Fundamentals of Information Security [State Exam | Part 1]

Question 1 of 200

1

What is a potential risk when using a free and open wireless hotspot in a public location?

Select one of the following:

Too many users trying to connect to the Internet may cause a network traffic jam.
The Internet connection can become too slow when many users access the wireless hotspot.
Network traffic might be hijacked and information stolen.
Purchase of products from vendors might be required in exchange for the Internet access.

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

How does a security information and event management system (SIEM) in a SOC help the personnel fight against security threats?

Select one of the following:

by integrating all security devices and appliances in an organization
by analyzing logging data in real time
by combining data from multiple technologies
by dynamically implementing firewall rules

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

Which statement best describes a motivation of hacktivists?

Select one of the following:

They are part of a protest group behind a political cause.
They are curious and learning hacking skills.
They are trying to show off their hacking skills.
They are interested in discovering new exploits.

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

If a SOC has a goal of 99.999% uptime, how many minutes of downtime a year would be considered within its goal?

Select one of the following:

Approximately 5 minutes per year.
Approximately 10 minutes per year.
Approximately 20 minutes per year.
Approximately 30 minutes per year.

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

Why do IoT devices pose a greater risk than other computing devices on a network?

Select one of the following:

Most IoT devices do not require an Internet connection and are unable to receive new updates.
IoT devices cannot function on an isolated network with only an Internet connection.
Most IoT devices do not receive frequent firmware updates.
IoT devices require unencrypted wireless connections.

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

Which two services are provided by security operations centers? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

managing comprehensive threat solutions
ensuring secure routing packet exchanges
responding to data center physical break-ins
monitoring network security threats
providing secure Internet connections

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

Users report that a database file on the main server cannot be accessed. A database administrator verifies the issue and notices that the database file is now encrypted. The organization receives a threatening email demanding payment for the decryption of the database file. What type of attack has the organization experienced?

Select one of the following:

man-in-the-middle attack
DoS attack
Ransomware
Trojan horse

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

Which organization offers the vendor-neutral CySA+ certification?

Select one of the following:

IEEE
CompTIA
(ISC)²
GIAC

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

What was used as a cyberwarfare weapon to attack a uranium enrichment facility in Iran?

Select one of the following:

DDoS
SQL injection
PSYOPS
Stuxnet

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

Which three technologies should be included in a SOC security information and event management system? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

firewall appliance
security monitoring
log management
intrusion prevention
proxy service
threat intelligence

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

Which personnel in a SOC is assigned the task of verifying whether an alert triggered by monitoring software represents a true security incident?

Select one of the following:

SOC Manager
Tier 2 personnel
Tier 3 personnel
Tier 1 personnel

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

Which statement describes cyberwarfare?

Select one of the following:

Cyberwarfare is an attack carried out by a group of script kiddies.
It is a series of personal protective equipment developed for soldiers involved in nuclear war.
It is simulation software for Air Force pilots that allows them to practice under a simulated war scenario.
It is Internet-based conflict that involves the penetration of information systems of other nations.

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

In the operation of a SOC, which system is frequently used to let an analyst select alerts from a pool to investigate?

Select one of the following:

syslog server
registration system
ticketing system
security alert knowledge-based system

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

What name is given to an amateur hacker?

Select one of the following:

red hat
script kiddie
black hat
blue team

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

Which personnel in a SOC are assigned the task of hunting for potential threats and implementing threat detection tools?

Select one of the following:

Tier 1 Analyst
SOC Manager
Tier 2 Incident Reporter
Tier 3 SME

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

What utility is available on a Windows PC to view current running applications and processes?

Select one of the following:

nslookup
ipconfig
Control Panel
Task Manager

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

A user logs in to Windows with a regular user account and attempts to use an application that requires administrative privileges. What can the user do to successfully use the application?

Select one of the following:

Right-click the application and choose Run as root.
Right-click the application and choose Run as Priviledge.
Right-click the application and choose Run as Administrator.
Right-click the application and choose Run as Superuser.

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?

Select one of the following:

nslookup
tracert
netstat
ipconfig

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

Where are the settings that are chosen during the installation process stored?

Select one of the following:

in the recovery partition
in flash memory
in the Registry
in BIOS

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

What technology was created to replace the BIOS program on modern personal computer motherboards?

Select one of the following:

CMOS
MBR
RAM
UEFI

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

the number of routers between the source and destination device
the destination device is reachable through the network
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond
the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

What function is provided by the Windows Task Manager?

Select one of the following:

It provides an active list of TCP connections.
It maintains system logs.
It selectively denies traffic on specified interfaces.
It provides information on system resources and processes.

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

Which type of Windows PowerShell command performs an action and returns an output or object to the next command that will be executed?

Select one of the following:

scripts
functions
cmdlets
routines

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

What would be displayed if the netstat -abno command was entered on a Windows PC?

