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Pharmacology MCQs- 4th Year- PMU

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Pharmacology MCQs 2- 4th Year- PMU

Pharmacology MCQs 2- 4th Year- PMU

Question 1 of 112

1

Functional antagonists of histamine are

Select one or more of the following:

  • corticosteroids

  • opoid analgesics

  • adrenalin

  • neuroepileptics

Explanation

Question 2 of 112

1

2nd generation H1-blockers are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Loratidine (Claritin)

  • Fexofenadine (Telfast)

  • Cetirizine (Zodac)

  • Dimenhydrinate (Vomacur)

Explanation

Question 3 of 112

1

H2-blockers are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Omeprazole (Sopral)

  • Ranitidine (Zantac)

  • Bismuth collodial (De-nol)

  • Famotidine (Famultran)

Explanation

Question 4 of 112

1

5-HT 1D agonists are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sumatripan (Imigran)

  • Ranitidine (Zantac)

  • Loratidine (Claritin)

  • Naratripan (Naramig)

Explanation

Question 5 of 112

1

5-HT3 antagonists is

Select one or more of the following:

  • Naratripan (Naramig)

  • Ondansetron (Zofran)

  • Clozapine (Leponex)

  • Desloratidine (Aerius)

Explanation

Question 6 of 112

1

What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics?

Select one or more of the following:

  • they reversibly block activated sodium channels

  • they block the potassium channels

  • they block the conduction of action potentials along axons

  • they block the β-receptors in the cell membrane

Explanation

Question 7 of 112

1

Which one of the following local anesthetics causes vasoconstriction?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lidocaine

  • Procaine

  • Cocaine

  • Mepivacaine

Explanation

Question 8 of 112

1

Cardiac glycosides are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Digoxin

  • Beta-methyldigoxin (Lanitop)

  • Digitoxin

  • Theophyllin

Explanation

Question 9 of 112

1

Pharmacologic effects of cardiac glycosides are

Select one or more of the following:

  • positive inotropic

  • negative chronotropic

  • negative dromotropic

  • positive batmotropic

Explanation

Question 10 of 112

1

What is the mechanism of action of cardiac glycosides?

Select one or more of the following:

  • stimulation of M-cholinoreceptors

  • inhibition of Na+/K+-ATPase

  • inhibition of enzyme phosphodiesterase

  • an increase in the cyclic adenosine monophosphate

Explanation

Question 11 of 112

1

In the liver predominantly is mentioned

Select one or more of the following:

  • Digoxin

  • Acetyldigoxin

  • Beta-methyldigoxin (Lanitop)

  • Digitalin (Digitoxin)

Explanation

Question 12 of 112

1

Symptoms of cardiac glycosides intoxication

Select one or more of the following:

  • loss of appetite, vomiting

  • muscle weakness, tremors

  • hallucinations, yellowish vision (xanthopsia)

  • ventricular extrasystoles, atrioventricular block

Explanation

Question 13 of 112

1

Antiarrhythmics of class III are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Propranolol

  • Amiodarone

  • Sotalol

  • Quinidine sulfate

Explanation

Question 14 of 112

1

Class IVA antiarrhytmics (calcium channel blockers) are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Diltiazem

  • Lidocain

  • Sotalol

  • Verapamil

Explanation

Question 15 of 112

1

The mechanism of action of antiarhytmics includes

Select one or more of the following:

  • affect the generation and induction/conduction of action potential in the heart

  • slow conduction of action potential

  • blocking of cholinesterase

  • changes in trsport of K+, Na+, or Ca++ ions

Explanation

Question 16 of 112

1

Contraindications for clinical use Amiodarone are

Select one or more of the following:

  • sinus bradycardia

  • sinus tachycardia

  • opthalmological diseases

  • thyroid gland dysfunction

Explanation

Question 17 of 112

1

Organic nitrates with rapid onset and short duration of action are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Glyceryl trinitrate (Nitroglycerin)

  • Subiingual spray containing lsosorbide-dinitrat (lsoket spray)

  • Tablets containing Isosorbide-dinitrat (lsodinit)

  • Tablets containing Isosorbide-5-mononitrat (Monisid)

Explanation

Question 18 of 112

1

The mechanism of action of organic nitrates is related to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • release of nitric oxide

  • direct vasodilation

  • blocking the enzyme phosphodiesterase

  • activation of the enzyme adenilatcyclase

Explanation

Question 19 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of organic nitrates are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • tachycardia

  • tolerance

  • headache and flushing

  • hypertension

Explanation

Question 20 of 112

1

Dihydropyridine calcium-channel blockers are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Verapamil

  • Nifedipine

  • Felodipine

  • Diltiazem

Explanation

Question 21 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of dihydropyridine calcium-channel blockers are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • tachycardia

  • bradycardia

  • headache

  • swelling of the ankles

Explanation

Question 22 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of non-dihydropyridine calcium-channel blockers are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Bradycardia

  • Tachycardia

  • Constipation

  • Heart failure

Explanation

Question 23 of 112

1

Peripheral vasodilators phosphodiesterase inhibitors are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Papaverini hydrochloridum

  • Pentoxifiyllin (Agapurin)

  • Cinnarizin (Stugeron)

  • Drotaverini (No-spa)

Explanation

Question 24 of 112

1

Pharmacological effects of Papaverin and Drotaverin are

Select one or more of the following:

  • vasodilation

  • platelet aggregation inhibition

  • antispasmodic

  • antianginal

Explanation

Question 25 of 112

1

Inhibitors of hydroxy-methylgIutaryl-CoA-reductase (HMG-CoA reductase) are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Bezafibrate (Bezalip)

  • Atorvastatin (Sortis)

  • Simvastatin (Zooor)

  • Cholestyramine (Questran)

Explanation

Question 26 of 112

1

Mechanisms of action of statins are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • inhibit HMG-CoA-reductase

  • inhibits the deposition of cholesterol in the blood vessel wall

  • accelerate the elimination of cholesterol

  • inhibit the synthesis of Cholesterol and LDL

Explanation

Question 27 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of statins are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • gastrointestinal disorders

  • hypertension

  • hepatotoxicity

  • myositis

Explanation

Question 28 of 112

1

What is the mechanism at action of Ezetimibe?

Select one or more of the following:

  • inhibits the synthesis of Cholesterol

  • inhibits the intestinal absorption of Cholesterol

  • enhances the elimination of Cholesterol

  • blocks the LDL receptors

Explanation

Question 29 of 112

1

Pharmacological effects of ACE inhibitors are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • antihypertensive

  • antiarrhythmic

  • regression of left ventricular hypertrophy

  • nephroprotective

Explanation

Question 30 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of ACE inhibitors are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • dry cough

  • hyperglycaemia

  • hyperkalemia

  • hypotension

Explanation

Question 31 of 112

1

Indications for clinical use of ACE inhibitors are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • heart failure

  • ventricular extrasystoles

  • hypertension

  • acute angina attack

Explanation

Question 32 of 112

1

Angiotensin II receptor antagonists are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Losartan

  • Enalapril

  • Valsartan

  • Telmisartan

Explanation

Question 33 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of β blockers are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypoglycaemia

  • bronchoconstriction

  • tachycardia

  • peripheral vascular spasms

Explanation

Question 34 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of thiazide diuretics are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • hyperkalemia

  • hypokalemia

  • hyperglycaemia

  • hyperuricemia

Explanation

Question 35 of 112

1

α1-blockers are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Prazosin (Minipress)

  • Enalapril (Renitec)

  • Doxazosin.(Cardura)

  • Diltiazem (Aldizem)

Explanation

Question 36 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of α1-blockers are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • orthostatic hypotension

  • bronchoconstriction

  • retention of sodium and water

  • bradycardia

Explanation

Question 37 of 112

1

Indications for clinical use of α1-blockers are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • prostatic hypertrophy

