Arthur Casto
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Security Quiz on PSC 2, created by Arthur Casto on 12/11/2018.

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Arthur Casto
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PSC 2

Question 1 of 200

1

In a tactical environment, Physical Security Plans should be based on METT-TC, which stands for mission, _______________, terrain and weather, troops, time available, and civilian considerations.

Select one of the following:

  • Exercises

  • Equipment

  • Enemy

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

Providing information on the capabilities and intentions of our adversaries is the responsibility of the ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • Physical Security Officer

  • Commander or Director

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • Operational Security Officer

  • Counterintelligence Agent

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs) are graduated categories of measures or actions commanders take to protect personnel and assets from attack.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

________________ establish duties, roles and responsibilities at individual assignments, checkpoints, gates and guard posts.

Select one of the following:

  • Physical Security Plans (PSP)

  • Memorandums of Understanding (MOU)

  • Post Orders

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

_________________, the inspector should review any local security directives, the Physical Security Plan, its Standard Operating Procedures, and any previous inspection reports, exceptions, and waivers.

Select one of the following:

  • When preparing the inspection report

  • During the inspection

  • In preparation for an inspection

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

A ______________ defines emergency delegations of authority and orders of succession to ensure DoD Component Mission Essential Functions (MEFs) continue under all circumstances.

Select one of the following:

  • Physical Security Plan (PSP)

  • Continuity of Operations Plan (COOP)

  • Memorandum of Agreement (MOA)

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

Threat levels assist senior leaders to determine the appropriate ________ level.

Select one of the following:

  • Classification designation

  • FPCON

  • SOP

  • GSA security specification

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

Two antiterrorism tools the DoD uses to safeguard DoD assets are __________________ and _______________.

Select one of the following:

  • Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs) and Terrorist Threat Levels

  • Threat Working Group and Post Orders

  • Countermeasures and Standard Operating Procedures

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

__________________ issue Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs).

Select one of the following:

  • COCOMs and Installation Commanders/Facility Directors

  • The DHS and COCOMs

  • The DIA and COCOMs

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

It’s better for an inspector not to announce the inspection in order to create a surprise effect and see how everything really operates.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

Which system detects a change in the environment and transmits an alarm?

Select one of the following:

  • CCTV

  • Access Controls Systems

  • IDS

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

___________________ are often overlooked in physical security planning and implementation.

Select one of the following:

  • Lights

  • Barriers

  • Man-passable openings

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

Lighting deters unauthorized entry by providing a psychological deterrence to intruders.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

______________________ are formal agreements that provide security assistance between DoD activities and from local law enforcement agencies as well as mutual aid from local fire and medical services.

Select one of the following:

  • Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

  • Physical Security Plans (PSP)

  • Memorandums of Understanding and Agreement (MOU/MOA)

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

When assessing an asset, you must determine the nature and the value of that asset and the degree of impact if the asset is damaged or lost.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

FPCON _________ applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific target is imminent.

Select one of the following:

  • Normal

  • Alpha

  • Bravo

  • Charlie

  • Delta

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

There is a one for one correlation between Terrorist Threat Levels and force Protection Conditions.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

The _____________________ develops and refines terrorism threat assessments and coordinates and disseminates threat warnings, reports, and summaries.

Select one of the following:

  • Defense Critical Infrastructure Protection (DCIP) Working Group

  • Antiterrorism Working Group (ATWG)

  • Threat Working Group (TWG)

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

Examples of oversight tools include day-to-day observations, surveys, staff assist visits, ______________, and the operational environment.

Select one of the following:

  • Policy manuals

  • Inspections

  • Executive Orders

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

_____________________ are based on information about terrorist groups such as their operational capability, intentions, activity, and the operational environment.

Select one of the following:

  • Continuity of Operations Plans (COOPs)

  • Counterterrorism measures

  • DoD Terrorist Threat Levels

  • Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs)

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

Although the DoD issues DoD-wide guidance for physical security planning and implementation, you should always consult ______________ for specific guidance.

