of the following should Sam refer to for counterintelligence and threat awareness requirements for contractors?

Select one of the following:

  • DoD 5200.2-R, Personnel Security Program

  • DoD 5220.22-M, the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)

  • DoDM 5200.01, Volume 1, Enclosure 3, DoD Information Security Program

Explanation

Question 102 of 172

1

A cleared U.S. company received a request to sell export-controlled technology to an Eastern European security organization. This is an example of _____________________.

Select one of the following:

  • a cyber threat

  • an unsolicited request

  • solicitation and marketing of services

  • targeting insiders

Explanation

Question 103 of 172

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Adam is an expert in his organization’s dual use technology. He is invited to speak at a foreign conference. He knows seminars, conventions, and exhibits can be used by adversaries to target knowledgeable resources like him. What are some of the indicators Adam should look out for?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Foreign attendees’ business cards do not match stated affiliations

  • Excessive or suspicious photography and filming of technology and products

  • Conversations involving classified, sensitive, or export-controlled technologies or products

Explanation

Question 104 of 172

1

Anna is her organization’s Facility Security Officer. When considering assets, she knows that the greatest target of our adversaries is ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • human assets

  • technology assets

  • equipment assets

Explanation

Question 105 of 172

1

Which step of the analytical risk management process includes considering the impact to military and strategic advantage?

Select one of the following:

  • Identify vulnerabilities

  • Assess risk

  • Develop and apply countermeasures

  • Identify assets

Explanation

Question 106 of 172

1

Which of the following is a secure online environment offered by the OPM Center for Federal Investigative Services?

Select one of the following:

  • American Society for Industrial Security International (ASIS)

  • NCMS, the Society of Industrial Security Professionals

  • Industrial Security Awareness Council (ISAC)

  • Extranet for Security Professionals

Explanation

Question 107 of 172

1

The Secretary of Defense is the Executive Agent of the National Industrial Security Program and is responsible for overall implementation of the program.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 108 of 172

1

The Cognizant Security Office (CSO) for the DoD is Director of National Intelligence (DNI).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 109 of 172

1

Which government entity is responsible for providing National Industrial Security Program (NISP) policy direction?

Select one of the following:

  • Cognizant Security Agencies (CSAs)

  • Secretary of Defense (SecDef)

  • National Security Council (NSC)

  • Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO)

Explanation

Question 110 of 172

1

What document does DSS publish and post on its website to change or clarify existing policy requirements in the NISPOM?

Select one of the following:

  • CDSE Newsletter

  • DSS Access Magazine

  • Technology Collection Trends in the U.S. Defense Industry

  • Industrial Security Letter (ISL)

Explanation

Question 111 of 172

1

Only select Cognizant Security Agencies (CSAs) have hotlines for reporting industrial security issues.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 112 of 172

1

XYZ Industries is a cleared facility that is moving its headquarters to a less expensive office space. This need to be reported to the company’s IS Rep?

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 113 of 172

1

Which of the following includes all the steps necessary for processing a facility clearance and a list of the documents and information that the Facility Security Officer (FSO) must gather to prepare for the Facility Clearance Branch (FCB) telephonic survey?

Select one of the following:

  • Facility Clearance Checklist

  • Industrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)

  • DD Form 254 Handbook

  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)

Explanation

Question 114 of 172

1

In the NISPOM, what location does “1-302” represent?

Select one of the following:

  • Chapter 1, Section 3, Paragraph 2

  • Chapter 1, Section 30, Paragraph 2

  • Chapter 1, Page 302

  • Section 1, Paragraph 30, Page 2

Explanation

Question 115 of 172

1

The domestic delivery services approved for overnight domestic delivery of Secret and Confidential information are listed in the ______________________.

Select one of the following:

  • DD Form 254, DoD Contract Security Classification Specification

  • Transportation, Delivery, and Relocation Solutions (TDRS), Schedule 48

  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)

Explanation

Question 116 of 172

1

When is an SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, executed?

Select one of the following:

  • Within the first six months after eligibility is granted

  • As soon as the completed SF 86 is reviewed by the FSO.

  • Before an employee is granted access to classified information

  • After an employee has access to classified information

Explanation

Question 117 of 172

1

Which of the following would not be reported to the Personnel Security Management Office for Industry (PSMO-I)?

Select one of the following:

  • Employees desiring not to perform on classified work

  • Adverse information

  • Changes in cleared employee status

  • Change conditions affecting the facility clearance

Explanation

Question 118 of 172

1

What DSS organization provides security education and training to DoD and other U.S. government personnel and contractors?