Select one of the following:

all active TCP and UDP connections, their current state, and their associated process ID (PID)
only active TCP connections in an ESTABLISHED state
only active UDP connections in an LISTENING state
a local routing table

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

Which two commands could be used to check if DNS name resolution is working properly on a Windows PC? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

ipconfig /flushdns
net cisco.com
nslookup cisco.com
ping cisco.com
nbtstat cisco.com

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

Refer to the exhibit. A cyber security administrator is attempting to view system information from the Windows PowerShell and recieves the error message shown. “The requested operation requires elevation.”
What action does the administrator need to take to successfully run the command?

Select one of the following:

Run the command from the command prompt.
Install latest Windows updates.
Restart the abno service in Task Manager.
Run PowerShell as administrator.

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

Refer to the exhibit. A cybersecurity analyst is investigating a reported security incident on a Microsoft Windows computer. Which tool is the analyst using?

Select one of the following:

Event Viewer
PowerShell
Task Manager
Performance Monitor

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

For security reasons a network administrator needs to ensure that local computers cannot ping each other. Which settings can accomplish this task?

Select one of the following:

firewall settings
MAC address settings
smartcard settings
file system settings

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

Consider the path representation in Windows CLI C:\Users\Jason\Desktop\mydocu.txt. What does the Users\Jason component represent?

Select one of the following:

file directory and subdirectory
current file directory
file attribute
storage device or partition

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

Which two user accounts are automatically created when a user installs Windows to a new computer? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

superuser
guest
root
administrator
system

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

What term is used to describe a logical drive that can be formatted to store data?

Select one of the following:

partition
track
sector
cluster
volume

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

What is the purpose of entering the netsh command on a Windows PC?

Select one of the following:

to create user accounts
to test the hardware devices on the PC
to change the computer name for the PC
to configure networking parameters for the PC

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

A technician is troubleshooting a PC unable to connect to the network. What command should be issued to check the IP address of the device?

Select one of the following:

ipconfig
ping
tracert
nslookup

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

Refer to the exhibit. Which Microsoft Windows application is being used?

Select one of the following:

Event Viewer
PowerShell
Task Manager
Performance Monitor

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

What are two reasons for entering the ipconfig command on a Windows PC? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

to review the network configuration on the PC
to check if the DNS server can be contacted
to ensure that the PC can connect to remote networks
to review the status of network media connections
to display the bandwidth and throughput of the network connection

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

What are two advantages of the NTFS file system compared with FAT32? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

NTFS allows the automatic detection of bad sectors.
NTFS is easier to configure.
NTFS allows faster formatting of drives.
NTFS provides more security features.
NTFS supports larger files.
NTFS allows faster access to external peripherals such as a USB drive.

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

What is the purpose of using the net accounts command in Windows?

Select one of the following:

to start a network service
to display information about shared network resources
to show a list of computers and network devices on the network
to review the settings of password and logon requirements for users

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

What are two reasons for entering the ping 127.0.0.1 command on a Windows PC? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

to check if the NIC functions as expected
to check if the default gateway is configured correctly
to display the bandwidth and throughput of the network connection
to check if the TCP/IP protocol suite is installed properly
to ensure that the PC can connect to remote networks

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

Why would a network administrator choose Linux as an operating system in the Security Operations Center (SOC)?

Select one of the following:

It is easier to use than other operating systems.
It is more secure than other server operating systems.
The administrator has more control over the operating system.
More network applications are created for this environment

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

Which Linux command can be used to display the name of the current working directory?

Select one of the following:

chmod
pwd
ps
sudo

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

Consider the result of the ls -l command in the Linux output below. What are the file permissions assigned to the sales user for the analyst.txt file?

ls –l analyst.txt
-rwxrw-r-- sales staff 1028 May 28 15:50 analyst.txt

Select one of the following:

write only
read, write, execute
read, write
read only

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

A Linux system boots into the GUI by default, so which application can a network administrator use in order to access the CLI environment?

Select one of the following:

file viewer
package management tool
terminal emulator
system viewer

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

The image displays a laptop that is acting as the SSH client that is communicating with an SSH server.
Refer to the exhibit. Which well-known port number is used by the server?

Select one of the following:

23
22
21
25

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

How is a server different from a workstation computer?

Select one of the following:

The server works as a standalone computer.
The server is designed to provide services to clients.
The workstation has fewer applications installed.
The workstation has more users who attach to it.

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

Which two methods can be used to harden a computing device? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Allow default services to remain enabled.
Update patches on a strict annual basis irrespective of release date.
Enforce the password history mechanism.
Ensure physical security.
Allow USB auto-detection.

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

What is the main purpose of the X Window System?

Select one of the following:

to provide a customizable CLI environment
to provide a basic framework for a GUI
to provide remote access to a Linux-based system
to provide a basic set of penetration testing tools

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

Which Linux command is used to manage processes?

Select one of the following:

kill
grep
chrootkit
ls

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

Why is Linux considered to be better protected against malware than other operating systems?

Select one of the following:

fewer deployments
integrated firewall
customizable penetration and protection tools
file system structure, file permissions, and user account restrictions

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

Which two Linux commands might be used before using the kill command? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

top
ls
grep
ps
chroot

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

What term is used for operating system updates?

Select one of the following:

patches
new releases
penetration testing
packages

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

What term describes a set of software tools designed to increase the privileges of a user or to grant access to the user to portions of the operating system that should not normally be allowed?

Select one of the following:

penetration testing
package manager
rootkit
compiler

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

What is the well-known port address number used by DNS to serve requests?

Select one of the following:

60
110
25
53

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

Which file system is the primary file system used by Apple in current Macintosh computers? (спорный вопрос = оба варианта ответа подходят, но в книге указан лишь HFS+).

Select one or more of the following:

CDFS
APFS
ext3
ext2
HFS+

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

Which type of tool allows administrators to observe and understand every detail of a network transaction?

Select one of the following:

malware analysis tool
packet capture software
ticketing system
log manager

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

Which command can be utilized to view log entries of NGINX system events in real time?

Select one of the following:

sudo journalctl –u nginx.service -f
sudo journalctl –f
sudo journalctl –until "1 hour ago"
sudo journalctl –u nginx.services

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

What is the purpose of a Linux package manager?

Select one of the following:

It provides access to settings and the shutdown function.
It is used to compile code that creates an application.
It is used to install an application.
It provides a short list of tasks a particular application can perform.

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

Which user can override file permissions on a Linux computer?

Select one of the following:

only the creator of the file
any user that has 'group' permission to the file
any user that has 'other' permission to the file
root user

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

Which Linux file system introduced the journaled file system, which can be used to minimize the risk of file system corruption in the event of a sudden power loss?

Select one of the following:

ext2
ext3
NFS
CDFS

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

What is the method employed by a Linux kernel to create new processes for multitasking of a process?

Select one of the following:

creating interdependent processes
dynamic processes
pipelining
forking

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

What is a purpose of apt-get commands?

Select one of the following:

to configure an appointment for a specific date and time
to configure and manage task (to-do) lists
to update the operating system
to apportion and configure a part of the hard disk for file storage

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

How is a DHCPDISCOVER transmitted on a network to reach a DHCP server?

Select one of the following:

A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with a multicast IP address that all DHCP servers listen to as the destination address.
A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the broadcast IP address as the destination address.
A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the IP address of the default gateway as the destination address.
A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the IP address of the DHCP server as the destination address.

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

A high school in New York (school A) is using videoconferencing technology to establish student interactions with another high school (school B) in Russia. The videoconferencing is conducted between two end devices through the Internet. The network administrator of school A configures the end device with the IP address 209.165.201.10. The administrator sends a request for the IP address for the end device in school B and the response is 192.168.25.10. Neither school is using a VPN. The administrator knows immediately that this IP will not work. Why?

Select one of the following:

This is a link-local address.
This is a loopback address.
There is an IP address conflict.
This is a private IP address.

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

What is a socket?

Select one of the following:

the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers
the combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number
the combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers
the combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination Ethernet address

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

What part of the URL, http://www.cisco.com/index.html, represents the top-level DNS domain?

Select one of the following:

www
http
index
com

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

Refer to the exhibit. A cybersecurity analyst is viewing captured ICMP echo request packets sent from host A to host B on switch S2. What is the source MAC address of Ethernet frames carrying the ICMP echo request packets?

Select one of the following:

08-CB-8A-5C-D5-BA
00-D0-D3-BE-79-26
00-60-0F-B1-D1-11
01-90-C0-E4-55-BB

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

Refer to the exhibit. A cybersecurity analyst is viewing captured packets forwarded on switch S1. Which device has the MAC address 50:6a:03:96:71:22?

Select one of the following:

PC-A
router DG
DSN server
router ISP
web server

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message format inside another message format?

Select one of the following:

encoding
multiplexing
encapsulation
segmentation

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host?

Select one of the following:

frame
file
packet
segment

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.
If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

In NAT translation for internal hosts, what address would be used by external users to reach internal hosts?

Select one of the following:

outside global
outside local
inside local
inside global

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?

Select one of the following:

SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.
RT1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/0 MAC address.
RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

Which two characteristics are associated with UDP sessions? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Unacknowledged data packets are retransmitted.
Destination devices receive traffic with minimal delay.
Destination devices reassemble messages and pass them to an application.
Transmitted data segments are tracked.
Received data is unacknowledged.

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

Refer to the exhibit. What is the global IPv6 address of the host in uncompressed format?

Select one of the following:

2001:0DB8:0000:0000:0BAF:0000:3F57:FE94
2001:0DB8:0000:0BAF:0000:0000:3F57:FE94
2001:DB80:0000:0000:BAF0:0000:3F57:FE94
2001:0DB8:0000:0000:0000:0BAF:3F57:FE94

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

What is the purpose of the routing process?

Select one of the following:

to provide secure Internet file transfer
to convert a URL name into an IP address
to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses
to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?

Select one of the following:

SMTP
POP3
DHCP
HTTP
DNS

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

Which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment?

Select one of the following:

UDP sequence number
TCP 3-way handshake
TCP port number
UDP ACK flag

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?

Select one of the following:

/26
/27
/28
/25

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.
Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.
On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays.
Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing.
Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network.

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

Which TCP mechanism is used to identify missing segments?

