Kelly Kinsinger
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Veterinary Medicine Quiz on Vet 201 Anesthiesiology Chapter Eight Study Guide, created by Kelly Kinsinger on 30/10/2018.

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Kelly Kinsinger
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Vet 201 Anesthiesiology Chapter Eight Study Guide

Question 1 of 51

1

The term “fourth vital sign” refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • temperature

  • pulse

  • respiration

  • pain

Explanation

Question 2 of 51

1

Aversive sensory and emotional experience that elicits protective motor actions, results in learned avoidance, and may modify species-specific behavior traits, including social behavior, is best known as:

Select one of the following:

  • modulation

  • distress

  • pain

  • nociception

Explanation

Question 3 of 51

1

Known as “ouch” pain, which of the following protective sensations of pain occurs when there is a possibility of or actual tissue injury?

Select one of the following:

  • nociception

  • physiologic pain

  • adaptive pain

  • pathologic pain

Explanation

Question 4 of 51

1

Chemical mediators, such as prostaglandin and histamine, are responsible for:

Select one of the following:

  • inflammatory pain

  • neuropathic pain

  • idiopathic pain

  • pathologic pain

Explanation

Question 5 of 51

1

Pain originating from the musculoskeletal system is best described as:

Select one of the following:

  • visceral pain

  • somatic pain

  • pathologic pain

  • chronic pain

Explanation

Question 6 of 51

1

A common class of drugs utilized to treat and target specific receptors in the pain pathway includes:

Select one of the following:

  • antibiotics.

  • antihistamines.

  • nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs.

  • anthelmintics.

Explanation

Question 7 of 51

1

The concept of utilization of pain management therapies to target two or more receptors is:

Select one of the following:

  • primary hyperalgesia.

  • mediators.

  • secondary hyperalgesia

  • multimodal therapy.

Explanation

Question 8 of 51

1

Of the following, which is not typically associated with neuroendocrine changes that occur in response to pain?

Select one of the following:

  • Release of ACTH

  • Increased norepinephrine

  • Increased insulin

  • Adrenocorticotropic hormone release

Explanation

Question 9 of 51

1

The use of preemptive analgesia is likely to:

Select one of the following:

  • cause anthropomorphization.

  • prevent “windup.”

  • include the “five freedoms.”

  • lead to increased morbidity and/or mortality.

Explanation

Question 10 of 51

1

The differentiating factor(s) between emergence delirium and pain is(are):

Select one of the following:

  • duration and response to sedation.

  • response to analgesic administration.

  • response to analgesic administration and pain.

  • response to analgesic administration and duration.

Explanation

Question 11 of 51

1

Patients that are suffering from pain are likely to experience noticeable alterations in their:

Select one of the following:

  • facial expressions, appearance, and attitude.

  • facial expressions, appearance, and sleep patterns.

  • bodily movements, appearance, and attitude.

  • bodily movements, sleep patterns, and attitude.

Explanation

Question 12 of 51

1

Patients that have undergone major surgery should have their pain assessed how frequently?:

Select one of the following:

  • Every 60 seconds

  • Every 2 minutes

  • Every 60 minutes

  • At shift changes

Explanation

Question 13 of 51

1

Perioperative analgesia is the concurrent use of:

Select one of the following:

  • preemptive analgesia and pain assessment.

  • pain assessment and multimodal therapy.

  • pharmacologic analgesia therapy and pain assessment.

  • preemptive analgesia and multimodal therapy.

Explanation

Question 14 of 51

1

Of the following, which is not an anticipated benefit of multimodal analgesic therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Increased individual drug dose

  • Decreased overall anesthetic drug requirements

  • Increased healing time

  • Decreased risk of adverse effects

Explanation

Question 15 of 51

1

Opioid agonist drugs act in which of the following ways?

Select one of the following:

  • Peripherally: in the spinal cord and joints

  • Centrally: to inhibit perception in the brain and sensitization in the spinal cord

  • Centrally: to increase perception in the brain and spinal cord

  • Peripherally: in the brain and spinal cord on the opioid receptors

Explanation

Question 16 of 51

1

A patient requires the selection of an opioid with the most potent analgesic effects. Which of the following would most accurately fit this criteria?

