Kathleen Jackson
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Trimester 2 Quiz on Last min mental revision, created by Kathleen Jackson on 12/10/2018.

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Kathleen Jackson
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Last min mental revision

Last min mental revision

Question 1 of 60

1

Susan is a secondary school nurse. She has received a referral about Wendy from the guidance officer. Prior to meeting Wendy, Susan reads the school report and meets with Wendy's home room teacher. Susan is currently in what phase of the therapeutic relationship with Wendy?

Select one of the following:

  • Pre-orientation

  • Orientation

  • Termination

  • Working

Explanation

Question 2 of 60

1

A patient’s unresolved feelings related to loss would be MOST LIKELY observed during which phase of the therapeutic nurse-patient relationship?

Select one of the following:

  • Pre-orientation

  • Working

  • Orientation

  • Termination

Explanation

Question 3 of 60

1

During which phase of the nurse-patient relationship can the nurse anticipate that identified patient issues will be explored and resolved?

Select one of the following:

  • Preorientation

  • Orientation

  • Working

  • Termination

Explanation

Question 4 of 60

1

At what point in the nurse-patient relationship should a nurse plan to first address termination?

Select one of the following:

  • During the orientation phase

  • At the end of the working phase

  • Near the beginning of the termination phase

  • When the patient initially brings up the topic

Explanation

Question 5 of 60

1

You are assessing Deepak and you ask him what he might do if he was in a shop and heard a fire alarm. You are assessing which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Perception

  • Judgement

  • Memory

  • Concentration

Explanation

Question 6 of 60

1

Which of the following cognitive tasks is NOT an assessment of short term or long term
memory?

Select one of the following:

  • Ask the patient to tell you his or her address and later, you check the answer with patient’s medical record.

  • Ask the patient to name as many animals as possible that can be found in the Zoo.

  • Ask the patient to name the current day/month/year.

  • Inform the patient 3 objects (e.g. Apple, Newspaper and Train) and ask the patient to name the 3 objects immediately.

Explanation

Question 7 of 60

1

Which of the below are examples of questions to screen for perception abnormalities:

Select one of the following:

  • Do you ever see, hear, smell, feel, or taste things that are not really there?

  • Did you think this was real at the time?

  • Do you still believe it was real?

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 8 of 60

1

Lisa is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. The nurse should advise Lisa`s family that Lisa`s fear of being overweight can be equated to her desire to?

Select one of the following:

  • Calm her euphoria

  • Maintain a sense of control

  • Become a model

  • Please her partner

Explanation

Question 9 of 60

1

Bulimia nervosa is characterised by recurrent binge eating and inappropriate use of compensatory behaviours. The most common example of a compensatory behaviour is:
Select the MOST CORRECT answer

Select one of the following:

  • Self-induced vomiting.

  • Use of laxatives.

  • Excessive exercising.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 10 of 60

1

In Schizophrenia, the term anhedonia refers to?

Select one of the following:

  • An inability to enjoy food

  • An inability to express empathy

  • An inability to react to enjoyable or pleasurable events

  • An inability to react appropriately to social cues

Explanation

Question 11 of 60

1

What? occurs most commonly in schizophrenia, depression, and bipolar disorder?

Select one of the following:

  • Decreased need to sleep

  • Paranoid delusions

  • Avolition

  • Low self esteem

Explanation

Question 12 of 60

1

Visual hallucinations are seen in:

Select one of the following:

  • Delirium tremens

  • Phobia

  • Depression

  • Mania

Explanation

Question 13 of 60

1

FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `F` in FRAMES acronym?

Select one of the following:

  • Fliight of ideas

  • Feedback

  • Flashback

  • Frotteurism

Explanation

Question 14 of 60

1

FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `R` in FRAMES acronym?

Select one of the following:

  • Reliability

  • Reinforcement

  • Responsibility

  • Resistance

Explanation

Question 15 of 60

1

FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `A` in FRAMES acronym?

Select one of the following:

  • Abulia

  • Affect

  • Analysis

  • Advice

Explanation

Question 16 of 60

1

FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `M` in FRAMES acronym?

Select one of the following:

  • Menu Options

  • Mania

  • Mood

  • Memory

Explanation

Question 17 of 60

1

FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `S` in FRAMES acronym?

Select one of the following:

  • Somatic hallucination

  • Somatic delusion

  • Self-Efficacy

  • Stupor

Explanation

Question 18 of 60

1

When considering a client's risk of violence, a nurse might use the acronym STAMP for their assessment. The S in STAMP stands for?

Select one of the following:

  • Staring and eye contact

  • Sign

  • Signal anxiety

  • Social adaptation

Explanation

Question 19 of 60

1

When considering a client's risk of violence, a nurse might use the acronym STAMP for their assessment. The T in STAMP stands for?

Select one of the following:

  • Thought broadcasting

  • Tone and volume of voice

  • Tolerance

  • Temperament

Explanation

Question 20 of 60

1

When considering a client's risk of violence, a nurse might use the acronym STAMP for their assessment. The M in STAMP stands for?