Select one of the following:

sequence numbers
FCS
acknowledgments
window size

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

Select one of the following:

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
to inform routers about network topology changes
to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

What happens if part of an FTP message is not delivered to the destination?

Select one of the following:

The message is lost because FTP does not use a reliable delivery method.
The part of the FTP message that was lost is re-sent.
The FTP source host sends a query to the destination host.
The entire FTP message is re-sent.

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

What is the primary purpose of NAT?

Select one of the following:

conserve IPv4 addresses
allow peer-to-peer file sharing
enhance network performance
increase network security

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

Select one of the following:

to identify the network address of the destination network
to identify the host address of the destination host
to identify the broadcast address of the destination network
to identify faulty frames

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?

Select one of the following:

192.135.250.1
192.133.219.0
192.133.219.1
192.31.7.1

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

192.167.10.10
10.1.1.1
192.168.5.5
172.16.4.4
172.32.5.2
224.6.6.6

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

What are two types of addresses found on network end devices? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

UDP
return
IP
TCP
MAC

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

Which OSI layer header is rewritten with new addressing information by a router when forwarding between LAN segments?

Select one of the following:

Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 7

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

Which protocol provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality services and is a type of VPN?

Select one of the following:

MD5
AES
ESP
IPsec

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

What are two uses of an access control list? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a network.
ACLs provide a basic level of security for network access.
Standard ACLs can restrict access to specific applications and ports.
ACLs can permit or deny traffic based upon the MAC address originating on the router.
ACLs assist the router in determining the best path to a destination.

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

Which protocol or service is used to automatically synchronize the software clocks on Cisco routers?

Select one of the following:

SNMP
NTP
DHCP
DNS

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

Which wireless parameter is used by an access point to broadcast frames that include the SSID?

Select one of the following:

passive mode
security mode
channel setting
active mode

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

A Cisco router is running IOS 15. What are the two routing table entry types that will be added when a network administrator brings an interface up and assigns an IP address to the interface? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

route that is learned via OSPF
route that is learned via EIGRP
route that is manually entered by a network administrator
directly connected interface
local route interface

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

Refer to the exhibit. The network "A" contains multiple corporate servers that are accessed by hosts from the Internet for information about the corporation. What term is used to describe the network marked as "A"?

Select one of the following:

perimeter security boundary
internal network
DMZ
untrusted network

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

What is the role of an IPS?

Select one of the following:

to detect patterns of malicious traffic by the use of signature files
to filter traffic based on defined rules and connection context
to filter traffic based on Layer 7 information
to enforce access control policies based on packet content

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

Which two features are included by both TACACS+ and RADIUS protocols? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

SIP support
password encryption
802.1X support
separate authentication and authorization processes
utilization of transport layer protocols

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

What does the TACACS+ protocol provide in a AAA deployment?

Select one of the following:

AAA connectivity via UDP
compatibility with previous TACACS protocols
authorization on a per-user or per-group basis
password encryption without encrypting the packet

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

Which parameter is commonly used to identify a wireless network name when a home wireless AP is being configured?

Select one of the following:

ESS
SSID
ad hoc
BESS

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

What information within a data packet does a router use to make forwarding decisions?

Select one of the following:

the destination service requested
the destination IP address
the destination host name
the destination MAC address

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

Which protocol creates a virtual point-to-point connection to tunnel unencrypted traffic between Cisco routers from a variety of protocols?

Select one of the following:

GRE
IPsec
OSPF
IKE

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

Which two statements are true about NTP servers in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

NTP servers at stratum 1 are directly connected to an authoritative time source.
NTP servers ensure an accurate time stamp on logging and debugging information.
There can only be one NTP server on an enterprise network.
All NTP servers synchronize directly to a stratum 1 time source.
NTP servers control the mean time between failures (MTBF) for key network devices.

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

Select one of the following:

Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network.
Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices.
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

Which layer of the hierarchical design model is a control boundary between the other layers?

Select one of the following:

access
network
distribution
core

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

Which protocol or service allows network administrators to receive system messages that are provided by network devices?

Select one of the following:

NTP
NetFlow
SNMP
syslog

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

What is a function of a proxy firewall?

Select one of the following:

uses signatures to detect patterns in network traffic
drops or forwards traffic based on packet header information
connects to remote servers on behalf of clients
filters IP traffic between bridged interfaces

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

What is the function of the distribution layer of the three-layer network design model?

Select one of the following:

aggregating access layer connections
providing high speed connection to the network edge
providing secure access to the Internet
providing direct access to the network

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

Which LAN topology requires a central intermediate device to connect end devices?

Select one of the following:

star
ring
bus
mesh

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

Which device can control and manage a large number of corporate APs?

Select one of the following:

switch
WLC
router
LWAP

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

For which discovery mode will an AP generate the most traffic on a WLAN?

Select one of the following:

active mode
mixed mode
passive mode
open mode

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

What is a feature of the TACACS+ protocol?

Select one of the following:

It utilizes UDP to provide more efficient packet transfer.
It hides passwords during transmission using PAP and sends the rest of the packet in plaintext.
It encrypts the entire body of the packet for more secure communications.
It combines authentication and authorization as one process.