  • tachycardia

  • hypertension

  • angina pectoris

Explanation

Question 38 of 112

1

The site of action of loop diuretics is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • glomerulus

  • loop of Henle

  • proximal convoluted tubule

  • distal convoluted tubule

Explanation

Question 39 of 112

1

Which of the following diuretics are thiazides?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hydrochlorthiazide

  • lndapamide

  • Spironolactonum

  • Mannitol

Explanation

Question 40 of 112

1

Which of the following diuretics is an aldosterone receptor antagonist?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Triamteren

  • Furosemide

  • Spironolactone

  • Mannitol

Explanation

Question 41 of 112

1

Clinical indications for prescribing diuretics are

Select one or more of the following:

  • brain edema

  • diabetes mellitus

  • hypertension

  • chronic heart failure

Explanation

Question 42 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of potassium - sparing diuretics are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • gynecomastia

  • hyperkalemia

  • hepatotoxicity

  • ototoxicity

Explanation

Question 43 of 112

1

For Vitamin K is true:

Select one or more of the following:

  • participate as a cofactor in the biosynthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, X

  • exists in two natural forms - Vitamin K1 and K2

  • it is an antidote of heparin

  • it is used for prevention and treatment of bleeding associated with overdose of indirect anticoagulants

Explanation

Question 44 of 112

1

Indications for clinical use of fibrlnolytlcs are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • bleeding stomach ulcer

  • acute myocardial infarction

  • pulmonary thromboembolism

  • hemophilia

Explanation

Question 45 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of heparin are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • osteoporosis (by prolonged administration)

  • reversible alopecia

  • hemorrhage

  • allergic reactions

Explanation

Question 46 of 112

1

Antidote for heparin is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Streptase (Streptokinase)

  • Sodium chloride

  • Protamin sulfas

  • Phytomenadione (Vit. K1)

Explanation

Question 47 of 112

1

What is the mechanism of action of Dabigatran?

Select one or more of the following:

  • inhibits factor Xa of coagulation

  • inhibits factor ll of coagulation

  • binds to anti-thrombin lll

  • oppose the action of Vitamin K

Explanation

Question 48 of 112

1

For indirect oral anticoagulants is true:

Select one or more of the following:

  • good oral absorption

  • their anticoagulant effect occurs only in vivo

  • their effect is delayed

  • their anticoagulant effect occurs only in vitro

Explanation

Question 49 of 112

1

Antiplatelet agents are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Acidum p-aminomethylbenzoicum (PAMBA)

  • Clopidogrel (PIavix)

  • Dipyridamole (Antistenocardin)

  • Acidum acetylsalicylicum (Acetysal)

Explanation

Question 50 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of iron preparations for oral use are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • constipation

  • epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting

  • thrombosis

  • dark-colored gums and teeth

Explanation

Question 51 of 112

1

Which of the following groups are used to treat asthma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • B2-adrenergic agonists

  • Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

  • Butyrophenones

  • Leukotriene receptor antagonists

Explanation

Question 52 of 112

1

Which of the following drugs are phosphodiesterase inhibitors

Select one or more of the following:

  • Salbutamol

  • Theophylline

  • Aminophylline

  • Ketotifen

Explanation

Question 53 of 112

1

What is the mechanism of action at methylxantines?

Select one or more of the following:

  • they inhibit MAO

  • they inhibit acetylcholinesterase

  • they inhibit phosphodiesterase and increase the cAMP

  • they inhibit angiotensin converting enzyme

Explanation

Question 54 of 112

1

What are the adverse drug reactions of the inhaled corticosteroids:

Select one or more of the following:

  • bronchoconstriction

  • dysphonia (hoarse voice)

  • oral candidiasis

  • hypertensive crisis

Explanation

Question 55 of 112

1

What are the potential adverse drug reactions of the systemic corticosteroids?

