Rochelle T
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So far only Quiz 3,6, 10 and 11 have been added. Not all the questions are added, but most of the quiz.

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Rochelle T
Created by Rochelle T almost 6 years ago
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Gentics -RS Q's

Question 1 of 32

1

If a person develops a familial cancer, it is likely that they were born with the gentotype....

Select one of the following:

  • -/- in a c-oncogene

  • +/- in a c-oncogene

  • -/- in a TSG

  • +/- in a TSG

Explanation

Question 2 of 32

1

What is a Roundup Ready transgenic organism?

Select one of the following:

  • One that is resistant to insects

  • One that is resistant to herbicides

  • One that is of higher nutritional value

  • One that can withstand the winter Pullman Temps

  • two of the above

Explanation

Question 3 of 32

1

An individual has a mutation in the proto-oncogene Ras.
What type of mutation has likely occured?
A. Gain of Function
B. Loss of Function
C.Recessive
D. Dominant

Select one of the following:

  • A

  • B and D

  • C

  • D and A

Explanation

Question 4 of 32

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Due to this mutation, what is the abnormal function of the mutant Ras?

The Ras is (Bound of ) because it lots its site (which brings it back down to an ).

Explanation

Question 5 of 32

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

List one of the difference between familial breast cancer and sporadic breast cancer:

Familial breast cancer accounts for of the cancer developed and sporadic cancer accounts for of cancer developed.

Explanation

Question 6 of 32

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Can you manufacture human protein using bacteria? Why or why not?

You with plasmids, but you need that has like in Eukaryotes.

Explanation

Question 7 of 32

1

Gene cloning happens in this order:

Purify DNA of interest for ligation
Cut vector and ligate in gene
Transform recombinant plasmid into competent bacteria
Select for transformants

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 8 of 32

1

What is PCR used for?

Select one of the following:

  • To make billions of copies on one DNA sequence

  • To make a few copies of several DNA sequences

  • To destroy a specific DNA sequence

Explanation

Question 9 of 32

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Name the three steps of PCR and briefly describe their functions:

- Break DNA bonds with heat into DNA. Add
- Seal to specific sequence of DNA
- Have the DNA go through to create a DNA piece.

Explanation

Question 10 of 32

1

There is no issue with PCR. The starting piece of DNA sequence that is selected to be multiplied will always be perfect and therefore, make perfect copies.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 11 of 32

1

What is sgRNA?

Select one of the following:

  • Signal guide RNA

  • Sequence guide RNA

  • Specific guide RNA

Explanation

Question 12 of 32

1

What is sgRNA used for in CRISPR-Cas 9?

Select one of the following:

  • Cut out the sequences of DNA around our selected piece

  • To guide DNA into the cytoplasm

  • To help read the DNA for Cas-9 to cut at the right sequence

Explanation

Question 13 of 32

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

What is the result of the following conjugations?

F+ x F- = +
Hfr x F- = +

Explanation

Question 14 of 32

1

The transfer of naked DNA to a recipient bacterial cell is called

Select one of the following:

  • Conjugation

  • Transduction

  • Transformation

Explanation

Question 15 of 32

1

Naked DNA can be taken up by any nearby bacteria, but requires cell to cell contact between the donor and the recipient.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 16 of 32

1

DNA can also be transferred by conjugation, which requires a bacteriophage.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 17 of 32

1

Approximately 80% of caner cases arise from germ-line mutation

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 18 of 32

1

Lederberg and Tatum's work with the autotrophic bacteria demonstrated transduction.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 19 of 32

1

R plasmids are a type of F plasmid that can confer antibiotic resistance.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 20 of 32

1

Leukemias and lymphnodes are examples of solid tumors

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 21 of 32

1

Two disease-free parents have a child with Cystic Fibrosis. What is the probability that their next child will be a carrier?

Select one of the following:

  • 1/4

  • 1/2

  • 3/4

  • 1

  • Impossible to compute based on this information alone

Explanation

Question 22 of 32

1

If a genes has 4 alleles in a population, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible? Show your work!

Select one of the following:

  • 10/ impossible to tell

  • 8/6

  • 20/ impossible to tell

  • 8/4

  • none of the answers are correct

Explanation

Question 23 of 32

1

Where are the genes for sex-limited traits located?

Select one of the following:

  • Autosomes

  • Sex chromosomes

  • only the x chromosome

  • only the y chromosome

  • either on autosome or sex chromosome

Explanation

Question 24 of 32

1

In incomplete dominance, a likely phenotypic ratio resulting when a heterozygous is selfed in a monohybrid cross would be 3:1.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 25 of 32

1

X-chromosome inactivation is important in explaining the unexpected phenotype of females who are homozygous for X-linked genes

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 32

1

In an X-linked recessive disease, more males are affected than females.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 27 of 32

1

Which type of disease is most commonly embryonic lethal? Choose all that apply

Select one or more of the following:

  • Autosomal recessive

  • Autosomal dominant

  • X-linked recessive

  • X-linked dominant

Explanation

Question 28 of 32

1

If the GC content of a double stranded DNA molecule is 60%:
What is the molar precentage of purines?

Select one of the following:

  • 30%

  • 40%

  • 50%

  • 60%

Explanation

Question 29 of 32

1

If the GC content of a double stranded DNA molecule is 60%:
If this were a single stranded DNA molecule, what would the molar precentage of T be?

Select one of the following:

  • 30%

  • 15%

  • 25%

  • 60%

  • impossible to tell

Explanation

Question 30 of 32

1

If a DNA molecule is 150 bp long, what is the approximate length in Angstroms or nm. Choose all that apply

Select one or more of the following:

  • 150 Angstroms

  • 15 nm

  • 51 nm

  • 510 Angstrom

Explanation

Question 31 of 32

1

Origins of replication are likely found in GC rich regions.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 32 of 32

1

In eukaryotes, circular chromosomes have many origins of replication.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

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