Select one of the following:

  • Your component’s policies

  • Congressional legislation

  • Executive Orders

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

As a physical security specialist, you may assume different physical security roles or serve on different working groups, such as the ATWG, TWG, and DCIP.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

_______________ can result from day-to-day observations or more formal oversight.

Select one of the following:

  • Inspection reports

  • Incident reports

  • Surveys

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

Antiterrorism physical security measures incorporate detection, deterrence, denial and ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • Documentation

  • Evaluation

  • Determination

  • Notification

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

Which of the following statements are true of physical security planning and implementation? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • The risk management process must be used to plan which physical security measures should be utilized to protect DoD assets.

  • Protection of DoD assets must be performed at any cost; therefore, a cost vs. benefit analysis is not necessary.

  • Use of oversight tools is an important part of physical security implementation.

  • Facility design must be considered in physical security planning.

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

Which of the following would best be described as a DoD asset?

Select one of the following:

  • Terrorist

  • Fence

  • Open, unattended installation gate

  • Arms and ammunition

  • Loss of life

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

Which of the following would best be described as a threat?

Select one of the following:

  • Terrorist

  • Fence

  • Open, unattended installation gate

  • Arms and ammunition

  • Loss of life

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

Which of the following would best be described as a vulnerability?

Select one of the following:

  • Terrorist

  • Fence

  • Open, unattended installation gate

  • Arms and ammunition

  • Loss of life

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

Which of the following would best be described as a risk?

Select one of the following:

  • Terrorist

  • Fence

  • Open, unattended installation gate

  • Arms and ammunition

  • Loss of life

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

Which of the following would best be described as a countermeasure?

Select one of the following:

  • Terrorist

  • Fence

  • Open, unattended installation gate

  • Arms and ammunition

  • Loss of life

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

The ________ is responsible for the installation’s antiterrorism program.

Select one of the following:

  • Law Enforcement

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • OPSEC Officer

  • CI Support

  • Physical Security Officer

  • DCIP Officer

  • Installation Commander/Facility Director

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

________ is responsible for providing valuable information on the capabilities, intentions, and threats of adversaries.

Select one of the following:

  • Law Enforcement

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • OPSEC Officer

  • CI Support

  • Physical Security Officer

  • DCIP Officer

  • Installation Commander/Facility Director

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

The ________ analyzes threats to assets and their vulnerabilities.

Select one of the following:

  • Law Enforcement

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • OPSEC Officer

  • CI Support

  • Physical Security Officer

  • DCIP Officer

  • Installation Commander/Facility Director

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

________ must be included in the intelligence gathering process so that they can be part of coordinating emergency responses and criminal incidents on a Federal installation.

Select one of the following:

  • Law Enforcement

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • OPSEC Officer

  • CI Support

  • Physical Security Officer

  • DCIP Officer

  • Installation Commander/Facility Director

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

The ________ is charged with the management, implementation, and direction of all physical security programs.

Select one of the following:

  • Law Enforcement

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • OPSEC Officer

  • CI Support

  • Physical Security Officer

  • DCIP Officer

  • Installation Commander/Facility Director

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

The ________ is responsible for mitigating risks against Defense Critical Infrastructure assets that support the mission of an installation or facility.

Select one of the following:

  • Law Enforcement

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • OPSEC Officer

  • CI Support

  • Physical Security Officer

  • DCIP Officer

  • Installation Commander/Facility Director

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

Flashlights are a reliable form of continuous lighting.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

Emergency lighting depends upon the power supply of the utility company.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

Standby lighting is the type of lighting used when the primary power source fails.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

Certain types of lighting can incapacitate an intruder.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

Controlled lighting is used to illuminate the perimeter of a facility.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

_________ is often used as a temporary barrier when rolled out on the ground.

Select one of the following:

  • Barbed wire

  • Concertina wire

  • Chain-link fencing

  • Metal ornamental high-security fencing

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

_________ can be used as permanent standalone fencing but is more often used as an outrigger on the top of the chain link fencing.