Select one of the following:

  • Partial mu agonists

  • Agonist–antagonists

  • Antihistamines

  • Mu receptor agonists

Explanation

Question 17 of 51

1

Caution should be taken with rapid intravenous injection of morphine in canine patients due to the potential for:

Select one of the following:

  • histamine release.

  • locomotor activity.

  • dysphoria.

  • restlessness.

Explanation

Question 18 of 51

1

The most common adverse side effect secondary to morphine administration is likely to be:

Select one of the following:

  • histamine release.

  • gastrointestinal upset.

  • respiratory depression.

  • excitement.

Explanation

Question 19 of 51

1

This paradoxical response in canine patients after the administration of oxymorphone can make which of the following procedures difficult?

Select one of the following:

  • Blood pressure analysis

  • Intravenous catheter placement

  • Thoracic radiography

  • Application of a CRI

Explanation

Question 20 of 51

1

The drug that is most similar to oxymorphone in duration and effect is:

Select one of the following:

  • morphine.

  • buprenorphine.

  • butorphanol.

  • hydromorphone.

Explanation

Question 21 of 51

1

Of the synthetic opioids, which is known to also act as an antagonist at the NMDA receptor?

Select one of the following:

  • Methadone

  • Hydromorphone

  • Oxymorphone

  • Fentanyl

Explanation

Question 22 of 51

1

In contrast to other pure opioid agonists, the duration of action achieved with intravenous fentanyl administration is:

Select one of the following:

  • 20 to 30 seconds

  • 2 to 3 minutes.

  • 20 to 30 minutes.

  • 2 to 3 hours.

Explanation

Question 23 of 51

1

The synthetic opioid pethidine is also more commonly known as:

Select one of the following:

  • buprenorphine.

  • meperidine.

  • ketoprofen.

  • acepromazine.

Explanation

Question 24 of 51

1

Due to the pH of the feline mucosa, which injectable narcotic can be administered orally for analgesia?

Select one of the following:

  • Morphine

  • Oxymorphone

  • Hydromorphone

  • Buprenorphine

Explanation

Question 25 of 51

1

General duration of action for buprenorphine following intramuscular injection is thought to be:

Select one of the following:

  • 6 to 12 hours.

  • 60 to 120 minutes.

  • 60 to 120 seconds.

  • 18 to 24 hours.

Explanation

Question 26 of 51

1

The first use of butorphanol in veterinary medicine was to act as a(n):

Select one of the following:

  • antihistamine.

  • cough suppressant.

  • anesthetic.

  • analgesic.

Explanation

Question 27 of 51

1

Use of butorphanol in which of the following routes can potentially lead to a toxicity?

Select one of the following:

  • IV

  • IM

  • SQ

  • Epidural

Explanation

Question 28 of 51

1

Butorphanol can be used as an antagonist to partially reverse respiratory depression/sedation secondary to the use of:

Select one of the following:

  • kappa antagonist opioids.

  • mu antagonist opioids.

  • kappa agonist opioids.

  • mu agonist opioids.

Explanation

Question 29 of 51

1

In the United States, which of the following is the only injectable opioid that is not classified as a controlled drug?

Select one of the following:

  • Acepromazine

  • Buprenorphine

  • Nalbuphine

  • Meperidine

Explanation

Question 30 of 51

1

Patients considered “high risk” for use with opioids include all of the following except:

Select one of the following:

  • hypotension.

  • hepatic disease.

  • neurologic disorders.

  • normovolemic.

Explanation

Question 31 of 51

1

The use of morphine administered through an epidural route is most likely to illicit which adverse effect?

Select one of the following:

  • Urine retention

  • Sedation

  • Excitement

  • Respiratory depression

Explanation

Question 32 of 51

1

When considering transdermal use of fentanyl in feline patients, application should take place at least how many hours prior to the start of the procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 hour

  • 4 hours

  • 6 hours

  • 12 hours

Explanation

Question 33 of 51

1

Which opioid should not be administered concurrently with the use of transdermal fentanyl due to risk of partial blockage of opioid receptors and reduced analgesic effect?

