MRaythe
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Final Pharmacology I Quiz from Veterinary Pharmacology I taught by Dr. Werners, and Lady Dr. Kumar

270
4
0
MRaythe
Created by MRaythe almost 10 years ago
Close

Pharmacology I: Final Quiz

Question 1 of 158

1

1. MUSCLE RELAXANTS: True or false: guaifenesin selectively depresses transmission at internuncial neurons in the spinal cord, brainstem, and subcortical areas

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 2 of 158

1

Which is not an effect of guaifenesin?

Select one of the following:

  • Depresses CNS giving sedation and muscle relaxation

  • Decrease BP which then returns to normal

  • High doses can cause respiratory depression

  • Analgesia

Explanation

Question 3 of 158

1

Which of the following is false regarding guaifenesin?

Select one of the following:

  • It has hepatic metabolism to a glucuronide and is excreted in urine

  • You should avoid using it with physostigmine

  • It lasts longer in female ponies than males

  • It can cause hemolysis in cows

Explanation

Question 4 of 158

1

Which muscle relaxant requires artificial ventilation with use?

Select one of the following:

  • Guaifenesin

  • Neuromuscular blockers

  • That’s it…

Explanation

Question 5 of 158

1

Which type of neuromuscular block are agonists at the ACh receptor?

Select one of the following:

  • Depolarizing

  • Non-depolarizing

Explanation

Question 6 of 158

1

Which non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers are incorrectly matched with their duration

Select one of the following:

  • Mivacurium—short

  • Tubocurarine, doxacurium, pancuronium, pipecuronium—long

  • Atracurium, rocurium, vecuronium—intermediate

  • All of the above are correct!

Explanation

Question 7 of 158

1

Which of the following causes initial muscle fasciculation?

Select one of the following:

  • Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

  • Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Explanation

Question 8 of 158

1

Which of the following are competitive antagonists at the ACh nicotinic receptor?

Select one of the following:

  • Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

  • Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Explanation

Question 9 of 158

1

Which of the following is not a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?

Select one of the following:

  • Decamethonium

  • Suxamethonium

  • Mivacurium

Explanation

Question 10 of 158

1

On which of the following can you use anticholinesterase drugs to remove the effect?

Select one of the following:

  • Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

  • Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Explanation

Question 11 of 158

1

True or false: the amount of fasciculation correlates with the post-operative muscle pain

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 12 of 158

1

Which of the following is not an effect of suxamethonium?

Select one of the following:

  • Decreased intraocular pressure

  • Potassium release

  • Bradycardia

  • Prolonged paralysis

  • Sometimes malignant hyperthermia

Explanation

Question 13 of 158

1

Which of the following does not influence the effect of muscle relaxants?

Select one of the following:

  • Other neuromuscular agents

  • Cholinesterase inhibitors

  • Aminoglycoside antibiotics

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 14 of 158

1

Which of the following is the most sensitive to neuromuscular blockers?

Select one of the following:

  • Dogs

  • Cats

  • Cattle

  • Sheep

Explanation

Question 15 of 158

1

In which species do you most commonly use neuromuscular blockers?

Select one of the following:

  • Pigs and cats

  • Dogs and horses

  • Cattle and sheep

  • Horses and cats

Explanation

Question 16 of 158

1

HEMOSTATIC AND ANTICOAGULANTS: Which of the following hemostatics can cause extensive intravascular clotting when administered intravenously?

Select one of the following:

  • Fibrinogen

  • Thromboplastin

  • Thrombin

  • Fibrin

Explanation

Question 17 of 158

1

What’s a good characteristic of a topical hemostatic?

Select one of the following:

  • Minimal tissue reactivity

  • Easy to sterilize and handle

  • Consist of either thrombin or collagen

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 18 of 158

1

Which is used in measurement of prothrombin time during anticoagulant therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Fibrinogen

  • Thromboplastin

  • Thrombin

  • Fibrin

Explanation

Question 19 of 158

1

Which topical hemostatic converts endogenous fibrinogen to fibrin for clot formation?

Select one of the following:

  • Fibrinogen

  • Thromboplastin

  • Thrombin

  • Fibrin

Explanation

Question 20 of 158

1

Which topical hemostatic can be used for bleeding from denuded mucous membranes, as an adhesive in skin grafts, and for massive blood loss?