Select one of the following:

  • Barbed wire

  • Concertina wire

  • Chain-link fencing

  • Metal ornamental high-security fencing

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

_________ is more difficult for intruders to scale.

Select one of the following:

  • Barbed wire

  • Concertina wire

  • Chain-link fencing

  • Metal ornamental high-security fencing

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

_________ is a common type of perimeter fencing for DoD facilities.

Select one of the following:

  • Barbed wire

  • Concertina wire

  • Chain-link fencing

  • Metal ornamental high-security fencing

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

Securing man-passable openings is one of the most overlooked physical security protective measures.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) prevent unauthorized entry.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

Cost and risk must always be considered when planning which physical security measures to use in a facility or installation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

Access control systems help to prevent unauthorized entry.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

CCTV can deter loss, theft, or misuse of government property and resources.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

Operational/administrative procedures for normal and emergency situations

Select one of the following:

  • COOP

  • MOU/MOA

  • Post Orders

  • SOP

  • PSP

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

Comprehensive protective measures for an installation, facility, or activity

Select one of the following:

  • COOP

  • MOU/MOA

  • Post Orders

  • SOP

  • PSP

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

Roles and responsibilities for individual work areas such as checkpoints and guard gates

Select one of the following:

  • COOP

  • MOU/MOA

  • Post Orders

  • SOP

  • PSP

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

Provisions for back-up facilities, utilities, communication and computer systems, and transportation in the event of a major emergency

Select one of the following:

  • COOP

  • MOU/MOA

  • Post Orders

  • SOP

  • PSP

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

Provisions for one entity, such as a DoD activity or local law enforcement, fire, and medical services, to provide security assistance to another entity

Select one of the following:

  • COOP

  • MOU/MOA

  • Post Orders

  • SOP

  • PSP

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

Combatant Commanders issue both DoD Terrorist Threat Levels and FPCONs.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

Both the DIA and COCOMs issue FPCONs.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

Installation commanders and facility directors issue DoD Terrorist Threat Levels.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

Terrorist Threat Levels are based on information about terrorist groups such as their operational capability and their intentions.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

FPCONs are based on various factors, such as terrorist threat analyses and DoD Terrorist Threat Levels.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

System that standardizes the identification and recommended preventive actions and responses to terrorist threats against U.S. assets

Select one of the following:

  • Terrorist Threat Levels

  • Force Protection

  • DoD AT Program

  • Force Protection Conditions

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

The prevention and detection of terrorist attacks against DoD assets as well as the preparation to defend against and planning for the response to the consequences of terrorist incidents

Select one of the following:

  • Terrorist Threat Levels

  • Force Protection

  • DoD AT Program

  • Force Protection Conditions

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

Intelligence threat assessments of the level of terrorist threat faced by U.S. personnel and interests

Select one of the following:

  • Terrorist Threat Levels

  • Force Protection

  • DoD AT Program

  • Force Protection Conditions

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

Actions taken to prevent or mitigate hostile actions against DoD assets such as DoD personnel, family members, resources, facilities, and critical information

Select one of the following:

  • Terrorist Threat Levels

  • Force Protection

  • DoD AT Program

  • Force Protection Conditions

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

Internal reviews conducted by members of the organization to aid internal control and ensure cost-effective security program

Select one of the following:

  • Surveys

  • Staff assist visits

  • Compliance inspections

  • Day-to-day observations

  • Management/self-inspections

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

Formal reviews conducted by senior officials in the chain-of-command

Select one of the following:

  • Surveys

  • Staff assist visits

  • Compliance inspections

  • Day-to-day observations

  • Management/self-inspections

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

Validate baseline security posture when personnel assume security responsibilities or as a prelude to a formal inspection

Select one of the following:

  • Surveys

  • Staff assist visits

  • Compliance inspections

  • Day-to-day observations

  • Management/self-inspections

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

Can be self-initiated or directed by higher authorities to determine the physical security posture of an installation or facility

Select one of the following:

  • Surveys

  • Staff assist visits

  • Compliance inspections

  • Day-to-day observations

  • Management/self-inspections

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

Most common and informal oversight tool; immediate action taken to correct deficiencies

Select one of the following:

  • Surveys

  • Staff assist visits

  • Compliance inspections

  • Day-to-day observations

  • Management/self-inspections

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

You must use the ________________ process to acquire and analyze the information necessary for protecting assets and allocating security resources against the threats

Select one of the following:

  • physical security implementation

  • oversight and inspection

  • risk management

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

The first line of defense in any facility is usually some form of perimeter protection.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

The purpose of oversight of physical security programs is to ensure the security program complies with DoD and other policies, is cost-effective, and protects DoD assets.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

Authorized personnel may augment their FPCON by adding measures from higher FPCON standards as they deem necessary.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

A __________ threat level signifies anti-U.S. terrorists are operationally active and the operating environment favors the terrorists.