Select one of the following:

  • Facility Clearance Branch (FCB)

  • Foreign Ownership, Control, or Influence (FOCI) Operations Division

  • Personnel Security Management Office for Industry (PSMO-I)

  • Center for Development of Security Excellence (CDSE)

Explanation

Question 119 of 172

1

What legally binding document must be executed between the Department of Defense and a contractor to obtain a facility clearance?

Select one of the following:

  • SF 328, Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests

  • DD Form 441, DoD Security Agreement

  • SF 86, Questionnaire for National Security Positions

  • SF 312, Non-Disclosure Form

Explanation

Question 120 of 172

1

One purpose of the National Industrial Security Program (NISP) is to preserve our nation’s economic and technological interests.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 121 of 172

1

Which resource guides Facility Security Officers (FSOs) through the self-inspection process and provides techniques to improve the quality of self-inspections?

Select one of the following:

  • Self-Inspection Handbook for NISP Contractors

  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)

  • Suggested Contract File Folder Headings job aid

Explanation

Question 122 of 172

1

Company ABC was recently issued a facility clearance and has been awarded its first classified contract. Which form should the company receive with the contract that provides specific guidance about what information is classified and at what classification level?

Select one of the following:

  • SF 328, Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests

  • SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement

  • SF 86, Questionnaire for National Security Positions

  • DD Form 254, Department of Defense Contract Security Classification Specification

Explanation

Question 123 of 172

1

As defined in the NISPOM, ______ is the administrative determination that an individual is eligible for access to classified information.

Select one of the following:

  • access level

  • need-to-know

  • a Personnel Security Clearance (PCL)

  • eligibility level

Explanation

Question 124 of 172

1

What security control measure outlines the specific export-controlled information that has been authorized for release during a foreign visit and delineates how a company will control access?

Select one of the following:

  • Export Authorization

  • Technology Control Plan (TCP)

  • Security Assurance

  • Disclosure Agreement

Explanation

Question 125 of 172

1

If the visitor organization and host organization both use the DoD System of Record, visit notifications are sent electronically, which speeds the approval process.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 126 of 172

1

When the host organization approves a visit request, this approval constitutes _____.

Select one of the following:

  • authority to establish security controls

  • authority to obtain a Facility Verification Request

  • authority to request additional special access authorizations

  • authority for disclosure

Explanation

Question 127 of 172

1

If there is not a contractual relationship between the visitor’s organization and the host organization, where must the host organization obtain authorization for disclosure of classified information?

Select one of the following:

  • DSS Industrial Security Representative

  • Industrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)

  • Government Contracting Activity (GCA)

Explanation

Question 128 of 172

1

What security control measures must the host organization implement for a classified meeting?

Select one of the following:

  • Physical security controls for the control of, access to, and dissemination of the classified information to be presented

  • Security control measures must provide for security briefings and signed certificates.

  • None. Security control measures are the responsibility of the Cognizant Security Agency.

  • None. Security control measures are the responsibility of the Government Contracting Activity.

Explanation

Question 129 of 172

1

An individual’s access level is directly related to the employer organization’s Facility Clearance level and the level of access needed for the individual to do his or her job.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 130 of 172

1

When is it appropriate for the visitor’s organization to submit a visit authorization letter (VAL)?

Select one of the following:

  • When the visit is a contract-related classified visit

  • When the request needs to be submitted and approved quickly

  • When one or both organizations do not utilize the web-based DoD System of Record

  • When either the visitor’s or host organization does not utilize the Industrial Security Facilities Database

Explanation

Question 131 of 172

1

Where are actions, such as Personnel Security Clearance terminations, upgrades, downgrades, and reinstatements, on contractor employees entered?

Select one of the following:

  • Industrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)

  • International Visits Program (IVP)

  • DoD System of Record

Explanation

Question 132 of 172

1

Which of the following is a good security practice in areas where classified information may be subject to unauthorized disclosure?

Select one of the following:

  • Inform the DSS IS Representative that all visitors to the area must wear a badge

  • Inform the project manager of the heightened risk and ensure the visitor has an escort

  • Provide visitors with a badge and an escort who has been informed of the access limitations or restrictions on the visitor's movements.