Select one of the following:

  • Mood

  • Mirroring

  • Mumbling

  • Memory

Explanation

Question 21 of 60

1

When considering a client's risk of violence, a nurse might use the acronym STAMP for their assessment. The P in STAMP stands for?

Select one of the following:

  • Panic attack

  • Paranoia

  • Phobia

  • Pacing

Explanation

Question 22 of 60

1

Which is not one of the five stages within the trans-theoretical (stages of change) model

Select one of the following:

  • Maintenance

  • Pre-contemplation

  • Behavioural engagement

  • Preparation

Explanation

Question 23 of 60

1

You smell something that no one else can and that has no physical source.

Select one of the following:

  • an olfactory hallucination

  • a tactile hallucination

  • a gustatory hallucination

  • a visual hallucination

Explanation

Question 24 of 60

1

You have a taste in your mouth that has no source.

Select one of the following:

  • an olfactory hallucination

  • a tactile hallucination

  • a gustatory hallucination

  • a visual hallucination

Explanation

Question 25 of 60

1

Delusion – a belief or impression maintained despite being contradicted by reality or rational argument, typically as a symptom of mental disorder.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 60

1

A significant risk factor for the development of an eating disorder is which if the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Low self-esteem

  • A very thin parent

  • High self esteem

  • High personal regard

Explanation

Question 27 of 60

1

Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for anorexia nervosa in DSMV?

Select one of the following:

  • A refusal to maintain a minimal body weight

  • A pathological fear of gaining weight

  • A distorted body image in which, even when clearly emaciated, sufferers continue to insist they are overweight

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 28 of 60

1

Steven would experience panic if he goes to a shopping centre. He finds crowded places are difficult to escape. Steve may have:

Select one of the following:

  • Antlophobia

  • Agoraphobia

  • Chronophobia

  • Urophobia

Explanation

Question 29 of 60

1

Mania involves:

Select one of the following:

  • Boundless, frenzied energy.

  • Feelings of euphoria.

  • Ideas coming too fast and too many.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 30 of 60

1

Which of the following is NOT true for someone experiencing a panic attack?

Select one of the following:

  • they should be considered to have a respiratory problem until this is ruled out

  • the first step to treatment is to slow down their breathing

  • they will respond better if you raise your voice when talking to them

  • they are likely to present to an Emergency Department

Explanation

Question 31 of 60

1

Jo is admitted to an acute adult mental health ward. Two days after her admission, Jo expresses suicidal ideation. Jo tells the nurse she feels at peace and is fine. Jo informs the nurse that she would like to be discharged. The nurse understands that:

Select one of the following:

  • Jo's condition is improving and therefore home leave or discharge would be helpful

  • Jo remains at risk of suicide and requires further assessment

  • Jo is ready for discharge as she now feels well again

  • Jo has resolved her negative affect and now feels hopeful for the future. Jo can be discharged

Explanation

Question 32 of 60

1

The term suicidal ideation is defined as which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • The accidental act of taking one's own life

  • Thinking about and planning one's own death

  • An unintentional overdose

  • Planning another's death

Explanation

Question 33 of 60

1

Which of the following is not an antidepressant drug?

Select one of the following:

  • Tricyclic antidepressants.

  • Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs).

  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

  • Antinoamine tritase rehibitor (ATRs).

Explanation

Question 34 of 60

1

Anxiolytic drugs are used to treat:

Select one of the following:

  • The symptoms of depression and mood disorder.

  • The symptoms of anxiety and stress.

  • The symptoms of psychosis and schizophrenia.

  • Loss of sexual desire.

Explanation

Question 35 of 60

1

Antipsychotics do which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Alleviate Major positive symptoms (such as thought disorder and hallucinations).

  • Alleviate Major negative symptoms (such as social withdrawal).

  • Reducing the burden of institutional care.

  • Promote personal growth and productivity.

Explanation

Question 36 of 60

1

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are effective for the treatment of:

Select one of the following:

  • Schizophrenia.

  • Major depression.

  • Obsessive compulsive disorder.

  • Generalized anxiety disorder.

Explanation

Question 37 of 60

1

Jason tells you that he is being spied on by the Government and that as a result he needed to quit his job so that the spies could not find him. This is an example of which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Ideas of reference

  • Visual hallucination

  • Tangential thinking

  • Persecutory delusion

Explanation

Question 38 of 60

1

Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is a pervasive condition in which the sufferer experiences:

Select one of the following:

  • Fear of fear.

  • Continual apprehension and anxiety about future events.

  • Continual flashbacks to past events.

  • A desire to check that the environment is safe.

Explanation

Question 39 of 60

1

Tim has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and whilst experiencing a psychotic episode is hospitalised. Which of the following are likely to be Tim's negative symptoms?

Select one of the following:

  • Absent, blunted or incongruous emotional responses.

  • Suicidal ideation, introversion, poor hygiene

  • Disorganised behaviours, pressure of speech, social isolation

  • Anhedonia, lethargy, social isolation

Explanation

Question 40 of 60

1

In relation to alcohol use all of the following are symptoms of delirium tremens EXCEPT?