Select one of the following:

  • High

  • Significant

  • Low

  • Moderate

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

During an inspection, the inspector should use a checklist, talk with people, examine and test products, advise personnel about policy and changes to policy, and __________________________________.

Select one of the following:

  • send violators to the senior manager’s office for reprimand

  • issue security violation citations on the spot

  • take good notes

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

The use of glare lighting can incapacitate intruders.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

Physical security planning includes facility design, creation of written plans such as a Physical Security Plan (PSP), and antiterrorism planning.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

Barriers are generally used to deter and delay unauthorized entry, define boundaries, and _______________.

Select one of the following:

  • Channel vehicular and pedestrian traffic

  • Detect intruders

  • Incapacitate intruders

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

____________________________________ develop and maintain physical security plans.

Select one of the following:

  • Physical Security Officers

  • Defense Critical Infrastructure Protection (DCIP) Program Officers

  • Operations Security (OPSEC) Officers

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

Low threat levels designate that a terrorist group is in the vicinity and is _________.

Select one of the following:

  • Threatening

  • Non-threatening

  • Active

  • Targeted

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

__________________________ are NORMAL, ALPHA, BRAVO, CHARLIE, and DELTA.

Select one of the following:

  • Force Protection Conditions

  • DoD Terrorist Threat Levels

  • Counterterrorism measures

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

A Bomb Threat Plan, a Natural Disaster Plan, and a Communications Plan are all examples of ____________________ that must be included with a Physical Security Plan.

Select one of the following:

  • Memorandums of Understanding (MOU)

  • annexes

  • Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

____________________________________ provide information on the capabilities, intentions, and threats of adversaries.

Select one of the following:

  • Physical Security Officers

  • Counterintelligence (CI) support personnel

  • Antiterrorism Officers (ATO)

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

Which of the following physical security coordinating activities is made up of multiple individuals such as the Antiterrorism Officer, a Counterintelligence representative, Operations Security officer, and Law Enforcement representative?

Select one of the following:

  • Threat Working Group

  • Antiterrorism Executive Committee

  • Antiterrorism Working Group

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

FPCON ________ applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against U.S. personnel of DoD assets is likely.

Select one of the following:

  • Bravo

  • Normal

  • Alpha

  • Charlie

  • Delta

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

SCIFs, AA&E storage facilities, and nuclear storage facilities are examples of restricted areas.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

While both Class V and Class VI GSA-approved containers offer protection against covert and surreptitious entry, only Class V containers offer protection against forced entry.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

What is the purpose of the warning label on GSA-approved containers manufactured beginning April 2007?

Select one of the following:

  • Warns against storing classified information with sensitive materials such as money and weapons

  • Warns against storing unclassified information in the container

  • Warns against unapproved modification of the container

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

In AA&E storage facilities, why must drainage structures be secured if they cross the fence line and meet certain size requirements?

Select one of the following:

  • To prevent rats from infesting the facility

  • To prevent anyone from crawling into the area

  • To prevent water from backing up into the facility

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

Unauthorized entrance into restricted areas is subject to prosecution.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

Which is NOT approved for the open storage of classified information?

Select one of the following:

  • Storage closet

  • Secure room

  • Vault

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

Which DoD-mandated practice reduces protection, storage, and inventory costs?

Select one of the following:

  • Consolidate AA&E storage facilities

  • Categorize and store AA&E by security risk categories

  • Demilitarize/dispose of obsolete and unserviceable AA&E

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

Which of the following statements is true about locks and keys for security containers?

Select one of the following:

  • Keys may be stored in your desk drawer as long as it locks.

  • Key-operated locks may not be used on storage containers securing classified material.

  • Locks and keys should be afforded the same level of protection as the material or information being secured.

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

Certain non-GSA-approved security containers are never approved for storage of classified information in the DoD.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

The design goal for an AA&E storage facility is that is must meet or exceed 10 minutes of resistance to _________________ entry.

