Jose Antonio Vazquez
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Tema 1 Performances Quiz on 4. Performance, created by Jose Antonio Vazquez on 06/11/2018.

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Jose Antonio Vazquez
Created by Jose Antonio Vazquez about 6 years ago
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4. Performance

Question 1 of 26

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124) In unaccelerated climb

Select one of the following:

  • thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.

  • thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.

  • lift is greater than the gross weight.

  • lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.

Explanation

Question 2 of 26

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125) The optimum cruise altitude increases

Select one of the following:

  • if the aeroplane mass is decreased.

  • if the temperature (OAT) is increased.

  • if the tailwind component is decreased.

  • if the aeroplane mass is increased.

Explanation

Question 3 of 26

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126) Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass.

  • The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°.

  • A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition.

  • Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass.

Explanation

Question 4 of 26

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127) A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?

Select one of the following:

  • Remain constant / decrease.

  • Remain constant / become larger.

  • Reduce / decrease.

  • Reduce / remain constant.

Explanation

Question 5 of 26

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128) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:

Select one of the following:

  • the runway is wet.

  • the OAT is ISA +10°C

  • anti skid is not usable.

  • it is dark.

Explanation

Question 6 of 26

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144) How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ?

Select one of the following:

  • Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.

  • Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.

  • Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.

  • Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.

Explanation

Question 7 of 26

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131) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the drag

Select one of the following:

  • remains unchanged but the TAS increases.

  • remains unchanged but the the CAS increases

  • increases at constant TAS.

  • decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density.

Explanation

Question 8 of 26

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120) The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:

Select one of the following:

  • engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs

  • climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude

  • weight during landing at the alternate

  • obstacle clearance during descent to the net level-off altitude

Explanation

Question 9 of 26

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133) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?

Select one of the following:

  • The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.

  • The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.

  • The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.

  • The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.

Explanation

Question 10 of 26

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134) What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?

Select one of the following:

  • It will increase the take-off distance.

  • It will decrease the take-off distance.

  • It will increase the take-off distance available.

  • It will increase the accelerate stop distance available.

Explanation

Question 11 of 26

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135) An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance:

Select one of the following:

  • increases.

  • remains the same.

  • may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane.

  • decreases.

Explanation

Question 12 of 26

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136) Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • The field length limited take-off mass will increase.

  • The usable length of the clearway is not limited.

  • V1 is increased.

  • V1 remains constant.

Explanation

Question 13 of 26

1

137) What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?

Select one of the following:

  • No affect

  • Tailwind only effects holding speed.

  • The IAS will be increased.

  • The IAS will be decreased.

Explanation

Question 14 of 26

1

138) Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)?

Select one of the following:

  • SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow

  • SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow

  • SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow

  • SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow

Explanation

Question 15 of 26

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139) Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected:
- runway limit: 5 270 kg
- obstacle limit: 4 630 kg
Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg. Considering a take-off with flaps at:

Select one of the following:

  • 20°, both limitations are increased

  • 5°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit
    decreases

  • 5°, both limitations are increased

  • 20°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases

Explanation

Question 16 of 26

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140) Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind)

Select one of the following:

  • Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.

  • Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds of the heavier aeroplane will be larger.

  • No difference.

  • Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always
    glide a greater distance.

Explanation

Question 17 of 26

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141) Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest specific range.

  • An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC normally does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude.

  • An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet can occur.

  • An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive from an economy point of view.

Explanation

Question 18 of 26

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130) A four jet-engined aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift- to-drag ratio is 14.
Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newtons. The gradient of climb is:
(given: g= 10 m/s2)

Select one of the following:

  • 1.286%.

  • 27%.

  • 7.86%.

  • 12.86%.

Explanation

Question 19 of 26

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18. How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude?

Select one of the following:

  • Both decrease.

  • Both increase.

  • Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.

  • Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.

Explanation

Question 20 of 26

1

28. The optimum altitude

Select one of the following:

  • is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained.

  • increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum.

  • decreases as mass decreases.

  • is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum.

Explanation

Question 21 of 26

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8) A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires

Select one of the following:

  • less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.

  • more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.

  • more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag.

  • a higher coefficient of lift.

Explanation

Question 22 of 26

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9) At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine

Select one of the following:

  • increase in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.

  • decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.

  • increase with increasing altitude.

  • are independent of outside air temperature (OAT).

Explanation

Question 23 of 26

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10) Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.

It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of

Select one of the following:

  • 85m

  • It will not clear the obstacle

  • 115 m

  • 100 m

Explanation

Question 24 of 26

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11) Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged)

Select one of the following:

  • increases the power required.

  • affects neither drag nor power required.

  • increases the induced drag.

  • decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.

Explanation

Question 25 of 26

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12) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the power required

Select one of the following:

  • remains unchanged but the TAS increases.

  • increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage.

  • increases but TAS remains constant.

  • decreases slightly because of the lower air density.

Explanation

Question 26 of 26

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13) During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are:
- 1747 m, all engines operating
- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged. Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?

Select one of the following:

  • 1950 m.

  • 2009 m.

  • 2243 m.

  • 2096 m.

Explanation