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

What is the only attribute used by standard access control lists to identify traffic?

Select one of the following:

source MAC address
protocol type
source IP address
source TCP port

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

What type of malware has the primary objective of spreading across the network?

Select one of the following:

virus
worm
Trojan horse
botnet

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

Why would a rootkit be used by a hacker?

Select one of the following:

to gain access to a device without being detected
to do reconnaissance
to reverse engineer binary files
to try to guess a password

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

Which type of hacker is motivated to protest against political and social issues?

Select one of the following:

cybercriminal
script kiddie
vulnerability broker
hacktivist

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

What is a characteristic of a Trojan horse as it relates to network security?

Select one of the following:

Extreme quantities of data are sent to a particular network device interface.
An electronic dictionary is used to obtain a password to be used to infiltrate a key network device.
Too much information is destined for a particular memory block, causing additional memory areas to be affected.
Malware is contained in a seemingly legitimate executable program.

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

What is a botnet?

Select one of the following:

a group of web servers that provide load balancing and fault tolerance
an online video game intended for multiple players
a network that allows users to bring their own technology
a network of infected computers that are controlled as a group

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

Which type of Trojan horse security breach uses the computer of the victim as the source device to launch other attacks?

Select one of the following:

DoS
FTP
data-sending
proxy

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

What is the primary goal of a DoS attack?

Select one of the following:

to prevent the target server from being able to handle additional requests
to scan the data on the target server
to facilitate access to external networks
to obtain all addresses in the address book within the server

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

What is a main purpose of launching an access attack on network systems?

Select one of the following:

to prevent other users from accessing the system
to scan for accessible networks
to gather information about the network
to retrieve data

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

What causes a buffer overflow?

Select one of the following:

launching a security countermeasure to mitigate a Trojan horse
attempting to write more data to a memory location than that location can hold
sending repeated connections such as Telnet to a particular device, thus denying other data sources
sending too much information to two or more interfaces of the same device, thereby causing dropped packets
downloading and installing too many software updates at one time

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

A company pays a significant sum of money to hackers in order to regain control of an email and data server. Which type of security attack was used by the hackers?

Select one of the following:

DoS
spyware
Trojan horse
ransomware

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

What is the term used to describe an email that is targeting a specific person employed at a financial institution?

Select one of the following:

spam
spyware
vishing
target phishing
spear phishing

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

Which access attack method involves a software program that attempts to discover a system password by the use of an electronic dictionary?

Select one of the following:

packet sniffer attack
denial of service attack
buffer overflow attack
brute-force attack
port redirection attack
IP spoofing attack

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

In what way are zombies used in security attacks?

Select one of the following:

They are infected machines that carry out a DDoS attack.
They are maliciously formed code segments used to replace legitimate applications.
They target specific individuals to gain corporate or personal information.
They probe a group of machines for open ports to learn which services are running

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

What are two evasion methods used by hackers? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

scanning
encryption
access attack
phishing
resource exhaustion

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

What are two purposes of launching a reconnaissance attack on a network? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

to retrieve and modify data
to scan for accessibility
to escalate access privileges
to prevent other users from accessing the system
to gather information about the network and devices

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

What are three techniques used in social engineering attacks? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

vishing
phishing
pretexting
buffer overflow
man-in-the-middle
sending junk email

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

An attacker is using a laptop as a rogue access point to capture all network traffic from a targeted user. Which type of attack is this?

Select one of the following:

port redirection
trust exploitation
buffer overflow
man in the middle

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

A user is curious about how someone might know a computer has been infected with malware. What are two common malware behaviors? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The computer emits a hissing sound every time the pencil sharpener is used.
The computer freezes and requires reboots.
No sound emits when an audio CD is played.
The computer gets increasingly slower to respond.
The computer beeps once during the boot process.

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

Which type of security attack would attempt a buffer overflow?

Select one of the following:

ransomware
reconnaissance
DoS
scareware

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

What is a significant characteristic of virus malware?

Select one of the following:

Virus malware is only distributed over the Internet.
Once installed on a host system, a virus will automatically propagate itself to other systems.
A virus is triggered by an event on the host system.
A virus can execute independently of the host system

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

A senior citizen receives a warning on the computer that states that the operating system registry is corrupt and to click a particular link to repair it. Which type of malware is being used to try to create the perception of a computer threat to the user?

Select one of the following:

DoS
scareware
phishing
adware

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

What is the motivation of a white hat attacker?

Select one of the following:

fine tuning network devices to improve their performance and efficiency
taking advantage of any vulnerability for illegal personal gain
studying operating systems of various platforms to develop a new system
discovering weaknesses of networks and systems to improve the security level of these systems

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

What is a ping sweep?

Select one of the following:

a network scanning technique that indicates the live hosts in a range of IP addresses.
a query and response protocol that identifies information about a domain, including the addresses that are assigned to that domain.
a software application that enables the capture of all network packets that are sent across a LAN.
a scanning technique that examines a range of TCP or UDP port numbers on a host to detect listening services

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

What is the term used when a malicious party sends a fraudulent email disguised as being from a legitimate, trusted source?

Select one of the following:

Trojan
vishing
phishing
backdoor

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

What are the three major components of a worm attack? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

an enabling vulnerability
a propagation mechanism
a payload
a probing mechanism
a penetration mechanism
an infecting vulnerability

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

Which security threat installs on a computer without the knowledge of the user and then monitors computer activity?

Select one of the following:

spyware
viruses
worms
adware

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

What are two monitoring tools that capture network traffic and forward it to network monitoring devices? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

SPAN
network tap
SNMP
SIEM
Wireshark

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

Which technology is an open source SIEM system?

Select one of the following:

Wireshark
StealWatch
Splunk
ELK

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

What network attack seeks to create a DoS for clients by preventing them from being able to obtain a DHCP lease?

Select one of the following:

IP address spoofing
DHCP starvation
CAM table attack
DHCP spoofing

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

Which protocol would be the target of a cushioning attack?

Select one of the following:

DHCP
HTTP
ARP
DNS

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

Which network monitoring capability is provided by using SPAN?

Select one of the following:

Network analysts are able to access network device log files and to monitor network behavior.
Statistics on packets flowing through Cisco routers and multilayer switches can be captured.
Traffic exiting and entering a switch is copied to a network monitoring device.
Real-time reporting and long-term analysis of security events are enabled.

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

Which type of DNS attack involves the cybercriminal compromising a parent domain and creating multiple subdomains to be used during the attacks?

Select one of the following:

shadowing
amplification and reflection
tunneling
cache poisoning

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

Refer to the exhibit. What protocol would be used by the syslog server service to create this type of output for security purposes?

Select one of the following:

NTP
AAA
ICMP
SNMP

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

What is the result of a passive ARP poisoning attack?

Select one of the following:

Confidential information is stolen.
Network clients experience a denial of service.
Data is modified in transit or malicious data is inserted in transit.
Multiple subdomains are created.

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

Which term is used for bulk advertising emails flooded to as many end users as possible?

Select one of the following:

spam
adware
brute force
phishing

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

Which capability is provided by the aggregation function in SIEM?

Select one of the following:

reducing the volume of event data by consolidating duplicate event records
searching logs and event records of multiple sources for more complete forensic analysis
presenting correlated and aggregated event data in real-time monitoring
increasing speed of detection and reaction to security threats by examining logs from many systems and applications

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

Which protocol is attacked when a cybercriminal provides an invalid gateway in order to create a man-in-the-middle attack?

Select one of the following:

HTTP or HTTPS
ICMP
DNS
DHCP

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

Which network monitoring tool can provide a complete audit trail of basic information of all IP flows on a Cisco router and forward the data to a device?

Select one of the following:

SPAN
Wireshark
NetFlow
SIEM

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

What are two methods used by cybercriminals to mask DNS attacks? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

domain generation algorithms
shadowing
fast flux
reflection
tunneling

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

Which protocol is exploited by cybercriminals who create malicious iFrames?

Select one of the following:

HTTP
ARP
DNS
DHCP

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

Which SIEM function is associated with speeding up detection of security threats by examining logs and events from different systems?

Select one of the following:

forensic analysis
retention
correlation
aggregation

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

In which TCP attack is the cybercriminal attempting to overwhelm a target host with half-open TCP connections?

Select one of the following:

reset attack
session hijacking attack
port scan attack
SYN flood attack

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

In which type of attack is falsified information used to redirect users to malicious Internet sites?

Select one of the following:

ARP cache poisoning
DNS amplification and reflection
DNS cache poisoning
domain generation

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator is inspecting the traffic flow of a particular server in order to make security recommendations to the departmental supervisor. Which recommendation should be made?

Select one of the following:

A more secure protocol should be used.
The total length (TL) field indicates an unsecure Layer 4 protocol is being used.
The person accessing the server should never access it from a device using a private IP address.
The person accessing the server should use the private IP address of the server.

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

Which network monitoring tool saves captured packets in a PCAP file?

Select one of the following:

Wireshark
SIEM
SNMP
NetFlow

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

Which cyber attack involves a coordinated attack from a botnet of zombie computers?

Select one of the following:

ICMP redirect
MITM
DDoS
address spoofing

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

How is optional network layer information carried by IPv6 packets?

Select one of the following:

inside an options field that is part of the IPv6 packet header
inside the Flow Label field
inside the payload carried by the IPv6 packet
inside an extension header attached to the main IPv6 packet header

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

What type of attack targets an SQL database using the input field of a user?

Select one of the following:

Cross-site scripting
SQL injection
buffer overflow
XML injection

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

What network monitoring technology enables a switch to copy and forward traffic sent and received on multiple interfaces out another interface toward a network analysis device?

Select one of the following:

port mirroring
NetFlow
SNMP
network tap

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

A web server administrator is configuring access settings to require users to authenticate first before accessing certain web pages. Which requirement of information security is addressed through the configuration?

Select one of the following:

availability
confidentiality
integrity
scalability

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

What component of a security policy explicitly defines the type of traffic allowed on a network and what users are allowed and not allowed to do?

Select one of the following:

password policies
identification and authentication policies
remote access policies
acceptable use policies

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

What is the principle of least privilege access control model?

Select one of the following:

User access to data is based on object attributes.
Users are granted rights on an as-needed approach.
Users are granted the strictest access control possible to data.
Users control access to data they own.

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

Which statement describes a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

Select one of the following:

RADIUS is supported by the Cisco Secure ACS software whereas TACACS+ is not.
RADIUS encrypts only the password whereas TACACS+ encrypts all communication.
RADIUS separates authentication and authorization whereas TACACS+ combines them as one process.
RADIUS uses TCP whereas TACACS+ uses UDP.

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

What is the purpose of mobile device management (MDM) software?

Select one of the following:

It is used to create a security policy.
It is used to implement security policies, setting, and software configurations on mobile devices.
It is used by threat actors to penetrate the system.
It is used to identify potential mobile device vulnerabilities.

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

What service determines which resources a user can access along with the operations that a user can perform?

Select one of the following:

authentication
biometric
authorization
accounting
token

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?

Select one of the following:

automation
accounting
authentication
authorization

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

In threat intelligence communications, what set of specifications is for exchanging cyberthreat information between organizations?

Select one of the following:

Trusted automated exchange of indicator information (TAXII)
Structured threat information expression (STIX)
Automated indicator sharing (AIS)
Common vulnerabilities and exposures (CVE)

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

What three items are components of the CIA triad? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

integrity
availability
confidentiality
access
scalability
intervention

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

A company is experiencing overwhelming visits to a main web server. The IT department is developing a plan to add a couple more web servers for load balancing and redundancy. Which requirement of information security is addressed by implementing the plan?

Select one of the following:

integrity
scalability
availability
confidentiality

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

Which AAA component can be established using token cards?

Select one of the following:

authorization
authentication
auditing
accounting

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

Which method is used to make data unreadable to unauthorized users?

Select one of the following:

Encrypt the data.
Fragment the data.
Add a checksum to the end of the data.
Assign it a username and password.

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

Which two areas must an IT security person understand in order to identify vulnerabilities on a network? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

number of systems on each network
network baseline data
data analysis trends
hardware used by applications
important applications used

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

Which three services are provided by the AAA framework? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

autoconfiguration
automation
authorization
authentication
autobalancing
accounting

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

How does BYOD change the way in which businesses implement networks?

Select one of the following:

BYOD provides flexibility in where and how users can access network resources.
BYOD requires organizations to purchase laptops rather than desktops.
BYOD users are responsible for their own network security, thus reducing the need for organizational security policies.
BYOD devices are more expensive than devices that are purchased by an organization.

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

Which technology provides the framework to enable scalable access security?

Select one of the following:

AutoSecure
role-based CLI access
authentication, authorization, and accounting
Simple Network Management Protocol
Cisco Configuration Professional communities

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

Which device is usually the first line of defense in a layered defense-in-depth approach?

Select one of the following:

access layer switch
internal router
edge router
firewall

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

In a defense-in-depth approach, which three options must be identified to effectively defend a network against attacks? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

assets that need protection
location of attacker or attackers
total number of devices that attach to the wired and wireless network
threats to assets
vulnerabilities in the system
past security breaches

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

Which section of a security policy is used to specify that only authorized individuals should have access to enterprise data?

Select one of the following:

statement of authority
statement of scope
campus access policy
Internet access policy
identification and authentication policy
acceptable use policy

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

Which type of access control applies the strictest access control and is commonly used in military or mission critical applications?

Select one of the following:

mandatory access control (MAC)
discretionary access control (DAC)
attribute-based access control (ABAC)
Non-discretionary access control

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

Which algorithm is used to automatically generate a shared secret for two systems to use in establishing an IPsec VPN?

Select one of the following:

SSL
DES
AH
DH
ESP
3DES

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

A security specialist is tasked to ensure that files transmitted between the headquarters office and the branch office are not altered during transmission. Which two algorithms can be used to achieve this task? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

3DES
HMAC
AES
SHA-1
MD5

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

In which way does the use of HTTPS increase the security monitoring challenges within enterprise networks?

Select one of the following:

HTTPS traffic can carry a much larger data payload than HTTP can carry.
HTTPS traffic is much faster than HTTP traffic.
HTTPS traffic does not require authentication.
HTTPS traffic enables end-to-end encryption.

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

What technology has a function of using trusted third-party protocols to issue credentials that are accepted as an authoritative identity?

Select one of the following:

hashing algorithms
digital signatures
symmetric keys
PKI certificates

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

Which three algorithms are designed to generate and verify digital signatures? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

IKE
DSA
RSA
ECDSA
AES
3DES

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

What are two properties of a cryptographic hash function? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Complex inputs will produce complex hashes.
Hash functions can be duplicated for authentication purposes.
The hash function is one way and irreversible.
The input for a particular hash algorithm has to have a fixed size.
The output is a fixed length.

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

Which statement is a feature of HMAC?

Select one of the following:

HMAC uses a secret key that is only known to the sender and defeats man-in-the-middle attacks.
HMAC uses protocols such as SSL or TLS to provide session layer confidentiality.
HMAC uses a secret key as input to the hash function, adding authentication to integrity assurance.
HMAC is based on the RSA hash function.

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

Which two statements describe the characteristics of symmetric algorithms? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

They are commonly used with VPN traffic.
They use a pair of a public key and a private key.
They are commonly implemented in the SSL and SSH protocols.
They provide confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
They are referred to as a pre-shared key or secret key.

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

Which encryption algorithm is an asymmetric algorithm?

Select one of the following:

AES
SEAL
DH
3DES

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

Which statement describes the use of certificate classes in the PKI?

Select one of the following:

Email security is provided by the vendor, not by a certificate.
A vendor must issue only one class of certificates when acting as a CA.
A class 5 certificate is more trustworthy than a class 4 certificate.
The lower the class number, the more trusted the certificate.

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

What is the focus of cryptanalysis?

Select one of the following:

developing secret codes
breaking encrypted codes
implementing encrypted codes
hiding secret codes

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

Two users must authenticate each other using digital certificates and a CA. Which option describes the CA authentication procedure?

Select one of the following:

The users must obtain the certificate of the CA and then their own certificate.
The CA is always required, even after user verification is complete.
CA certificates are retrieved out-of-band using the PSTN, and the authentication is done in-band over a network.
After user verification is complete, the CA is no longer required, even if one of the involved certificates expires.

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

When implementing keys for authentication, if an old key length with 4 bits is increased to 8 bits, which statement describes the new key space?

Select one of the following:

The key space is increased by 3 times.
The key space is increased by 8 times.
The key space is increased by 15 times.
The key space is increased by 16 times.

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

What is the service framework that is needed to support large-scale public key-based technologies?

Select one of the following:

PKI
RSA
3DES
HMAC

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

What are the two important components of a public key infrastructure (PKI) used in network security? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

symmetric encryption algorithms
certificate authority
intrusion prevention system
digital certificates
pre-shared key generation

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

A company is developing a security policy to ensure that OSPF routing updates are authenticated with a key. What can be used to achieve the task?

Select one of the following:

SHA-1
HMAC
AES
MD5
3DES

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

An online retailer needs a service to support the nonrepudiation of the transaction. Which component is used for this service?

Select one of the following:

the private key of the retailer
the digital signatures
the unique shared secret known only by the retailer and the customer
the public key of the retailer

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

Which statement describes the Software-Optimized Encryption Algorithm (SEAL)?

Select one of the following:

It uses a 112-bit encryption key.
It requires more CPU resources than software-based AES does.
It is an example of an asymmetric algorithm.
SEAL is a stream cipher.

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

What role does an RA play in PKI?

Select one of the following:

a super CA
a subordinate CA
a backup root CA
a root CA

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

What technology allows users to verify the identity of a website and to trust code that is downloaded from the Internet?

Select one of the following:

encryption
asymmetric key algorithm
digital signature
hash algorithm

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

Which three services are provided through digital signatures? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

accounting
authenticity
compression
nonrepudiation
integrity
encryption

	Created by Good Guy Beket over 5 years ago

Advanced Fundamentals of Information Security [Teachers: Abdulanova Altynay, Sagymbekova Azhar; STATE EXAM] ▼ (State Exam) Quiz on Fundamentals of Information Security [State Exam | Part 1], created by Good Guy Beket on 18/03/2019.

Fundamentals of Information Security [State Exam | Part 1]

Question 1 of 200

What is a potential risk when using a free and open wireless hotspot in a public location?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

How does a security information and event management system (SIEM) in a SOC help the personnel fight against security threats?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

Which statement best describes a motivation of hacktivists?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

If a SOC has a goal of 99.999% uptime, how many minutes of downtime a year would be considered within its goal?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

Why do IoT devices pose a greater risk than other computing devices on a network?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

Which two services are provided by security operations centers? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

Which organization offers the vendor-neutral CySA+ certification?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

What was used as a cyberwarfare weapon to attack a uranium enrichment facility in Iran?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

Which three technologies should be included in a SOC security information and event management system? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

Which personnel in a SOC is assigned the task of verifying whether an alert triggered by monitoring software represents a true security incident?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

Which statement describes cyberwarfare?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

In the operation of a SOC, which system is frequently used to let an analyst select alerts from a pool to investigate?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

What name is given to an amateur hacker?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

Which personnel in a SOC are assigned the task of hunting for potential threats and implementing threat detection tools?

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Explanation

Question 16 of 200

What utility is available on a Windows PC to view current running applications and processes?

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Explanation

Question 17 of 200

A user logs in to Windows with a regular user account and attempts to use an application that requires administrative privileges. What can the user do to successfully use the application?

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Explanation

Question 18 of 200

A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?

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Explanation

Question 19 of 200

Where are the settings that are chosen during the installation process stored?

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Explanation

Question 20 of 200

What technology was created to replace the BIOS program on modern personal computer motherboards?

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Refer to the exhibit. A cyber security administrator is attempting to view system information from the Windows PowerShell and recieves the error message shown. “The requested operation requires elevation.”
What action does the administrator need to take to successfully run the command?