Select one of the following:

  • covert

  • surreptitious

  • forced

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

Why should you categorize, store, and protect AA&E by security risk categories?

Select one of the following:

  • To reduce overall protection costs

  • To save space

  • To identify obsolete AA&E

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

Storage containers and facilities protect valuable, sensitive, and classified information by ________________.

Select one of the following:

  • consolidating no longer needed classified information

  • delaying unauthorized entry

  • preventing all unauthorized entry

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

If you need to know the manufacture date of a GSA-approved container, on which label would you find that information?

Select one of the following:

  • Number label

  • GSA-approved label

  • Warning label

  • Test certification label

  • Container identification label

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

Which of these statements is true about storage of Confidential information?

Select one of the following:

  • Supplemental protection is not normally required when storing Confidential information in an approved storage container.

  • Supplemental protection is always required when storing Confidential information regardless of which storage container is used.

  • Supplemental protection is usually required when storing Confidential information in a secure room.

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

Storage containers and facilities are not only important to our national security, but also to the safety of the general public.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

For AA&E SRC III & IV, if no IDS is present Security Force checks during non-duty hours is required.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

Storage containers or facilities will always provide enough protection for certain types of information or material on their own.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

To store classified information, you may only use Class V or Class VI GSA-approved containers as the other classes of containers may no longer be used.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

What is considered an additional measure for AA&E storage?

Select one of the following:

  • IDS

  • Communications

  • CCTV

  • Security Forces

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

There are certain times when you must change the combination on locks securing classified information. Which of the following is not a time when you must change the combination?

Select one of the following:

  • When the container is taken out of service

  • When the container or lock has been subject to possible compromise

  • When anyone with knowledge of the combination no longer requires access

  • Prior to going on extended leave

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

Which group uses the same set of storage requirements based on security risk categories?

Select one of the following:

  • Arms and ammunition

  • Arms and explosives

  • Ammunition and explosives

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

What items can a Nuclear Storage Facility store?

Select one of the following:

  • Critical Nuclear Weapons

  • SAP documents

  • AA&E SRC I&II

  • SCIF information

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

Which of the following items may be stored with classified information?

Select one of the following:

  • Nothing

  • Weapons

  • Precious metals

  • Money

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

Perimeter lighting in AA&E storage facilities is _________________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Determined by DoD Components

  • A good best practice

  • Required

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

Which of these statements is true about storage of Secret information?

Select one of the following:

  • Supplemental protection is not required when storing Secret information in a vault.

  • Supplemental protection is always required when storing Secret information.

  • Supplemental protection is never required when storing Secret information in a secure room.

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

What do the classes of GSA-approved containers represent?

Select one of the following:

  • Which ones are approved for the storage of classified information

  • The types of sensitive material for which each container is approved

  • Varying degrees of protection against different types of unauthorized entry

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

Who uses SCIFs?

Select one of the following:

  • The intelligence community

  • Only those who have a Top Secret clearance

  • Anyone who stores classified information

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

If you needed to find information on physical security standards for SCIFs, which reference would you consult?

Select one of the following:

  • ICD 705

  • The NISPOM

  • DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

For storage of classified you may use which GSA-approved containers?

Select one of the following:

  • Only containers with black labels

  • Containers with any GSA-approved label

  • Only containers with red labels

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

Which of the following statements are true of storage containers and facilities? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Storage containers and facilities protect valuable and/or sensitive assets by delaying unauthorized entry.

  • They are categorized by how well they delay different types of unauthorized entry.

  • They are important to our national security and to the safety of the general public.

  • They are required only for the storage of classified information.

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

Which of the following would be factors you would need to consider when selecting storage containers and facilities? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Whether the TOP SECRET material being stored is a set of documents or a weapon system

  • If the material is being stored in a war zone or not

  • Whether a document is CONFIDENTIAL or TOP SECRET

  • Whether the items being stored are conventional AA&E or nuclear weapons

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

In the DoD, classified information may be stored in a non-GSA approved container.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

COMSEC material is stored in GSA-approved containers.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

Class V and Class VI are the only models of GSA-approved storage containers that are currently being manufactured for the storage of classified information.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

Class V and Class VI models of GSA-approved storage containers both provide protection against surreptitious, covert, and forced entry.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

Which of the following labels must be clearly displayed on the face of the container in order for it to be used to store classified information?