Select one of the following:

  • Fibrinogen

  • Thromboplastin

  • Thrombin

  • Fibrin

Explanation

Question 21 of 158

1

Which topical hemostatic is used for bleeding from parenchymatous tissue, cancellous bone, dental sockets, laryngeal/nasal surgery, reconstructive surgery, and as an adhesive agent for fixation of skin grafts?

Select one of the following:

  • Fibrinogen

  • Thromboplastin

  • Thrombin

  • Fibrin

Explanation

Question 22 of 158

1

Is fibrin foam soluble?

Select one of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 23 of 158

1

What do you use absorbable gelatin sponge/gelfoam for?

Select one of the following:

  • Oozing from the surface area

  • Massive blood loss

  • Capillary/venous bleeding

  • Surgery of the liver and spleen

Explanation

Question 24 of 158

1

Which of the following should only be used temporarily because otherwise you’d get fractures and cysts?

Select one of the following:

  • Oxidized cellulose

  • Gelatin sponge

  • Microcrystalline collagen

  • Styptics

Explanation

Question 25 of 158

1

Which are clinical uses of microcrystalline collagen?

Select one of the following:

  • Clotting factor deficiencies

  • Thrombocytopenia

  • Surgery of the liver and spleen

  • Clotting factor deficiencies and Thrombocytopenia

  • Clotting factor deficiencies and Surgery of the liver and spleen

  • Thrombocytopenia and Surgery of the liver and spleen

Explanation

Question 26 of 158

1

Which topical hemostatic produces immediate vasoconstriction and controls bleeding from small vessels?

Select one of the following:

  • Oxidized cellulose

  • Gelatin sponge

  • Microcrystalline collagen

  • Epinephrine

Explanation

Question 27 of 158

1

What’s the problem with high concentrations of styptics?

Select one of the following:

  • Cyst formation

  • Fractures

  • Sloughing of tissues and hemorrhage

  • Reduced effectiveness

Explanation

Question 28 of 158

1

Which systemic hemostatic is used for emergency treatment of acute hemorrhagic syndromes with deficiency of clotting factors/platelets?

Select one of the following:

  • Vitamin K

  • Blood

  • Desmopressin acetate

  • Protamine sulfate

Explanation

Question 29 of 158

1

Which systemic hemostatic releases stored vWf from endothelial cell and macrophages and controls capillary bleeding from wounds?

Select one of the following:

  • Vitamin K

  • Blood

  • Desmopressin acetate

  • Protamine sulfate

Explanation

Question 30 of 158

1

Which systemic hemostatic is made from fish sperm?

Select one of the following:

  • Vitamin K

  • Blood

  • Desmopressin acetate

  • Protamine sulfate

Explanation

Question 31 of 158

1

Which systemic hemostatic is used to antagonize heparin-induced hemorrhagic action (since it’s basic and combines with the acidic heparin to prevent it from acting as an anticoagulant)?

Select one of the following:

  • Vitamin K

  • Blood

  • Desmopressin acetate

  • Protamine sulfate

Explanation

Question 32 of 158

1

Which systemic hemostatic aids in the production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and should not be given IM or IV?

Select one of the following:

  • Vitamin K

  • Blood

  • Desmopressin acetate

  • Protamine sulfate

Explanation

Question 33 of 158

1

Repeated administration of which drug reduces its effectiveness?

Select one of the following:

  • Vitamin K

  • Blood

  • Desmopressin acetate

  • Protamine sulfate

Explanation

Question 34 of 158

1

Which anticoagulant should you not use for laboratory diagnostic purposes?

Select one of the following:

  • Sodium oxalate

  • Acid citrate dextrose

  • Sodium citrate

  • Edetate disodium

Explanation

Question 35 of 158

1

Which is not part of the mechanism of heparin?

Select one of the following:

  • Binds reversibly to antithrombin III to produce conformational changes to it, thereby inhibiting thrombin and activated factor Xa

  • Binds to endothelial walls, imparts negative charge, inhibits platelet adhesion and aggregation

  • Inhibits hepatic synthesis of prothrombin and factors II, VII, IX, and X

  • Increases plasminogen activator and tissue factor inhibitor

Explanation

Question 36 of 158

1

Which of these describes the action of heparin?

Select one of the following:

  • Antithrombotic

  • Anticoagulatory

  • Neither

  • Both

Explanation

Question 37 of 158

1

Which of the following statements is false regarding heparin?

Select one of the following:

  • It’s used to prevent venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism, and to treat thromboemboli, as well as to treat DIC and to decrease risk factors in heartworm

    adulticide treatment

  • It prevents serosal post-operative adhesions

  • It’s metabolized by the liver and reticulo endothelial system

  • Its antidotes are protamine and fresh blood

Explanation

Question 38 of 158

1

Which of the following is false regarding vitamin K antagonists?

