Marina Martins
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Graduate Accelerated Veterinary Medicine (Reproduction) Quiz on BVetMed3: Disorders of Pregnancy and the Puerperium, created by Marina Martins on 08/04/2019.

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Marina Martins
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BVetMed3: Disorders of Pregnancy and the Puerperium

Question 1 of 41

1

Which of the following would be a foeto-maternal disproportional reason for dystocia?

Select one of the following:

  • Inadequate pelvic diameter of the mother's birth canal

  • Primary uterine inertia

  • Failure of cervix to relax

  • Abnormal presentation of the foetus

Explanation

Question 2 of 41

1

Foetal monsters are

Select one of the following:

  • a maternal cause of dystocia

  • a foetal cause of dystocia

  • a foeto-maternal disproportional cause of dystocia

Explanation

Question 3 of 41

1

Which of the following is FALSE regarding traction forced extraction in cases of dystocia?

Select one of the following:

  • If the carpal joing is 10 cm outside the cow, it will fit as long as two people are pulling

  • For double-muscled calves, 2 people should be pulling

  • One the head is born, rotate the calf 90 degrees and change the pulling direction dorsally

  • Make sure the calf's legs are not crossed and that there are ropes/chains on both legs

Explanation

Question 4 of 41

1

The relationship between the longitudinal axis of the foetus and dam and the portion of th feotus entering the birth canal refers to

Select one of the following:

  • Foetal presentation

  • Foetal position

  • Foetal posture

Explanation

Question 5 of 41

1

What is the most common issue with foetal disposition?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Presentation

  • Position

  • Posture

Explanation

Question 6 of 41

1

The relationship between the dorsal surface of the foetus and the surface of the maternal birth canal is known as

Select one of the following:

  • Foetal presentation

  • Foetal position

  • Foetal posture

Explanation

Question 7 of 41

1

The disposition of the movable appendages of the foetus refers to

Select one of the following:

  • foetal presentation

  • foetal position

  • foetal posture

Explanation

Question 8 of 41

1

Which of the following is the normal foetal position of a calf entering the birth canal?

Select one of the following:

  • anterior

  • posterior

  • dorsal

  • ventral

  • transverse

Explanation

Question 9 of 41

1

Which of the following foetal dispositions would most strongly suggest twins?

Select one of the following:

  • anterior, dorsal, bilateral carpal flexion

  • posterior, dorsal, bilateral hip flexion

  • anterior, dorsal, neck flexion

  • anterior, ventral, unilateral carpal flexion

Explanation

Question 10 of 41

1

In the cow, when does most embryonic mortality occur by?

Select one of the following:

  • day 14

  • day 28

  • day 35

  • day 42

Explanation

Question 11 of 41

1

The corpus luteum persists in

Select one of the following:

  • maceration

  • mummification

  • still births

  • foetal resorption

Explanation

Question 12 of 41

1

In cows, hydrops is mainly seen in the

Select one of the following:

  • first trimester of pregnancy

  • last trimester of pregnancy

  • second trimester of pregnancy

Explanation

Question 13 of 41

1

Which of the following is FALSE regarding uterine torsions in cows?

Select one of the following:

  • They prefer to turn in a clockwise direction

  • They mainly affect heifers

  • They can be diagnosed via a vaginal and rectal exam

  • The calf is usually presented upside down

Explanation

Question 14 of 41

1

Which of the following is a NOT a predisposing factor for vaginal prolapse in farm animals?

Select one of the following:

  • High BCS

  • Twins

  • Increased oestrogen

  • Increased progesterone

  • Age

  • High Roughage diet

Explanation

Question 15 of 41

1

What is the main risk factor for uterine prolapse?

Select one of the following:

  • Hypocalcaemia

  • Age

  • Increased oestrogens during parturition

  • Trauma

Explanation

Question 16 of 41

1

Oxytocin can be used to treat uterine prolapse.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 17 of 41

1

What can be used to accelerate involution of the uterus after calving?

Select one of the following:

  • Prostaglandins

  • Progesterone

  • Oestrogen

  • Corticosteroids

Explanation

Question 18 of 41

1

Which of the following would be considered abnormal regarding lochial discharge?

Select one of the following:

  • It causes a systemic response in the mother by producing acute phase proteins

  • The discharge is reddish or yellowish brown

  • The discharge has a strong, fetid odour

  • It consists of necrotic material, blood and foetal fluids

  • It occurs 2-9 days post-partum

Explanation

Question 19 of 41

1

Which of the following is NOT a major mechanism for uterine bacterial elimination?

Select one of the following:

  • Phagocytosis by leukocytes

  • Physical expulsion by uterine contractions

  • Dilution by uterine secretions

  • Production of neutralising antibodies

Explanation

Question 20 of 41

1

Involution involves

Select one of the following:

  • Reduction in the size of myofibers

  • Reduction in the size of myofibrils

  • Reduction in the size of both myofibers and myofibrils

Explanation

Question 21 of 41

1

Which of the following is NOT a factor that will disrupt any of the major processes of puerperium?

Select one of the following:

  • Involution

  • Endometrial repair

  • Resumption of ovarian function

  • Elimination of bacterial contamination of the reproductive tract

  • Safe delivery of newborn foetus

Explanation

Question 22 of 41

1

Which of the following is FALSE regarding uterine prolapse in dairy cows?

Select one of the following:

  • It is more common in pluriparous cows than in heifers

  • Mostly occurs a few weeks post-calving

  • Can happen because of an increased calving-to-conception interval

  • Major cause is hypocalcaemia

Explanation

Question 23 of 41

1

Deficiency of which micronutrients can predispose a dairy cow to retained foetal membranes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Selenium

  • Vitamin E

  • Vitamin A

  • Vitamin B12

  • Vitamin K

Explanation

Question 24 of 41

1

In cows, which uterine disease is more likely to occur up to to 21 days post-partum?

Select one of the following:

  • Endometritis

  • Metritis

  • Pyometra

Explanation

Question 25 of 41

1

Oestrogen can be used to treat puerperal metritis in cows.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 41

1

Which of the following is TRUE regarding pyometra in dairy cows?

Select one of the following:

  • Occurs in the presence of an active, persistent corpus luteum

  • It is a sequel to chronic metritis

  • A common accompanying clinical sign is PU/PD

  • The cervix is usually open

Explanation

Question 27 of 41

1

What is the youngest age requirement for use of anaesthesia in bulls and goats?

Select one of the following:

  • 3 months

  • 2 months

  • 1 month

  • 1 week

Explanation

Question 28 of 41

1

What is the youngest age requirement for anaesthesia use in rams?

Select one of the following:

  • 3 months

  • 2 months

  • 1 month

  • 1 week

Explanation

Question 29 of 41

1

Which of the following animals is usually left uncastrated in the UK?

Select one of the following:

  • Calves

  • Lambs

  • Goats

  • Pigs

Explanation

Question 30 of 41

1

Which of the following is FALSE regarding castration in farm animals?

Select one of the following:

  • Burdizzos have a low failure rate

  • Elastrators have a low failure rate

  • Elastrators must be used within 1 week of birth by law

  • Burdizzo involves using two clamps per testis

Explanation

Question 31 of 41

1

What type of anaesthesia should you use with open castrations of calves?

Select one of the following:

  • General anaesthesia only

  • A single intra-testicular local anaesthetic dose

  • General anaesthesia and bilateral intra-testicular local anaesthetic

  • Local anaesthetic injected bilaterally around the spermatic cord

  • Local anaesthetic injected under the skin

Explanation

Question 32 of 41

1

What is the most frequent overall indication of cesarean operation in cattle?

Select one of the following:

  • foeto-maternal disproportion

  • incomplete dilation of the cervix

  • foetal deformity

  • irreducible uterine torsion

Explanation

Question 33 of 41

1

In c-sections in cattle, which of the following is NOT typically a site for a paravertebral nerve block?

Select one of the following:

  • T13

  • L1

  • L2

  • L3

  • L4

Explanation

Question 34 of 41

1

What type of suture material would you traditionally use to suture the uterus in a c-section of a cow?

Select one of the following:

  • Catgut

  • Biosyn

  • PDS

  • Vicryl

Explanation

Question 35 of 41

1

What type of suture pattern would you use to suture the uterus in a c-section of a cow?

Select one of the following:

  • continuous inverting pattern

  • simple continuous pattern

  • double layer of simple, interrupted pattern

  • double layer of cruciate pattern

Explanation

Question 36 of 41

1

How long does it take for sows to reach puberty?

Select one of the following:

  • 4 months

  • 5 months

  • 6 months

  • 7 months

Explanation

Question 37 of 41

1

What is the gestation period of pregnancy in the sow?

Select one of the following:

  • 150 days

  • 240 days

  • 75 days

  • 114 days

  • 90 days

Explanation

Question 38 of 41

1

How long does the sow lactate for post-partum?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 weeks

  • 4 weeks

  • 6 weeks

  • 8 weeks

Explanation

Question 39 of 41

1

How long does it take for a sow to return to oestrus after lactation?

Select one of the following:

  • 5 days

  • 10 days

  • 2 weeks

  • 4 weeks

Explanation

Question 40 of 41

1

At what day of gestation is the piglet fetus immunocompetant?

Select one of the following:

  • 35 days

  • 40 days

  • 60 days

  • 70 days

Explanation

Question 41 of 41

1

How would you treat agalactia in sows?

Select one of the following:

  • Single dose of oxytocin

  • Systemic broad-spectrum antibtioics

  • Topical antibiotic

  • Single dose of PGF2a

  • Single dose of oestrogen

  • Corticosteroids

Explanation

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