Select one of the following:

  • Test certification label

  • Number label

  • Cabinet identification label

  • GSA-approved label

  • Warning label

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

Which of the following labels is displayed on the face of the container and contains the serial number of the container?

Select one of the following:

  • Test certification label

  • Number label

  • Cabinet identification label

  • GSA-approved label

  • Warning label

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

For containers manufactured beginning April 2007, which label is attached to the top inside of the control drawer and states that any modification of the container that is not in accordance with Federal Standard 809 will invalidate the GSA approval of the container?

Select one of the following:

  • Test certification label

  • Number label

  • Cabinet identification label

  • GSA-approved label

  • Warning label

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

Top Secret information can only be stored in a GSA-approved security container, secure room, or vault.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

Vaults are more secure than secure rooms.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

Vault doors are made of hardened steel and must retain their original gray color.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

Vaults are more secure than modular vaults.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

Secure rooms and vaults may both be authorized for the open storage of classified information.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

Which of the following are required practices when using storage containers? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Safeguard keys, locks, and combinations at the same level of the classified information being stored.

  • Change combinations when anyone with knowledge of the combination no longer requires access and when the container or lock has been subject to possible compromise.

  • Store classified information with sensitive items or weapons.

  • Keep records of security containers, vaults, and secure rooms used for the storage

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

Who provides construction and security requirements for SCIFs?

Select one of the following:

  • Director of National Intelligence (DNI)

  • Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)

  • Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

  • General Services Administration (GSA)

  • Department of Defense (DoD)

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

Who provides accreditation for SCIFs?

Select one of the following:

  • Director of National Intelligence (DNI)

  • Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)

  • Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

  • General Services Administration (GSA)

  • Department of Defense (DoD)

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

Which of the following statements are true of SCIFs? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • They are used by the intelligence community to store classified information.

  • They are used by the DoD to store AA&E.

  • They are used to store sensitive compartmented information.

  • They are used to store nuclear weapons.

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

Warning signs must be posted at each boundary of a restricted area and must be conspicuous to those approaching on foot or by vehicle.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

The use of master key systems is acceptable in the storage of AA&E.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

The use of deadly force is authorized against anyone who enters a nuclear storage facility without proper authorization.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

Securing drainage structures must be considered if they cross the fence line of an AA&E storage area.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

Securing drainage structures must be considered if they cross the fence line of an AA&E storage area.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

Emergency lighting and security lighting for the entire perimeter of nuclear weapon storage facilities are ____________________.

Select one of the following:

  • determined by DoD Components

  • required

  • utilized when necessary

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

Fences are always required for storage of _____________________ .

Select one of the following:

  • SRC I and II ammunition and explosives

  • Storage of arms, ammunition, and explosives

  • All SRC of ammunition and explosives

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

If you arrived at work one day and noticed that someone had pried open the drawer of the locked filing cabinet in your office, you would know that ___________ entry had occurred.

Select one of the following:

  • forced

  • surreptitious

  • covert

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

You don’t have to procure new security storage equipment from the GSA Federal Supply Schedule. You can get an exception from USD (P).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

One general principle is the more sensitive the material to be stored, or the greater the threat to it, the stricter your storage and protection methods must be.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

AA&E storage facilities must have a primary and back-up means of communications for emergency purposes.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

You can find construction standards for secure rooms at cleared contractor facilities by reviewing ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • ICS 705

  • the NISPOM

  • DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4, Information Security Program

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

Restricted area signs posted around the perimeter of nuclear weapon storage facilities states that if anyone attempts to enter the area without permission of the Installation Commander _____________________.

Select one of the following:

  • they can be subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice

  • use of deadly force is authorized

  • they can be subject to radiation

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

GSA-approved containers require recertification if the GSA-approved label is missing.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

GSA-approved containers require recertification if the GSA-approved label is missing.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

For storage of SRC I and II AA&E, exterior building lighting is _________________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Determined by DoD Components

  • Required

  • A good best practice

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

When two or more units store their AA&E in one facility, both units are responsible for the security of that facility.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

When purchasing new security storage equipment, you must use the GSA Federal Supply Schedule, except when an exception is made by the DoD component head with notification to the USD(I).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

If the GSA-approved label comes off the front of your filing cabinet, you can still use it to store classified information as long as you have the label reattached in a timely manner.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

Vaults ____________________modular vaults.

Select one of the following:

  • are more secure than

  • provide the same level of security as

  • are less secure than

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

An ESS is a component of an overall physical protection system.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

An ESS must be comprised of at least two or more subsystems. Therefore, a stand-alone automated access control system, for example, would not constitute an ESS.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

An effective ESS must ensure that the time between detection of an intrusion and response by security forces is less than the time it takes for damage or compromise of assets to occur.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

You are tasked with planning an ESS for a DoD facility. What regulatory guidance document(s) should be your primary reference?

Select one of the following:

  • DoDM 5100.76, Physical Security of Sensitive Conventional Arms, Ammunition, and Explosives

  • UFC, 4-021-02, Electronic Security Systems

  • ICS 705-1, Physical and Technical Security Standards for Sensitive Compartmented Information Facilities

  • DoD Manual on ESS Planning

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

Assets, threats, and vulnerabilities are all part of the risk calculation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

Threats against an asset are determined when you conduct a site survey.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

You must consider operational and maintenance costs of an ESS when comparing the value of an asset to be protected versus the cost of the ESS to protect an asset.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

What can an AACS do to protect assets in a facility?
Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Allow authorized personnel to enter a controlled area after verifying credentials

  • Assist in preventing unauthorized personnel from entering a controlled area

  • Communicate with CCTV for assessment purposes

  • Communicate with an IDS to sound an alarm to alert security personnel of unauthorized entry attempts

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

A high-security facility requires an AACS that makes it extremely difficult to duplicate the user’s form of verification for access. Which type of AACS is most appropriate for that facility?

Select one of the following:

  • Coded

  • Credential

  • Biometric

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

You have been directed to purchase the least expensive type of AACS for a given facility. Which type of AACS should you choose?

Select one of the following:

  • Coded

  • Credential

  • Biometric

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

Which type of AACS would allow you to use your CAC as the verification method for authorized entry into a controlled area?

Select one of the following:

  • Coded

  • Credential

  • Biometric

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

Which AACS feature would you implement to mitigate the risk of someone giving his or her credentials to another person to access a controlled area?

Select one of the following:

  • Two person rule

  • Antipassback

  • REX device

  • Antitailgating

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

Which AACS feature would you implement to prevent individual cardholders from entering a selected empty controlled area unaccompanied?

Select one of the following:

  • Two person rule

  • Antipassback

  • REX device

  • Antitailgating

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

Which AACS feature would you implement to prevent a person from following another person closely in order to gain ingress through the same portal when the authorized person’s credential grants access?

Select one of the following:

  • Two person rule

  • Antipassback

  • REX device

  • Antitailgating

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

Which AACS feature would you implement to facilitate egress from a controlled area?

Select one of the following:

  • Two person rule

  • Antipassback

  • REX device

  • Antitailgating

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

Which of the following should you conduct to test the placement of IDS sensors?

Select one of the following:

  • Acceptance test

  • Nuisance alarm

  • PCU test

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

Which of the following can be caused by an animal activating an IDS sensor?

Select one of the following:

  • Acceptance test

  • Nuisance alarm

  • PCU test

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

Which of the following is part of an acceptance test?

Select one of the following:

  • Acceptance test

  • Nuisance alarm

  • PCU test

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

Which type of exterior IDS sensor is good for detecting intrusion by digging and tunneling?

Select one of the following:

  • Open terrain sensor

  • Buried line sensor

  • Fence-associated sensor

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

Which exterior IDS sensor is NOT vulnerable to bridging?

Select one of the following:

  • Open terrain sensor

  • Buried line sensor

  • Fence-associated sensor

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

Which exterior IDS sensor is usually the least expensive?

Select one of the following:

  • Open terrain sensor

  • Buried line sensor

  • Fence-associated sensor

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

Which exterior IDS sensor is also known as a line-of-sight sensor?