Select one of the following:

  • It is stored in adipose tissue

  • Undergoes metabolism in the liver and is excreted in urine

  • It’s used for prophylaxis and treatment of venous thrombosis

  • Its side effect is hemorrhage

Explanation

Question 39 of 158

1

Which of the following is false regarding fibrinolytic agents?

Select one of the following:

  • Streptokinase can cause systemic fibrinolysis

  • Tissue plasminogen activator is used for lysis of aortic thromboemboli in cats

  • Fibrinolysin is an activator of plasminogen

  • Urokinase is isolated from pee and prevents serosal post-operative adhesions in dogs

Explanation

Question 40 of 158

1

Which of the following irreversibly binds COX in order to inhibit thromboxane A2 and prostaglandins?

Select one of the following:

  • Aspirin

  • Clopidogrel

  • Dipyrimadole

  • Ticlopridine

Explanation

Question 41 of 158

1

Which of the following inhibits phosphodiesterase, increasing cAMP levels in platelets, which inhibits aggregation?

Select one of the following:

  • Aspirin

  • Clopidogrel

  • Dipyrimadole

  • Ticlopidine

Explanation

Question 42 of 158

1

Which of the following is a P2Y12 receptor inhibitor, resulting in more cAMP and less aggregation of platelets?

Select one of the following:

  • Aspirin

  • Dipyrimadole

  • Ticlopidine

Explanation

Question 43 of 158

1

ANTICONVULSANTS: True or false: seizures are associated with episodic high frequency discharge of impulses by a group of neurons

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 44 of 158

1

Which of the following neurotransmitters is not involved in epileptogenesis?

Select one of the following:

  • Glutamate

  • Aspartate

  • Glycine

  • GABA

Explanation

Question 45 of 158

1

Which of the following is a problem associated with seizures?

Select one of the following:

  • Brain edema

  • Hyperthermia

  • Aspiration pneumonia

  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation

  • Permanent brain injury

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 46 of 158

1

Which is not a drug used in emergency treatment of seizures that stimulates GABA?

Select one of the following:

  • Phenytoin

  • Barbiturates

  • Benzodiazepines

  • Valproate

Explanation

Question 47 of 158

1

Which of the following drugs is mismatched with its mechanism of action?

Select one of the following:

  • Carbamazepine—inhibition of Na channels

  • Zonisamide—inhibition of Ca channels

  • Propofol—inhibition of Ca channels

  • Phenytoin—inhibition of Na channels

Explanation

Question 48 of 158

1

Which of the following drugs is a GABA agonist?

Select one of the following:

  • Zonisamide

  • Carbemazepine

  • Lamotrigrine

  • Etomidate

Explanation

Question 49 of 158

1

True or false: benzodiazepines decrease frequency of opening of GABA receptors.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 50 of 158

1

Which route should you not use for lorazepam or midazolam?

Select one of the following:

  • IV

  • IM

  • Intranasal

  • Intrarectal

Explanation

Question 51 of 158

1

Which benzodiazepine inhibits T-type calcium channels?

Select one of the following:

  • Diazepam

  • Clonazepam

  • Midazolam

  • Lorazepam

Explanation

Question 52 of 158

1

What is not a side effect of barbiturates?

Select one of the following:

  • Hepatotoxicity

  • Autoinduction of CYP450

  • Sedation

  • Anorexia

Explanation

Question 53 of 158

1

True or false: barbiturates enhance GABA A by increasing the frequency of opening of the chloride channel.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 54 of 158

1

Which of the following drugs works by competing with chloride, hyperpolarizing the neuronal membranes?

Select one of the following:

  • Gabapentin

  • Midazolam

  • Potassium bromide

  • Phenobarbital

Explanation

Question 55 of 158

1

Which of the following can potassium bromide be used for?

Select one of the following:

  • Only emergencies

  • Only add on

  • Both

  • Neither

Explanation

Question 56 of 158

1

Which is not a mechanism of action of felbamate?

Select one of the following:

  • Blocking NMDA-mediated neuronal excitation

  • Potentiation of GABA-mediated neuronal inhibition

  • Inhibition of voltage sensitive neuronal Cl channels

  • Protects neurons from hypoxic or ischemic damage

Explanation

Question 57 of 158

1

True or false: felbamate is well absorbed from oral administration and has a wide safety margin

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 58 of 158

1

Which of the following drugs has absorption depending on an L-amino acid carrier, making the process saturable?

Select one of the following:

  • Levetiracetam

  • Gabapentin

  • Felbamate

  • Phenobarbital

Explanation

Question 59 of 158

1

True or false: pregabalin has a long half life

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 60 of 158

1

Which of the following drugs works by binding to SV2A?

Select one of the following:

  • Zonisamide

  • Gabapentin

  • Felbamate

  • Levetiracetam

Explanation

Question 61 of 158

1

Which of the following drugs is partially excreted unchanged and partly glucuronidated?

Select one of the following:

  • Zonisamide

  • Gabapentin

  • Felbamate

  • Levetiracetam

Explanation

Question 62 of 158

1

Which of the following drugs weakly inhibits GABA transaminase and has some effect on sodium and T-type calcium channels?

Select one of the following:

  • Phenytoin

  • Valproate

  • Vigabatrin

  • Carbamazepine

Explanation

Question 63 of 158

1

Which of the following drugs is metabolized by mixed function oxidases and is well absorbed orally?

Select one of the following:

  • Phenytoin

  • Valproate

  • Vigabatrin

  • Carbamazepine

Explanation

Question 64 of 158

1

Which of the following drugs inhibits GABA transaminase by forming an irreversible covalent bond, resulting in increased GABA?

Select one of the following:

  • Phenytoin

  • Valproate

  • Vigabatrin

  • Carbamazepine

Explanation

Question 65 of 158

1

Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant with hepatic metabolism that is a strong inducer of hepatic enzymes?

Select one of the following:

  • Phenytoin

  • Valproate

  • Vigabatrin

  • Carbamazepine

Explanation

Question 66 of 158

1

BEHAVIOR MODIFIERS: Which of the following is not an indication of psychotropic drugs in vetmed?

Select one of the following:

  • Sedation and major tranquillizers

  • Behavioral disorders

  • Central analgesia

  • Peripheral anesthesia

  • Epilepsy

Explanation

Question 67 of 158

1

Which of the following is false regarding MAOIs?

Select one of the following:

  • MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine

  • MAO-A has only central effects

  • MAO-B has only central effects

  • MAO-B’s substrates are norepinephrine and dopamine

  • MAO-A’s substrates are serotonin, norepinephrine, and epinephrine

Explanation

Question 68 of 158

1

Which of the following is not associated with serotonin syndrome?

Select one of the following:

  • Hypertension

  • Hyperthermia

  • Metabolic alkalosis

  • Rhabdomyolysis

Explanation

Question 69 of 158

1

Which of the following is an example of an MAOI?

Select one of the following:

  • Selegiline

  • Amitriptyline

  • Clomipramine

  • Fluoxetine

  • Alprazolam

Explanation

Question 70 of 158

1

Which of the following is not an adverse effect of selegiline?

Select one of the following:

  • Hyperactivity

  • Stereotypic behavior

  • Phobias

Explanation

Question 71 of 158

1

Which of the following drugs is incorrectly matched with its indication?

Select one of the following:

  • Selegiline—dementia in dogs

  • Clomipramine—separation anxiety

  • Fluoxetine—aggression in male dogs

  • FFP—urine spraying in cats

Explanation

Question 72 of 158

1

7. True or false: SNRIs are metabolized via CYP450

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 73 of 158

1

What isn’t an adverse effect of SNRIs?

Select one of the following:

  • Hypertension

  • Tachycardia

  • Arrhythmia

  • Salivation

  • Constipation

Explanation

Question 74 of 158

1

Which of the following is true about SNRIs according to slide 11 (e.g. generally)?

Select one of the following:

  • They have antihistamine effects

  • They have anticholinergic effects

  • They’re alpha-1 antagonists

  • These are all true!

Explanation

Question 75 of 158

1

Which of the following is not an indication for SNRI use in dogs?

Select one of the following:

  • Excessive arousal (mild aggression)

  • Inappropriate urination

  • Compulsive disorders

  • Anxiety

Explanation

Question 76 of 158

1

Which SNRI has analgesic properties?

Select one of the following:

  • Amitriptyline

  • Imipramine

  • Clomipramine

Explanation

Question 77 of 158

1

Which SNRI has equal effects on serotonin and norepinephrine?

Select one of the following:

  • Amitriptyline

  • Imipramine

  • Clomipramine

Explanation

Question 78 of 158

1

Which SNRI is used for separation anxiety and canine compulsive disorders?

Select one of the following:

  • Amitriptyline

  • Imipramine

  • Clomipramine

Explanation

Question 79 of 158

1

Which is an indication for SSRIs in cats?

Select one of the following:

  • Separation anxiety

  • Impulse aggression

  • Compulsive behavior

  • Dominance

Explanation

Question 80 of 158

1

Which is not an adverse effect of fluoxetine?

Select one of the following:

  • GI effects

  • Lethargy

  • Depression

  • Polyphagia

Explanation

Question 81 of 158

1

True or false: the metabolites of benzodiazepines are not active.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 82 of 158

1

True or false: in a dopaminergic synapse the enzyme beta-dopamine hydroxyls is missing

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 83 of 158

1

Neuroleptics block which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • ACH-M receptors

  • Alpha-adenoreceptors

  • Histamine receptors

  • Serotonin receptors

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 84 of 158

1

Which of the following is an incorrect example of receptor cross talk?

Select one of the following:

  • Adrenergic a2-receptor stimulation increases the release of dopamine and serotonin

  • Adrenergic B-receptor stimulation inhibits release of serotonin

  • Dopamine down-regulates serotonin auto-receptors

  • All of the above are true!

Explanation

Question 85 of 158

1

True or false: progestins and estrogen suppress the excitatory effects of glutamate.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 86 of 158

1

True or false: it’s totally fine to combine MAOIs and TCAs.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 87 of 158

1

SEDATIVES AND TRANQUILLIZERS: Which is not a therapeutic target for these?

Select one of the following:

  • GABA agonists

  • NMDA antagonists

  • D2 receptor

  • Alpha 1 receptor agonists

Explanation

Question 88 of 158

1

Which is not a mechanism of action of phenothiazines?

Select one of the following:

  • Block D2 receptors in the CNS

  • Block alpha adrenoceptors in the CNS

  • Block D receptors in the periphery

  • Block alpha receptors in the periphery

Explanation

Question 89 of 158

1

What is not an effect of phenothiazines?

Select one of the following:

  • CNS depression

  • Peripheral vasodilation

  • Good muscle relaxation

  • Analgesia

Explanation

Question 90 of 158

1

True or false: phenothiazines have extensive hepatic metabolism and metabolites are excreted in bile

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 91 of 158

1

Which of the following is false?

Select one of the following:

  • You should use chlorpromazine in horses

  • Some boxers have an exaggerated reaction to acepromazine

  • Acepromazine prevents occurrence of halothane induced malignant hyperthermia in pigs

  • Phenothiazines can be used to treat feline lower urinary tract disease

Explanation

Question 92 of 158

1

Which is false about the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?

Select one of the following:

  • They bind to and activate the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA-A receptor

  • They decrease the opening frequency of the Cl channel

  • They hyperpolarize the post-synaptic membrane

  • All of the above are true

Explanation

Question 93 of 158

1

Which GABA receptor subunit, when mutated, prevents binding of volatile and injectable agents?

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha

  • Beta

Explanation

Question 94 of 158

1

Which of the following is not an effect of benzodiazepines?

Select one of the following:

  • Dose dependent muscle relaxation

  • Biphasic cardiovascular response

  • Mild respiratory repression

  • Dose dependent CNS depression

  • Analgesia

Explanation

Question 95 of 158

1

True or false: benzodiazepines are reduced or glucuronidated and either excreted via the kidneys (diazepam) or both in the kidney and bile (lorazepam)

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 96 of 158

1

Which benzodiazepine has active metabolites?

Select one of the following:

  • Midazolam

  • Zolazepam

  • Diazepam

  • Lorazepam

Explanation

Question 97 of 158

1

In which patients should you not use benzodiazepines?

Select one of the following:

  • Those with fear-induced aggression

  • Those with hypersensitivity to benzodiazepines

  • Those with hepatic dysfunction

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 98 of 158

1

True or false: flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that has a high affinity for the BZ-binding sites.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 99 of 158

1

Which of the following is false regarding a2 agonists?

Select one of the following:

  • They target GPCRs Gi and Go

  • Their target has 7 transmembrane domains

  • A2B is the most important type of receptor for analgesia and anesthesia

  • They’re used for sedation, chemical restraint, and analgesia, as well as for emesis

    in cats

Explanation

Question 100 of 158

1

Which of the following is not an effect of a2 agonists?

Select one of the following:

  • Depressive on the CNS, reduces blood flow and O2 consumption

  • Mild, dose dependent respiratory depression

  • Poor muscle relaxation

  • Analgesia

  • Biphasic cardiovascular response

Explanation

Question 101 of 158

1

Which of the following is false regarding a2 agonists?

Select one of the following:

  • It can be administered parenterally, orally, or epidurally

  • It’s synergistic with opioids, local anesthetics, and NMDA antagonists

  • Medetomidine has a strong correlation between the effect and plasma concentration

  • Bioavailability of medetomidine is 100% in dogs and cats

Explanation

Question 102 of 158

1

In which animal can a2 agonists cause hypercapnia?

Select one of the following:

  • Horse

  • Cattle

  • Sheep

  • Cat

Explanation

Question 103 of 158

1

In which animal does xylazine cause activation of pulmonary intravascular macrophages, resulting in acute lung injury?

Select one of the following:

  • Horse

  • Cattle

  • Sheep

  • Cat

Explanation

Question 104 of 158

1

Which animal has an a2D receptor, making them more susceptible to the effects of sedatives?

Select one of the following:

  • Horse

  • Cattle

  • Sheep

  • Cat

Explanation

Question 105 of 158

1

In whom can you use a2 agonists?

Select one of the following:

  • Patients with diabetes mellitus

  • Patients with epilepsy

  • Patients with compromised cardiac function

  • Agitated animals

Explanation

Question 106 of 158

1

Which of the following regarding a2 antagonists is true?

Select one of the following:

  • They’re competitive antagonists at the a1 receptor

  • They have varying effects on the a2 receptor

  • They have varying effects at the a1 receptor

  • All of the above are false

Explanation

Question 107 of 158

1

Which of the following is a non-selective a-adrenergic antagonist?

Select one of the following:

  • Tolazoline

  • Yohimbine

  • Atipamezole

  • Romifidine

Explanation

Question 108 of 158

1

True or false: the answer to the previous question also has histaminergic and cholinergic effects

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 109 of 158

1

Butyrophenone derivatives work via all of the following except:

Select one of the following:

  • Antagonism of the D2 receptor

  • Antagonism of the a2 receptor

  • Some antihistaminergic properties

  • All of the above are true

Explanation

Question 110 of 158

1

Which of the following is not an effect of butyrophenones?

Select one of the following:

  • CNS depressive

  • Cardiovascular depressive

  • Reduced muscle tone

  • Analgesia

Explanation

Question 111 of 158

1

ANESTHESIA & ANALGESIA: Which is not a post-synaptic target for these drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • AMPA receptors

  • Synaptic vesicle proteins

  • NMDA receptors

  • EAAT

Explanation

Question 112 of 158

1

Which receptor type is incorrectly matched with its number of subunits?

Select one of the following:

  • NMDA—7

  • AMPA—4

  • Kainite—5

  • All of the above are correct!

Explanation

Question 113 of 158

1

Which ion blocks NMDA receptors?

Select one of the following:

  • Ca

  • Na

  • Mg

  • K

Explanation

Question 114 of 158

1

Activation of glutamate receptors requires the binding of which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Glutamate

  • Glycine

  • Both

  • Neither

Explanation

Question 115 of 158

1

Where do almost all anesthetics potentiate the action of GABA?

Select one of the following:

  • GABA-A

  • GABA-B

  • GABA-C

  • Somewhere else entirely

Explanation

Question 116 of 158

1

Which ion passes through the channel in the GABA receptors?

Select one of the following:

  • Na

  • Ca

  • Cl

  • Mg

Explanation

Question 117 of 158

1

Generally how many subunits are present in GABA receptors?

Select one of the following:

  • 3

  • 4

  • 5

  • 6

Explanation

Question 118 of 158

1

True or false: tyrosine hydroxylase (TH) is the rate limiting step in dopamine neurotransmission

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 119 of 158

1

Which of the following dopamine receptors increase adenylate cyclase activity (thereby increasing cAMP)?

Select one of the following:

  • D1

  • D2

  • D3

  • D4

Explanation

Question 120 of 158

1

True or false: presynaptic receptors are the clinically relevant ones in the a2 adrenergic synapse (on the slide from the review…)

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 121 of 158

1

HISTAMINE & SEROTONIN: Which is false regarding autacoids?

Select one of the following:

  • They’re local hormones

  • They’re long-lived

  • They include histamine, serotonin, nitric oxide

  • They include angiotensin and eicosanoids

Explanation

Question 122 of 158

1

Which of the following is not mediated by H1?

Select one of the following:

  • Inflammation

  • Allergies

  • Gastric acid secretion

  • Anaphylaxis

Explanation

Question 123 of 158

1

Which of the following is an H3 effect?

Select one of the following:

  • Smooth muscle contraction

  • Relaxing small arterioles

  • Gastric acid secretion

  • Modulating neurotransmitter release in the CNS

Explanation

Question 124 of 158

1

Where do you not have H4 receptors?

Select one of the following:

  • Dendritic cells

  • Mast cells

  • Basophils

  • Eosinophils

Explanation

Question 125 of 158

1

Which of the following is false regarding the production of histamine?

Select one of the following:

  • You start with histidine

  • Histidine decarboxylase is the enzyme

  • The group removed to form histamine is CO2

  • All of the above are true!

Explanation

Question 126 of 158

1

Which of the following is true regarding histamine stores?

Select one of the following:

  • The mast cell pool synthesizes histamine more quickly than the non-mast cell pool

  • The non-mast cell pool occurs in basophils

  • The mast cell pool continuously synthesizes and releases histamine

  • The mast cell pool plays a key role in drug reactions

Explanation

Question 127 of 158

1

In order to release histamine from mast cells, the cells must become more permeable to which ion?

Select one of the following:

  • Na

  • Ca

  • Cl

  • K

Explanation

Question 128 of 158

1

Which of the following is not a role of histamine?

Select one of the following:

  • Stimulate sensory nerve endings

  • Relax arterioles

  • Decrease capillary permeability

  • All of the above are roles of histamine!

Explanation

Question 129 of 158

1

Which is not an effect of histamine on the cardiovascular system?

Select one of the following:

  • Dilation of terminal arterioles

  • Decrease in blood pressure briefly

  • Dilation of large arteries and veins

  • Edema from increased capillary permeability

Explanation

Question 130 of 158

1

Which of the following is true regarding histamine-mediated vasodilation?

Select one of the following:

  • H2 has a long duration

  • H1 mediated is slow onset

  • H2 is at small doses

  • H2 induces high levels of tachycardia

Explanation

Question 131 of 158

1

In which group of animals does histamine relax bronchial smooth muscle?

Select one of the following:

  • Rabbits and dogs

  • Calves and pigs

  • Cats and sheep

  • Humans and guinea pigs

Explanation

Question 132 of 158

1

Which other smooth muscles are contracted by histamine?

Select one of the following:

  • Intestinal muscle

  • Uterine smooth muscle

  • Neither

  • Both

Explanation

Question 133 of 158

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • H1 is Gi while H2 is Gq

  • H1 is Gq while H2 is Gs

  • H1 is Gs, H2 is Gq

  • H1 is Gs, H2 is Gi

Explanation

Question 134 of 158

1

Which of these other receptors has the same pathway as endothelial H1 receptors?

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha 2

  • M3

  • D1

  • Nm

Explanation

Question 135 of 158

1

True or false: histamine is poorly absorbed from parenteral administration

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 136 of 158

1

Which is NOT part of the the metabolism of histamine:

Select one of the following:

  • Methylation and oxidation

  • Histamine N-methyltransferase enzyme acts on histamine to form methyl histamine (further acted upon by MAO)

  • Histaminase enzyme cleaves histamine into inactive metabolites

  • All of them are part of histamine metabolism

Explanation

Question 137 of 158

1

Which of the following is false regarding histamine agonists?

Select one of the following:

  • Histamine phosphate is used to test for achlorhydria

  • So is betazole

  • Betazole is more selective

  • Histamine phosphate is more selective

Explanation

Question 138 of 158

1

Which of the following will give you CNS sedation?

Select one of the following:

  • Cetirizine

  • Trimeprazine

  • Loratadine

  • Fexofenadine

Explanation

Question 139 of 158

1

Which of the following lacks antimuscarinic effects?

Select one of the following:

  • Chlorpheniramine

  • Clemastine

  • Dimenhydrinate

  • Desloratidine

Explanation

Question 140 of 158

1

Which of the following is false regarding the pharmacokinetics of antihistamines?

Select one of the following:

  • You can use them IV in emergencies (acute anaphylaxis)

  • You can use them topically

  • They don’t bind to plasma proteins

  • They’re excreted in urine and feces

Explanation

Question 141 of 158

1

Which is not a pharmacologic effect of antihistamines?

Select one of the following:

  • Vasodilation

  • Relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle

  • Relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle

  • Local anesthetic action

  • Anti-inflammatory response

  • Inhibits arterial hypertension

  • Anti-motion sickness

Explanation

Question 142 of 158

1

What is not a therapeutic use of antihistamines in bovines?

Select one of the following:

  • Bloat

  • Acetonemia

  • Mastitis

  • Gut edema

  • Metritis

  • Pregnancy toxemia

  • Pulmonary emphysema

  • Retained placenta

Explanation

Question 143 of 158

1

Which of the following is not a therapeutic use of antihistamines?

Select one of the following:

  • Myoglobinuria

  • Periodic opthalmia

  • Gastric stasis

  • Laminitis

Explanation

Question 144 of 158

1

Which antihistamine can cause polyphagia, sedation, increased vocalization, and vomiting in cats?

Select one of the following:

  • Cyproheptadine

  • Trimeprazine

  • Chlorpheniramine

  • Diphenhydramine

Explanation

Question 145 of 158

1

True or false: antihistamines can cause hyperexcitability and convulsions at high doses

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 146 of 158

1

Which is false regarding cromolyn sodium?

Select one of the following:

  • It inhibits the release of histamine from mast cells

  • It closes Cl- channels

  • It’s used for nasal allergies in horses

  • It’s used for conjunctivitis

Explanation

Question 147 of 158

1

True or false: serotonin is derived from tryptophan

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 148 of 158

1

Which of the following serotonin receptors is mismatched with their mechanism?

Select one of the following:

  • 5-HT1—Gi

  • 5-HT3—Gs

  • 5-HT5—Gi

  • 5-HT4--Gs

  • 5-HT2—Gq

  • 5-HT6—Gs

  • 5-HT7—Gs

Explanation

Question 149 of 158

1

Which of the following is false regarding the triphasic response to rapid IV injection of serotonin?

Select one of the following:

  • The Bezold-Jarisch reflex involves an initial fall in systemic arterial pressure with accompanying reflex tachycardia

  • The second phase is a short period of a pressor effect

  • The third phase is a prolonged fall in systemic BP

  • All of the above are correct!

Explanation

Question 150 of 158

1

Which of the following is not caused by serotonin?

Select one of the following:

  • Contraction of smooth muscles

  • Increased GIT motility

  • Decreased pulmonary pressure

  • Relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle

Explanation

Question 151 of 158

1

Which of the following is not an SSRI?

Select one of the following:

  • Sertraline

  • Fluoxetine

  • Paroxetine

  • Fluvoxamine

  • Buspirone

Explanation

Question 152 of 158

1

Which of the following serotonin agonists would you use to control postpartum hemorrhage and for uterine involution? (Hint: it’s an agonist of the 5-HT2 receptor!)

Select one of the following:

  • Cisapride

  • Ergometrine

  • Metoclopramide

  • Cyproheptadine

Explanation

Question 153 of 158

1

Which drug is used for constipation and megacolon in cats? (But let’s be honest here, all I care about is its use for stasis in rabbits.)

Select one of the following:

  • Cisapride

  • Ergometrine

  • Metoclopramide

  • Cyproheptadine

Explanation

Question 154 of 158

1

Which drug is an agonist of the 5-HT4 receptor and a D2 antagonist that, while being useful for gastric stasis and anti-emesis, can also change your mood/behavior?

Select one of the following:

  • Cisapride

  • Ergometrine

  • Metoclopramide

  • Cyproheptadine

Explanation

Question 155 of 158

1

Which antagonist of the 5-HT1 receptor (and first gen antihistamine) is used for head shaking in horses and feline asthma?

Select one of the following:

  • Ketaserin

  • Cyproheptadine

  • Methysergide

  • Ondansetron

Explanation

Question 156 of 158

1

Which of the following is an antagonist of the 5-HT2 receptor and alpha adrenergic receptor, antihistamine, and is used for glaucoma?

Select one of the following:

  • Ketaserin

  • Cyproheptadine

  • Methysergide

  • Ondansetron

Explanation

Question 157 of 158

1

Which drug (that sounds like a transformer) is used as an antiemetic during chemotherapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Ketaserin

  • Cyproheptadine

  • Methysergide

  • Ondansetron

Explanation

Question 158 of 158

1

Which 5-HT2 antagonist is used for carcinoid syndrome (cancerous tissues producing too much serotonin)?

Select one of the following:

  • Ketaserin

  • Cyproheptadine

  • Methysergide

  • Ondansetron

Explanation

Previous
Next