Explanation

Question 133 of 172

1

Select ALL of the correct responses. Which of the following are security briefing topics for visitors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • How to verify need-to-know in the DoD System of Record before a classified discussion

  • Physical security procedures and access areas

  • Use of Portable Electronic Devices

  • Policy and procedures for transmitting and/or transporting classified material

Explanation

Question 134 of 172

1

_____ describes the level of information to which a person is authorized access based on a background investigation.

Select one of the following:

  • Need-to-know

  • Access level

  • Eligibility

  • Personnel Security Clearance

Explanation

Question 135 of 172

1

Who must submit the RFV when a foreign national needs to visit a U.S. contractor facility to discuss classified information?

Select one of the following:

  • Sponsoring foreign government

  • Both the foreign contracting company and the sponsoring foreign government

  • U.S. contractor

  • Foreign contracting company

Explanation

Question 136 of 172

1

What system may be used to verify a company’s Facility Clearance status?

Select one of the following:

  • Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)

  • Industrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)

  • DoD System of Records

Explanation

Question 137 of 172

1

Who sponsors classified meetings in the NISP?

Select one of the following:

  • Universities and industry associations

  • DSS Headquarters, Industrial Security Integration and Application (IP) Programs

  • Cognizant Security Agency (CSA)

  • U.S. contractor

  • Government Contracting Activity (GCA)

Explanation

Question 138 of 172

1

What is a final security control in the NISP when the purpose of a visit has been accomplished?

Select one of the following:

  • Recovery of all classified information

  • To ensure any classified material that may be of use in a follow-on contract is transported securely to the visitor’s organization

  • To ensure that all classified material has been properly stored and inventoried

Explanation

Question 139 of 172

1

Government employees temporarily stationed at a contractor facility ______ control of their work products to the contractor.

Select one of the following:

  • must reach an agreement for

  • must relinquish

  • do not have to relinquish

Explanation

Question 140 of 172

1

Who sends the NATO Request for Visit (RFV) approval to the NATO site?

Select one of the following:

  • Visitor’s Facility Security Officer (FSO)

  • DSS Headquarters Industrial Security Integration and Application (IP) Programs

  • Cognizant Security Agency (CSA)

  • Government Contracting Activity (GCA)

Explanation

Question 141 of 172

1

When does a host need to coordinate with the visitor’s organization regarding the Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement (SF-312)?

Select one of the following:

  • When the visit is a first-time visit and the DoD System of Records does not indicate that the visitor has signed an SF-312

  • The visitor must always sign it at every visit to any classified facility

  • When the visitor presents a visit authorization letter (VAL)

  • When it is the visitor’s first visit to the cleared facility

Explanation

Question 142 of 172

1

International visit requirements apply when information to be disclosed is classified or unclassified but related to classified contracts or otherwise subject to export controls under the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) or Export Administration Regulations (EAR).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 143 of 172

1

NATO briefings require a signed certificate.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 144 of 172

1

Which of the following is used in the PCL process to determine a candidate’s eligibility?

Select one of the following:

  • Adjudicative Guidelines

  • E.O. 12968

  • E.O. 13467

  • NIPSOM

Explanation

Question 145 of 172

1

Who makes the interim eligibility determination?

Select one of the following:

  • OPM/ISP

  • DSS Field Office

  • DOHA

  • PSMO-I

Explanation

Question 146 of 172

1

To whom does the FSO submit the applicant’s completed SF-86 and both signed release forms?

Select one of the following:

  • OPM

  • DOHA

  • PSMO-I

Explanation

Question 147 of 172

1

How is the FSO notified that a cleared employee may be due for a periodic reinvestigation?

Select one of the following:

  • The facility’s IS Rep notifies the FSO

  • The FSO is not notified but must look for eligible employees in the DoD system of record

  • PSMO-I notifies the FSO

Explanation

Question 148 of 172

1

The only requirement for employees to access classified information is to have a favorable eligibility determination.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 149 of 172

1

A contractor facility has been awarded classified contracts that require access to information classified at the Confidential and Secret levels. What is the level of FCL required by the contractor?

Select one of the following:

  • Confidential

  • Secret

  • Top Secret

Explanation

Question 150 of 172

1

What is the purpose of an annual clearance justification review?

Select one of the following:

  • To ensure there are enough cleared employees to meet the needs of a contractor company’s classified contract workload

  • To provide the CEO with justification for hiring more cleared employees

  • To assess whether a cleared employee still requires access to classified information

Explanation

Question 151 of 172

1

One of the conditions required for a pre-existing eligibility determination issued by one federal agency to be accepted by another federal agency is for the determination to be based on an investigation of sufficient scope that is current to within _________.