Select one of the following:

  • Morphine

  • Buprenorphine

  • Hydromorphone

  • Oxymorphone

Explanation

Question 34 of 51

1

The NSAID that acts as a potent analgesic for both somatic and visceral pain is:

Select one of the following:

  • carprofen.

  • acetylsalicylic acid.

  • butorphanol.

  • tramadol.

Explanation

Question 35 of 51

1

Clinical effects of NSAIDs are due to their inhibition of what chemical synthesis within the body?

Select one of the following:

  • ACTH

  • Insulin

  • Prostaglandin

  • Acetaminophen

Explanation

Question 36 of 51

1

Which of the following systems is not responsible for the elimination and metabolism of NSAIDs?

Select one of the following:

  • Hepatic

  • Renal

  • Biliary

  • Lymph

Explanation

Question 37 of 51

1

Most NSAIDs prevent pain and inflammation by inactivating which enzyme?

Select one of the following:

  • EPO

  • ACE

  • COX

  • T4

Explanation

Question 38 of 51

1

All of the following aspects about the COX-2 isoenzyme are true except:

Select one of the following:

  • it is inducible.

  • it is found in the CNS, kidney, and eyes.

  • it is linked to analgesic effects.

  • it is present in most tissues.

Explanation

Question 39 of 51

1

The use of NSAIDs that results in renal toxicity is most likely due to the blockage of:

Select one of the following:

  • PGE-2

  • COX-1

  • COX-2

  • misoprostol

Explanation

Question 40 of 51

1

The use of NSAIDs is considered “high risk” in all of the following conditions except:

Select one of the following:

  • hypotension.

  • hyperthyroidism.

  • congestive heart failure.

  • hemostatic disorders.

Explanation

Question 41 of 51

1

Opioids are effective in the nociceptive pathway in all areas except:

Select one of the following:

  • perception.

  • modulation.

  • transmission.

  • transduction.

Explanation

Question 42 of 51

1

Local anesthetics are effective in the nociceptive pathway in all areas except:

Select one of the following:

  • perception

  • modulation

  • transmission

  • transduction

Explanation

Question 43 of 51

1

Corticosteroids are ineffective in the nociceptive pathway in all areas except:

Select one of the following:

  • transduction

  • transmission

  • modulation

  • perception

Explanation

Question 44 of 51

1

In order to properly administer tramadol it must be given:

Select one of the following:

  • SQ

  • PO

  • IV

  • IM

Explanation

Question 45 of 51

1

Absence of pain sensation is best known as:

Select one of the following:

  • allodynia.

  • distress.

  • analgesia.

  • stress

Explanation

Question 46 of 51

1

During nociception all of the following occurs except:

Select one of the following:

  • transduction

  • transmission

  • modulation

  • conjugation

Explanation

Question 47 of 51

1

The concurrent use of NSAIDs and corticosteroids is contraindicated due to which adverse side effect?

Select one of the following:

  • Gastric ulceration

  • Coagulopathy

  • Renal insufficiency

  • Hepatic insufficiency

Explanation

Question 48 of 51

1

Nonpharmacologic analgesic therapies that can be used to manage both acute and chronic pain include:

Select one of the following:

  • massage therapy.

  • topical anesthetics.

  • NSAIDs.

  • NMDA agonists.

Explanation

Question 49 of 51

1

Perception of pain takes place in the:

Select one of the following:

  • spinal cord.

  • cerebral cortex.

  • sensory nerves.

  • nociceptors.

Explanation

Question 50 of 51

1

Transmission of pain takes place in the:

Select one of the following:

  • spinal cord.

  • cerebral cortex.

  • sensory nerves.

  • nociceptors.

Explanation

Question 51 of 51

1

Modulation of pain takes place in the:

Select one of the following:

  • spinal cord.

  • cerebral cortex.

  • sensory nerves.

  • nociceptors.

Explanation