Vet 201 Chapter 3 Anesthesiology Study Guide

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Anesthetic agents and adjuncts can be classified by which of the following?

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Any drug that is utilized to induce loss of sensation with or without unconsciousness is known as a(n):

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The common effect of depression and/or stimulation, seen in a patient, after the administration of an anesthetic agent is due to:

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When acting upon the central nervous system, those agents that bind to more than one receptor type, and simultaneously stimulate at least one and block at least one, are referred to as:

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Yohimbine, tolazoline, and atipamezole are best categorized as:

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Incompatible mixtures of anesthetic agents and adjuncts, when combined in the same syringe, can cause which of the following?

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In the United States, the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) is enforced by the:

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Parasympatholytics are:

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Drugs such as atropine and glycopyrrolate function in what way?

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Effects including arrhythmias and tachycardia, thickening of secretions, bronchodilation, and mydriasis are most likely to be seen with the use of which drug?

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The three classes of tranquilizers and sedatives that are often used in veterinary medicine include:

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Post administration of acepromazine, a patient is noted to have an increased heart rate and decreased core temperature. To which common side effect is this attributed?

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Which of the following groups of drugs, also referred to as minor tranquilizers, are commonly used for their sedative, muscle relaxant, and anticonvulsant properties?

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Which benzodiazepine is most likely to cause irritation and pain when administered intramuscularly (IM)?

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Benzodiazepines exert their primary effects by increasing the activity of the:

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The appropriate antagonist to use with benzodiazepines is:

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The most appropriate route of administration for alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists is:

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Due to their primary metabolic and excretion pathways, caution should be used when administering alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists to patients with which of the following conditions?

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The most common cardiac arrhythmia observed in which of the following IV administration of alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists?

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During administration of dexmedetomidine, bradycardia is noted. When taking treatment options into consideration, the most appropriate is administration of:

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The three major types of opioid receptors are:

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In regard to opioids, pure antagonists are known to:

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Due to their tendency to increase intraocular and intracranial pressure, it is best to avoid the use of opioids in patients with which of the following conditions?

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A state of profound sedation and analgesia induced by simultaneous administration of an opioid and tranquilizer is referred to as:

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In regard to narcotics, naloxone can be used for the reversal of:

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Drugs that have the ability to produce unconsciousness when given alone are characterized as:

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The tendency of a drug to dissolve in fats, oils, or lipids is referred to as:

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After administration of propofol, blood flow is responsible for distribution throughout the body and results in which organ system receiving the highest concentration?

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High doses and rapid administration of propofol are known to cause:

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Etomidate is best defined as an:

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After administration of etomidate, which organ is it possible to see depressed for several hours?

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Proper handling and use of alfaxalone and propofol include:

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Post administration of alfaxalone, it is important to monitor the patient for:

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Which common class of controlled drugs was developed during the 1930s–1950s and was commonly used as general anesthetics?

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The most common use of pentobarbital is:

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The most commonly utilized dissociative anesthetic in veterinary medicine is:

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Dissociative anesthetics should be used with caution in patients with what underlying metabolic condition due to their redistribution and metabolism properties?

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While ketamine is widely used in veterinary medicine, it is currently licensed for use in which species?

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The most common cardiac changes associated with administration of dissociative anesthetics are:

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Tiletamine is sold only in combination with what other drug?

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Dissociatives exert their effects by acting upon:

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Which noncontrolled dissociative, commonly used for large animal medicine, has no anesthetic or analgesic properties when used alone?

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The first clinically used inhalation anesthetic was:

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The principal organ(s) involved in the elimination of halogenated compounds is(are):

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Halogenated compounds readily enter the brain due to what factor?

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When halogenated agents are exposed to desiccated carbon dioxide absorbent, the results include:

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Decreased renal blood flow can be seen when using inhalation agents, secondary to which side effect?

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Vapor pressure is best defined as:

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Which of the following is responsible for the speed of induction and recovery of a patient?

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During a surgical process, anesthetic agent Z (MAC = 1.3%) was delivered at a setting of 1.3%. Utilizing the theory of MAC, how many dogs out of ten would respond to painful stimuli?

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Isoflurane is labeled for use in:

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Sevoflurane is labeled for use in:

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Which of the following inhalant anesthetics are going to produce the fastest induction and recovery based on their blood–gas partition coefficient?

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Veterinary Medicine Quiz on Vet 201 Chapter 3 Anesthesiology Study Guide, created by Kelly Kinsinger on 11/10/2018.

Vet 201 Chapter 3 Anesthesiology Study Guide

Anesthetic agents and adjuncts can be classified by which of the following?

Any drug that is utilized to induce loss of sensation with or without unconsciousness is known as a(n):

The common effect of depression and/or stimulation, seen in a patient, after the administration of an anesthetic agent is due to:

When acting upon the central nervous system, those agents that bind to more than one receptor type, and simultaneously stimulate at least one and block at least one, are referred to as:

Yohimbine, tolazoline, and atipamezole are best categorized as:

Incompatible mixtures of anesthetic agents and adjuncts, when combined in the same syringe, can cause which of the following?

In the United States, the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) is enforced by the:

Parasympatholytics are:

Drugs such as atropine and glycopyrrolate function in what way?

Effects including arrhythmias and tachycardia, thickening of secretions, bronchodilation, and mydriasis are most likely to be seen with the use of which drug?

The three classes of tranquilizers and sedatives that are often used in veterinary medicine include:

Post administration of acepromazine, a patient is noted to have an increased heart rate and decreased core temperature. To which common side effect is this attributed?

Which of the following groups of drugs, also referred to as minor tranquilizers, are commonly used for their sedative, muscle relaxant, and anticonvulsant properties?

Which benzodiazepine is most likely to cause irritation and pain when administered intramuscularly (IM)?

Benzodiazepines exert their primary effects by increasing the activity of the:

The appropriate antagonist to use with benzodiazepines is:

The most appropriate route of administration for alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists is:

Due to their primary metabolic and excretion pathways, caution should be used when administering alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists to patients with which of the following conditions?

The most common cardiac arrhythmia observed in which of the following IV administration of alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists?

During administration of dexmedetomidine, bradycardia is noted. When taking treatment options into consideration, the most appropriate is administration of: