Bailey Sanderson
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Genetic Counseling Quiz on Week 9- Skeletal & Muscular Systems, created by Bailey Sanderson on 03/12/2018.

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Bailey Sanderson
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Week 9- Skeletal & Muscular Systems

Question 1 of 36

1

All of the following are true about somites except:

Select one of the following:

  • They begin to develop in the 6th week

  • They form the craniocaudal sequence for the embryo and are the origin of most of the axial skeleton and associated musculature

  • They develop from the paraxial mesoderm as the neural tube is forming

  • They differentiate into 2 parts, the sclerotome and dermomyotome

  • They appear as bead-like elevations along the dorsolateral surface of the embryo

Explanation

Question 2 of 36

1

Which of the following structures will eventually form vertebrae and ribs?

Select one of the following:

  • Notochord

  • Sclerotome

  • Dermomyotome

  • Meningotome

Explanation

Question 3 of 36

1

Which answer best describes the kind of bones developed through intramembranous ossification?

Select one of the following:

  • Femurs and Humerus

  • Rubs and Sternum

  • Flat bones of the Calvaria/Skullcap, Maxilla, Mandible

  • Malleus, Incus, Stapes, Hyoid

Explanation

Question 4 of 36

1

All of the following are considered to be lethal birth defects except:

Select one of the following:

  • Anecephaly

  • Bilateral renal agensis

  • Pierre Robin sequence

  • Thanatophoric dysplasia

Explanation

Question 5 of 36

1

All of the following are true regarding Rickets except:

Select one of the following:

  • It ca be due to vitamin D deficiency and hypophosphatemia

  • Affected individuals have short stature

  • Affected individuals have abnormal appearing bones/limbs aside from just short stature

  • Affected individuals rarely have other clinical manifestations

  • There are both recessive and X-linked forms

Explanation

Question 6 of 36

1

Which of the following ultrasound findings is not associated with renal agenesis?

Select one of the following:

  • Contractures

  • Brachycephaly

  • Anyhdramnios/Oligohydramnios

  • Absent blood flow to renal arteries

Explanation

Question 7 of 36

1

Which type of joint is capable of secreting protective fluid to cushion the surrounding bones?

Select one of the following:

  • Fibrous joint

  • Cartilaginous joint

  • Synovial joint

Explanation

Question 8 of 36

1

All of the following are part of the axial skeleton except:

Select one of the following:

  • Cranium

  • Vertebral column

  • Ribs

  • Clavicles

  • Sternum

Explanation

Question 9 of 36

1

In the 5th week the sclerotomes in the vertebral column have loosely arranged cells cranially and densely packed cells caudally. By the ___ week the vertebra are in the cartilaginous stage, arranging bone models and by the ___ week ossification beings. By ___ the bony halves are fused.

Select one of the following:

  • 6th, 7th, 3-5 years of life

  • 6th, 10th, the end of the 1st year of life

  • 8th, 12th, birth

  • 8th, 9th, 3-5 years of life

Explanation

Question 10 of 36

1

All of the following birth defects can be features of Down syndrome except:

Select one of the following:

  • Congenital heart defects

  • Pyelectasis

  • Macroglossia

  • Splayed cerebellum/banana sign

  • Congenital megacolon/Hirschsprung's

Explanation

Question 11 of 36

1

Which structure(s) describe where the cranial sutures meet and enable the bones of the skull to undergo shape changes during birth?

Select one of the following:

  • Fontanelles

  • Calvaria

  • Fibrous neurocranium

  • Hyaline cartilage

Explanation

Question 12 of 36

1

The increase in the size of the skull bones is greatest during which period?

Select one of the following:

  • Embryonic period

  • Fetal period

  • Birth-2 years

  • 3 to 5 years

Explanation

Question 13 of 36

1

All of the following statements are true regarding sex determination except:

Select one of the following:

  • The female phenotype requires 2 X chromosomes

  • The male phenotype requires a functional Y chromosome

  • Ovarian and testicular development being around the same embryonic age

  • Hormones are required for male sex determination but not for female sex determination

Explanation

Question 14 of 36

1

Which of the following causes a long, wedge shaped cranium caused by early closer of the sagittal suture and is the most common type of idiopathic/isolated craniosynostosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Scaphocephaly

  • Brachycephaly

  • Plagiocephaly

  • Trignocephaly

Explanation

Question 15 of 36

1

The most common type of skeletal dysplasia is:

Select one of the following:

  • Camptomelic dysplasia

  • Chondrodypslasia punctata

  • Achondroplasia

  • Osteogenesis imperfecta

Explanation

Question 16 of 36

1

The myotome regions of the somites form _______ and the splanchnic mesoderm forms ______.

Select one of the following:

  • Limb muscles; head and neck muscles

  • Skeletal muscles; cardiac and smooth muscles

  • Head and neck muscles; skeletal muscles

  • Cardiac and smooth muscles; limb muscles

Explanation

Question 17 of 36

1

Which of the following is a risk factor for having a child with a skeletal dysplasia?

Select one of the following:

  • Advanced maternal age

  • Advanced paternal age

  • Maternal age <25 years old

  • Uncontrolled type 2 diabetes

Explanation

Question 18 of 36

1

The appearance and number of sites is used to determine embryonic age.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 19 of 36

1

Intramembranous ossification occurs within a membranous sheath without prior cartilage formation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 20 of 36

1

Endochondral ossification occurs in preexisting bone models made from cartilage tissue.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 21 of 36

1

Both the diaphyses (center bones) and epiphyses (ends of bone) remain cartilaginous throughout childhood/adolescence until bone growth is completed.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 22 of 36

1

Prenatal detection methods can rarely detect forms of skeletal dysplasia.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 23 of 36

1

Hyaline cartilage is the most widely distributed throughout the body (ie joints).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 24 of 36

1

Joints develop from condensed mesenchyme and by 8 weeks resemble adult joints.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 25 of 36

1

Short long bones identified on ultrasound can be a marker for skeletal dysplasia as well as for Down syndrome.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 36

1

The FGFR3 gene is implicated in craniosynostosis syndromes but not skeletal dysplasias.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 27 of 36

1

Accessory ribs, absence and/or variation of muscles, and unilateral multicycstic dysplastic kidneys are early common findings and usually of no clinical significance.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 28 of 36

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The micro deletion in DiGeorge/Velocardiofacial syndrome is

Explanation

Question 29 of 36

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

A potential cause of arthrogryoposis/joint contractors is ; ;

Explanation

Question 30 of 36

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Describe 3 clinical features of CHARGE syndrome: ; ; ; ; ;

Explanation

Question 31 of 36

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Describe 3 clinical features of VACTERL association: ; ; ; ; ; ;

Explanation

Question 32 of 36

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

is a condition characterized by absence of the pectorals major muscle that results in hypo plastic fused ribs, unilateral absence of breast nipple, areola, hemivertebrae, syndactyly, brachydactylyl, and in some cases dextrocardia.

Explanation

Question 33 of 36

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The most common cytogenetic abnormality observed in spontaneously aborted fetuses is .

Explanation

Question 34 of 36

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

A physiological omphalocele should be resolved by the th week of gestation.

Explanation

Question 35 of 36

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

A MSAFP value above MoM will result in a prenatal screening test that indicates an increased risk for neural tube/abdominal wall defects.

Explanation

Question 36 of 36

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

A nuchal translucency (NT) measurement greater than mm will result in a prenatal screening test that indicates a greater than 20% chance for an underlying chromosome abnormality.

Explanation

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