Select one or more of the following:

  • diabetes

  • obesity

  • osteoporosis

  • insomnia

Explanation

Question 56 of 112

1

Ipratropii bromidum (Atrovent) is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • leukotriene inhibitor

  • corticosteroid

  • cholinergic antagonist

  • cholinergic agonist

Explanation

Question 57 of 112

1

What are the possible adverse drug reactions of Ipratropii bromidum (Atrovent)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • dry mouth

  • incontinention of urine

  • tachycardia

  • hypoglycaemia

Explanation

Question 58 of 112

1

What are the mechanisms of action of the leukotriene modifiers?

Select one or more of the following:

  • they block the M-Choiinoceptors

  • they are selective, reversible antagonists of the Ieukotriene-1 receptor

  • they inhibit the enzyme 5-lypoexigenase

  • they inhibit the angiotensin converting enzyme

Explanation

Question 59 of 112

1

Which of the following drugs are mucolytics?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Amroxol (Mucosoivan)

  • Bromhexine

  • Salbutamol

  • Ketotifen

Explanation

Question 60 of 112

1

Which are the drugs used for treatment of peptic ulcer disease

Select one or more of the following:

  • mucosal protective agents

  • H1-histamine receptor blockers

  • H2-histamine receptor blockers

  • proton pump inhibitors

Explanation

Question 61 of 112

1

H2-histamine receptor blockers are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Roxatidine

  • Ranitidine

  • Sucralfate

  • Omeprazole

Explanation

Question 62 of 112

1

Omeprazole is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • H2-histamine receptor blocker

  • H1-histamine receptor blocker

  • Proton pump inhibitor

  • Antimuscarinic drug

Explanation

Question 63 of 112

1

Drugs interactions of Omeprazol are due to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • inhibition of CYP 450

  • induction of CYP 450

  • inhibition of phosphodiesterase

  • induction of phosphodiasterase

Explanation

Question 64 of 112

1

Hepatoprotective agents with regenerative action are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Essentiale

  • Silymarin

  • Ademetionine

  • Oleum Ricini

Explanation

Question 65 of 112

1

Glucocorticoid preparations are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hydrocortisone

  • Methylprednisolone

  • Fludroconisone

  • Prednisolon

Explanation

Question 66 of 112

1

Metabolic effect of glucocorticoids are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypoglycemia

  • hyperglycemia

  • reduced calcium absorption

  • increased protein catabolism

Explanation

Question 67 of 112

1

Pharmacological effects of glucocorticoids are

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypotension

  • anti-inflammatory action

  • immunosuppressive action

  • antiallergic action

Explanation

Question 68 of 112

1

Side effects of glucocorticoids are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • osteoporosis

  • diabetes mellitus

  • cough

  • hypertension

Explanation

Question 69 of 112

1

Short-acting insulin preparations are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Actrapid

  • Humulin N

  • lnsuman Rapid

  • Humulin R

Explanation

Question 70 of 112

1

Effects of insulin-on carbohydrate metabolism are.

Select one or more of the following:

  • hyperglycaemia

  • hypoglycaemia

  • inhibition of gluconeogenesis

  • inhibition of glicogenolysis

Explanation

Question 71 of 112

1

ADRs of insulin are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypoglycaemia

  • hypotension

  • insulin resistance

  • allergy

Explanation

Question 72 of 112

1

Mechanisms of action of sulphonyureas are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • block ATP-sensitive K+ channels

  • stimulate release of endogenous insulin from the pancreas

  • inhibit gluconeogenesis

  • lower levels of plasma glucagon

Explanation

Question 73 of 112

1

ADRs of sulphonylureas are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypotension

  • weight gain

  • gastrointestinal

  • hypoglycaemia

Explanation

Question 74 of 112

1

Biguanide antidiabetic agent is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Pioglitazone

  • Metformin

  • Glibenclamide

  • Acarbose

Explanation

Question 75 of 112

1

Mechanisms of action of biguanides are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • inhibition of gluconeogenesis