Select one of the following:

  • Open terrain sensor

  • Buried line sensor

  • Fence-associated sensor

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

Which type of sensor would be most effective in protecting a permanently secured window?

Select one of the following:

  • Balanced magnetic switch (BMS) / High security switch (HSS)

  • Glass break sensor

  • Passive infrared sensor

  • Dual-technology sensor

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

Which sensor detects heat signatures of intruders and is the most common interior volumetric sensor?

Select one of the following:

  • Balanced magnetic switch (BMS) / High security switch (HSS)

  • Glass break sensor

  • Passive infrared sensor

  • Dual-technology sensor

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

Which sensor is used on doors, roof hatches, and windows?

Select one of the following:

  • Balanced magnetic switch (BMS) / High security switch (HSS)

  • Glass break sensor

  • Passive infrared sensor

  • Dual-technology sensor

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

What capability does monitoring a military exchange demonstrate?

Select one of the following:

  • Access Control

  • Alarm Assessment

  • Surveillance

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

What capability does viewing a CCTV monitor to determine security force response to an alarm demonstrate?

Select one of the following:

  • Access Control

  • Alarm Assessment

  • Surveillance

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

What capability does viewing individuals on a CCTV camera to grant or deny access to a facility demonstrate?

Select one of the following:

  • Access Control

  • Alarm Assessment

  • Surveillance

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

You have received a request to add a CCTV system to a building on your installation.
Which questions should you ask?
Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Will the CCTV system be used inside or outside?

  • Will the CCTV system be used in a very well-lit area, in low lighting, or in the dark?

  • Are there any visual obstacles that might block the system from capturing clear images?

  • Will the system require a person to man the monitor at all times?

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

A wireless network is more secure than a hardwired network.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

A wireless network is more secure than a hardwired network.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

A DTM allows an automated access control system to communicate with a control center.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

Wireline DTM, which is good for most ESS data transmission needs, has a high bandwidth.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

Which of the following are considerations when planning for a DTM link?
Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • What is the bandwidth of each ESS subsystem being connected?

  • What level of security will be required?

  • Is there an uninterruptible power supply?

  • Can you use existing networks or will you need to create a new pathway?

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

Police connection and central station monitoring generally require an increase in staffing at the facility being monitored.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

Proprietary station monitoring is the method used most by DoD installations.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

Police connection and central station monitoring are generally connected to the facility being monitored through leased telephone lines.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

Local alarm monitoring works best without another type of monitoring used in conjunction with it.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

A facility owns and operates the dispatch center and security forces.

Select one of the following:

  • Proprietary Station

  • Local Alarm

  • Central Station

  • Police Connection

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

The local police agency monitors a facility’s alarms.

Select one of the following:

  • Proprietary Station

  • Local Alarm

  • Central Station

  • Police Connection

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

Owned by a commercial firm and not usually located on the facility being monitored.

Select one of the following:

  • Proprietary Station

  • Local Alarm

  • Central Station

  • Police Connection

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

Requires roving security forces.

Select one of the following:

  • Proprietary Station

  • Local Alarm

  • Central Station

  • Police Connection

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

Which of the following require(s) a mechanical/automated access control system or visual recognition as the access control method? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • SCIF

  • Top Secret/Secret collateral open storage area

  • Arms room

  • Magazine

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

Which of the following may contain a CCTV within the protected area? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • SCIF

  • Top Secret/Secret collateral open storage area

  • Arms room

  • Magazine

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

Which of the following must have vibration sensors on its walls to detect boundary penetration attempts? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • SCIF

  • Top Secret/Secret collateral open storage area

  • Arms room

  • Magazine

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

Which of the following require(s) any system-associated cabling that extends beyond protected area perimeter to be installed in rigid conduit? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • SCIF

  • Top Secret/Secret collateral open storage area

  • Arms room

  • Magazine

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

Which method of ESS monitoring is used for remote facilities and high-value assets not located on a DoD facility or installation?

Select one of the following:

  • Proprietary station

  • Central station

  • Police connection

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

If an individual must enter their fingerprint to gain access to a controlled area, what type of device are they using?

Select one of the following:

  • Coded device

  • Biometric device

  • Credential device

Explanation