Select one of the following:

  • 5 years

  • 7 years

  • 10 years

Explanation

Question 152 of 172

1

The thirteen adjudicative guidelines involve assessing a candidate using criteria that addresses a specific concern that can impact the candidate’s ability to protect national security.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 153 of 172

1

If a candidate has a record in the DoD system of record (JPAS/DISS) and a pre-existing eligibility determination, the FSO assesses whether that determination may be accepted in lieu of initiating a new investigation to determine eligibility.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 154 of 172

1

The __________________ develops and implements a facility’s security program.

Select one of the following:

  • Cognizant Security Officer (CSO)

  • Facility Security Officer (FSO)

  • Personnel Security Officer (PSO)

Explanation

Question 155 of 172

1

A company cleared at the Secret level hires a new employee. The new employee has a current Top Secret eligibility, which was granted by her previous employer. What is the highest level of classified access she may have for work performed for her new employer?

Select one of the following:

  • Secret

  • Top Secret

  • Confidential

Explanation

Question 156 of 172

1

Which investigation type is required for an initial Secret clearance?

Select one of the following:

  • Tier 3R

  • Tier 5R

  • Tier 5

  • Tier 3

Explanation

Question 157 of 172

1

The FSO submits the applicant’s completed SF-86 using which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • JCAVS/DISS

  • JPASS/DISS Portal

  • eQIP

Explanation

Question 158 of 172

1

How is the applicant’s FSO notified if the applicant receive an unfavorable eligibility determination?

Select one of the following:

  • DoD System of Record

  • DOHA communication

  • eQIP notification

Explanation

Question 159 of 172

1

Which of the following provides policy about PCLs and defines access criteria?

Select one of the following:

  • E.O. 13467

  • E.O. 12968

  • USD(I) Memo 25 Dec 2005

  • NISPOM

Explanation

Question 160 of 172

1

Which investigation is used for a periodic reinvestigation of an individual possessing a Secret or Confidential clearance eligibility?

Select one of the following:

  • Tier 5R

  • Tier 5

  • Tier 3

  • Tier 3R

Explanation

Question 161 of 172

1

Facility employees may be processed for personnel security clearances concurrently with the processing of, or after the award of, a facility’s FCL.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 162 of 172

1

During which stage of the personnel security clearance process are the thirteen guidelines used?

Select one of the following:

  • Adjudication stage

  • Interim review stage

  • Personnel security clearance investigation stage

  • Initiate personnel security clearance process stage

Explanation

Question 163 of 172

1

Who has primary responsibility for the adjudication of personnel security background investigations?

Select one of the following:

  • PSMO-I

  • DOHA

  • DoD CAF

Explanation

Question 164 of 172

1

An interim eligibility determination grants the applicant permanent access to classified information by bypassing the remainder of the PCL process.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 165 of 172

1

Which investigation type is required for an initial Top Secret Clearance?

Select one of the following:

  • Tier 3

  • Tier 5R

  • Tier 3R

  • Tier 5

Explanation

Question 166 of 172

1

Which of the following items must the FSO report to the PSMO-I?

Select one of the following:

  • A cleared employee has received an industry award

  • A cleared employee’s citizenship has changed

  • An uncleared employee’s citizenship has changed

Explanation

Question 167 of 172

1

To whom may eligibility decisions be appealed if the DoD CAF denies eligibility?

Select one of the following:

  • PSMO-I

  • DSS Field Office

  • DOHA

Explanation

Question 168 of 172

1

Which of the following government entities typically determines personnel security clearance eligibility?

Select one of the following:

  • DoD CAF

  • DSS Field Office

  • DOHA

Explanation

Question 169 of 172

1

Which type of security training typically informs cleared employees of changes or updates to security regulations?

Select one of the following:

  • Initial Security Training

  • Special Security Briefing

  • Refresher Security Training

Explanation

Question 170 of 172

1

Which activities are recommended as part of continuous evaluation program at a cleared facility?
a. periodic reinvestigations
b. annual clearance justification reviews
c. reporting required information

Select one of the following:

  • b and c only

  • a only

  • a and b only

  • a, b, and c

Explanation

Question 171 of 172

1

Which of the following government entities adjudicates unfavorable eligibility determinations that are appealed?

Select one of the following:

  • PSMO-I

  • DSS Field Office

  • DOHA

Explanation

Question 172 of 172

1

When is an applicant required to submit fingerprints in addition to his/her security application?

Select one of the following:

  • During a periodic reinvestigation of a cleared individual

  • During the applicants initial PCL investigation

  • Only when the applicant is seeking Top Secret clearance eligibility

  • The applicant is never required to submit a fingerprint card, but it is a best practice.

Explanation

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