  • release of insulin from β cells of the pancreas

  • increased peripheral utilization of glucose

  • inhibition of glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal tract

Explanation

Question 76 of 112

1

ADRs of biguanides are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • gastrointestinal disorders (anorexia, nausea, diarrhoea, metallic, taste)

  • hypoglycaemia

  • megaloblastic anemia

  • lactic acidosis

Explanation

Question 77 of 112

1

Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors (DPP-4 inhibitors):

Select one or more of the following:

  • prolong activity of incretin hormones

  • release insulin from β cells of the pancreas

  • do not cause hypoglycaemia

  • cause weight gain and increased appetite

Explanation

Question 78 of 112

1

Reproductive effects of estrogens are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • development of sexual organs

  • development of the follicular phase of menstrual cycle

  • development of the luteal phase of menstrual cycle

  • stimulate uterine contractions

Explanation

Question 79 of 112

1

ADRs of estrogens are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypertension

  • thrombosis

  • carcinogenic effects

  • nephrotoxicity

Explanation

Question 80 of 112

1

Contraindications for use of estrogens are

Select one or more of the following:

  • thromboembolic disease

  • probable or certain pregnancy

  • proven or suspected breast cancer

  • migraine

Explanation

Question 81 of 112

1

Mechanisms of action of oral hormonal contraceptives are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Suppression of ovulation

  • Suppression of lutein hormone secretion

  • Condensation of cervical mucus

  • Increased secretion of follicle stimulating hormone

Explanation

Question 82 of 112

1

Contraindications of oral contraceptives are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Oestrogen dependant tumors

  • Hyper-coagulation

  • Migraine

  • Liver disease

Explanation

Question 83 of 112

1

Symptoms of vitamin B3 deficiency (pellagra) are

Select one or more of the following:

  • dermatitis

  • anemia

  • diarrhea

  • dementia

Explanation

Question 84 of 112

1

Vitamin B12 deficiency leads to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • megaloblastic anemia

  • spinal cord degeneration and neuropathies

  • atrophic glossitis

  • diarrhea

Explanation

Question 85 of 112

1

Vitamin A deficiency leads to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • hemeralopia (night blindness)

  • acne

  • xerophthalmia (dry eyes)

  • bradycardia

Explanation

Question 86 of 112

1

Effects of vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • increased intestinal calcium and phosphate absorption

  • decreased intestinal calcium and phosphate

  • stimulation of calcium reabsorption in the kidney

  • deposition of calcium in bones and teeth (at low dose)

Explanation

Question 87 of 112

1

Vitamin D deficiency leads to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • rickets in children

  • osteomalacia in adults

  • delayed dentation

  • hyperglycemia

Explanation

Question 88 of 112

1

Vitamin K is required for:

Select one or more of the following:

  • synthesis of hemoglobin

  • synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X

  • regulation of cholesterol levels

  • carbohydrate metabolism

Explanation

Question 89 of 112

1

Drugs for treatment of Parkinson's disease are

Select one or more of the following:

  • neuroepileptics

  • dopaminergic drugs

  • antimuscarinic drugs

  • anxiolytics

Explanation

Question 90 of 112

1

Mode of action of Selegiline is

Select one or more of the following:

  • MAO A inhibition

  • Release of dopamine from the stores

  • MAO B inhibition

  • Activation of dopamine recepors

Explanation

Question 91 of 112

1

Therapeutic uses of Bromocriptine are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Parkinson's disease

  • Acromegaly

  • Prolactin-secreting adenomas

  • Hyperglycemia

Explanation

Question 92 of 112

1

Antiparkinsonian drug with antiviral activity is

Select one or more of the following:

  • Amantadine

  • Bromocriptine

  • Selegiline

  • Madopar

Explanation

Question 93 of 112

1

Mode of action of typical antipsychotics involves:

Select one or more of the following:

