119) In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range corresponds with:
the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the drag curve.
the point of intersection of the parasite drag curve and the induced drag curve.
the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the parasite drag curve.
the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the induced drag curve.
145) If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?
It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance.
Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted.
The accelerate stop distance increases.
The accelerate stop distance decreases.
146) A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow. The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions. The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway:
reduced
substantially decreased
increased
unchanged
147) Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
VREF
VR
VMCA
V2
148) The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:
1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes.
1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or three-engine turboprop aeroplanes.
1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
149) A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.
The clearway does not equal the stopway.
The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
151) Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) .........
(i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
(i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
(i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
(i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
154) The speed V2 is
that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure.
the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.
the take-off safety speed.
142) The speed VS is defined as
speed for best specific range.
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable.
safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway.
design stress speed.
156) A higher outside air temperature
does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.
reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.
reduces the angle and the rate of climb.
increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.
157) During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly above the correct value of V1?
The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.
The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.
V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
It may lead to over-rotation.
158) What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.
Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant.
Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
160) The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the :
TAS decreases.
glide angle increases.
IAS increases.
aircraft mass decreases.
161) The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than:
1.2VMCG.
1.05VLOF.
1.3V1.
1.2Vs.
162) When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:
the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass.
the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point.
the "balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the "all engine take-off distance".
the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1.
163) A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
very significantly decreased
decreased
349) A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow change?
Decrease / decrease.
Increase / decrease.
Increase / increase.
Decrease / increase.
153) Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
Configuration and mass.
Configuration and angle of attack.
Mass and altitude.
Altitude and configuration.
132) Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM?
High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.
Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.
Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
122) The absolute ceiling
is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%
is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.
is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.
can be reached only with minimim steady flight speed
123) The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined aeroplane, in level flight, is reached:
at the service ceiling.
at the practical ceiling.
at the lowest possible altitude.
at the optimum cruise altitude.