Select one of the following:

  • Confusion

  • Visual hallucination

  • Disorientation

  • Insomnia

Explanation

Question 41 of 60

1

In Bipolar II Disorder, major depressive episodes alternate with periods of:

Select one of the following:

  • Hyperventilation.

  • Hypomania.

  • Hypothermia.

  • Hypoxia.

Explanation

Question 42 of 60

1

The nurse working with a client with an antisocial personality disorder would expect which of the following behaviours?

Select one of the following:

  • withdrawal from social activities

  • compliance with expectations and rules

  • utilisation of rituals to allay anxiety

  • exploitation of other clients

Explanation

Question 43 of 60

1

In Schizophrenia psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations delusions, disorganised speech and grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviours are known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Negative symptoms

  • Positive symptoms

  • Mediating symptoms

  • Catastrophic symptoms

Explanation

Question 44 of 60

1

Misinterpretation of perceptions or experiences in Schizophrenia are known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Hallucinations

  • Misperceptions

  • Delusions

  • Avolition

Explanation

Question 45 of 60

1

A normal or stable mental state is described as

Select one of the following:

  • Dysthymic

  • Euthymic

  • Euphoric

  • Dysphoric

Explanation

Question 46 of 60

1

A persistent mild depression is described as

Select one of the following:

  • Dysthymic

  • Euthymic

  • Euphoric

  • Dysphoric

Explanation

Question 47 of 60

1

A feeling of intense excitement and happiness is described as

Select one of the following:

  • Dysthymic

  • Euthymic

  • Euphoric

  • Dysphoric

Explanation

Question 48 of 60

1

A state of mental discomfort or suffering is described as

Select one of the following:

  • Dysthymic

  • Euphoric

  • Euthymic

  • Dysphoric

Explanation

Question 49 of 60

1

Which of the following is an important factor in substance abuse?

Select one of the following:

  • Whether the substances are regularly used by other family members

  • Whether the family environment is rural or urban

  • Whether you are a twin

  • Whether you are born in the winter

Explanation

Question 50 of 60

1

Alcohol Dependence is supported specifically by evidence of tolerance effects and withdrawal symptoms that develop within:

Select one of the following:

  • 1-2 hours of restricted consumption

  • 3-6 hours of restricted consumption

  • 4-12 hours of restricted consumption

  • 12-24 hours of restricted consumption

Explanation

Question 51 of 60

1

Which of the following is not a hallucinogenic?

Select one of the following:

  • Cannabis

  • MDMA

  • LSD

  • Antibiotics

Explanation

Question 52 of 60

1

Which of the following are the consequences of vitamin and mineral deficiencies which can lead to dementia and memory disorders in alcohol abuse?

Select one of the following:

  • Smirnoff's syndrome

  • Korsakoff's syndrome

  • Helmert syndrome

  • Huynh-Feldt syndrome

Explanation

Question 53 of 60

1

An outdoor education program for adolescents who have been identified as 'at risk' of mental health problems is considered:

Select one of the following:

  • Rehabilitation

  • Prevention

  • Treatment

  • Early intervention

Explanation

Question 54 of 60

1

Which of the following is a subtype of Dramatic/Emotional Personality Disorders (Cluster B)

Select one of the following:

  • Paranoid Personality Disorder

  • Schizotypical Personality Disorder

  • Histrionic Personality Disorder

  • Schizoid Personality Disorder

Explanation

Question 55 of 60

1

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a risk factors for personality disorders ?

Select one of the following:

  • living in inner cities

  • low socioeconomic class

  • gender

  • being a young adult

Explanation

Question 56 of 60

1

A sixty-year-old client visits the mental health outpatient clinic, and tells the nurse that she "worries all the time and sometimes life just seems hopeless". The nurse suspects that the client is most likely experiencing

Select one of the following:

  • obsessive-compulsive disorder

  • panic disorder without agoraphobia

  • generalised anxiety disorder

  • borderline personality disorder

Explanation

Question 57 of 60

1

Jason is in hospital having experienced delusions and acute psychosis. He is now prescribed antipsychotic medications. You notice that he is pacing the hospital corridor and is unable to stay still even when you are trying to engage him in conversation. You assess Jason as most likely to be experiencing which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Oculogyric crisis

  • Akinesia

  • Akathisia

  • Dystonia

Explanation

Question 58 of 60

1

Jason is in hospital having experienced a state of abnormal muscle tone resulting in muscular spasm and abnormal posture, typically due to neurological disease or a side effect of drug therapy. You assess Jason as most likely to be experiencing which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Oculogyric crisis

  • Akinesia

  • Akathisia

  • Dystonia

Explanation

Question 59 of 60

1

Jason is in hospital having experienced bilateral elevation of the visual gaze. You assess Jason as most likely to be experiencing which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Oculogyric crisis

  • Dystonia

  • Akathisia

  • Akinesia

Explanation

Question 60 of 60

1

Jason is in hospital having experienced a loss or an impairment of the power of voluntary movement. You assess Jason as most likely to be experiencing which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Oculogyric crisis

  • Akinesia

  • Akathisia

  • Dystonia

Explanation

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