  • block of postsynaptic dopamine receptors

  • activation of dopamine receptors

  • block of serotonin receptors

  • block of muscarinic, histamine and adrenergic receptors

Explanation

Question 94 of 112

1

Mode of action of atypical antipsychotic Olanzapine involves:

Select one or more of the following:

  • block of postsynaptic D4 receptors stronger than D2 receptors

  • block of 5-HT2 receptors

  • activation of 5-HT2 receptors

  • stimulation of muscarinic receptors

Explanation

Question 95 of 112

1

The main effects of antipsychotics are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • antipsychotic effect

  • antiemetic effect

  • hypotensive effect

  • anticonvulsant effect

Explanation

Question 96 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of antipsychotics are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • extrapyramidal syndrome

  • hyperprolactinemia

  • drug dependence

  • postural hypotension

Explanation

Question 97 of 112

1

Antipsychotic with strong antipsychotic effect is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Chlorprothixene

  • Thioridazine

  • Haloperidol

  • Clozapine

Explanation

Question 98 of 112

1

Mode of action of benzodiazepines is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • enhance the effectiveness of GABA

  • block of GABA receptors

  • block of sodium channels

  • activation of dopamine receptors

Explanation

Question 99 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of benzodiazepines are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • seizures

  • tolerance and drug dependence

  • extrapyramidal side effects

  • ataxia

Explanation

Question 100 of 112

1

Antagonist of benzodiazepines is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Naloxone

  • Flumazenil

  • Chlorpromazine

  • Clozapine

Explanation

Question 101 of 112

1

Opioids are suitable for treatment of

Select one or more of the following:

  • traumatic shock

  • acute myocardial infarction

  • headache

  • neuritis

Explanation

Question 102 of 112

1

Contraindications for the use of opioid analgesics:

Select one or more of the following:

  • pregnancy, breastfeeding

  • diseases, associated with respiratory depression

  • head trauma and brain injury

  • traumatic shock

Explanation

Question 103 of 112

1

Specific morphine antagonist is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Flumazenil

  • Naloxone

  • Bemegrid

  • Protamin sulfas

Explanation

Question 104 of 112

1

Point out the correct statements for Pethidine (Lydol):

Select one or more of the following:

  • has a spasmolytic effect on the smooth muscles

  • it is a stronger analgesic than morphine

  • has a shorter duration of action than morphine

  • can be used for neuroleptanaigesia

Explanation

Question 105 of 112

1

Opioid drug with a strong anti-tussive effect is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tramadol

  • Pethidin

  • Morphine

  • Codeine

Explanation

Question 106 of 112

1

For analgesics-antipyretics is true:

Select one or more of the following:

  • they affect normal body temperature

  • the antipyretic effect is clue to suppression of PgE synthesis in the hypothalamus

  • they lower only elevated body temperature (i.e. fever)

  • intensify heat diffusion

Explanation

Question 107 of 112

1

Adverse drug reactions of Metamizol (Analgin) are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • allergic reactions

  • hyperthermla

  • agranulocytosis

  • red coloured urine

Explanation

Question 108 of 112

1

Pharmacological effects of Paracetamol are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • antipyretic

  • anti-inflammatory

  • analgesic

  • antiplatelet

Explanation

Question 109 of 112

1

What are the therapeutic effects of NSAIDs:

Select one or more of the following:

  • analgesic

  • anti-inflammatory

  • hypnotic

  • antipyretic

Explanation

Question 110 of 112

1

What is the mechanism of action of NSAiDs:

Select one or more of the following:

  • inhibition of phosphodiesterases

  • blockade of dopamine receptors

  • inhibition of cyclooxygenase

  • inhibition of MAO

Explanation

Question 111 of 112

1

Pharmacological effects of salicylates are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • anti-inflammatory

  • sedative

  • analgesic

  • antiplatelet

Explanation

Question 112 of 112

1

Which of the following drugs are selective COX-2 inhibitors:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Aspirin

  • Celecoxib

  • Indomethacin

  • Meloxicam

Explanation

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