BVetMed3: Signs of Respiratory Disease

Question 1 of 44

1

Which of the following causes bronchodilation of the smooth muscle in a dog's airway?

Select one of the following:

Acetylcholine binding to muscarinic receptors 1 and 3
Beta-2 antagonists
Adrenal medulla releasing epinephrine to bind to beta-2 receptors
Cholinergic agonists

Explanation

Question 2 of 44

1

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the cough reflex?

Select one of the following:

It involves enkephalins and endoprhins binding to opioid receptors in the cough center
Activation of irritant receptors stimulates the phrenic nerve.
The cough centre is in the brain steam.
There is no differentiation between pathogens or dust binding to irritant receptors in the respiratory tract.

Explanation

Question 3 of 44

1

Which of the following is NOT a opioid receptor agonist?

Select one of the following:

Butorphanol
Codeine
Methadone
Acepromazine

Explanation

Question 4 of 44

1

Which of the following are NOT resident cells in the respiratory tract?

Select one of the following:

Alveolar macrophages
Lymphocytes
Mast cells
Neutrophils

Explanation

Question 5 of 44

1

Which immunoglobulin is involved in the lower respiratory airways?

Select one of the following:

IgA
IgG
IgM
IgE

Explanation

Question 6 of 44

1

Which immunoglobulin is involved in the upper respiratory airways?

Select one of the following:

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgE

Explanation

Question 7 of 44

1

Which of the following cough characteristics is more typical of an lower airway issue?

Select one of the following:

soft, muted, productive
harsh, loud non-productive
swallowing after coughing
harsh, loud, productive
soft, muted, non-productive

Explanation

Question 8 of 44

1

A harsh, non-productive cough is indicative of a problem in the

Select one of the following:

lower respiratory tract
upper respiratory tract

Explanation

Question 9 of 44

1

What is the normal respiratory rate for adult horses?

Select one of the following:

8-15
10-30
25-35
24-42
20-40
30-60

Explanation

Question 10 of 44

1

What is the normal respiratory rate for adult cows, sheep and pigs?

Select one of the following:

8-15
10-30
25-35
20-40
24-42
30-60

Explanation

Question 11 of 44

1

What is the normal respiratory rate for foals and calves?

Select one of the following:

8-15
10-30
25-35
20-40
24-42
30-60

Explanation

Question 12 of 44

1

Which of the following would not cause inspiratory distress?

Select one of the following:

Laryngeal hemiplegia
pleural effusion
soft palate disorder
Recurrent airway obstruction

Explanation

Question 13 of 44

1

Which of the following would cause BOTH inspiratory and expiratory distress?

Select one of the following:

tracheal collapse
farmer's disease
pleural effusion
extrathoracic intraluminal mass

Explanation

Question 14 of 44

1

Orthopnoea refers to

Select one of the following:

difficult breathing while recumbent
respiratory distress
a decreased respiratory rate
communication between oral and nasal cavities

Explanation

Question 15 of 44

1

Unilateral nasal discharge tends to originate in

Select one of the following:

structures rostral to the caudal end of the nasal septum
caudal structures in the nasal septum
the oropharynx
trachea

Explanation

Question 16 of 44

1

Food or milk in the nasal discharge can be indicative of

Select one of the following:

dysphagia
epistaxis
haemoptysis
orthopnoea

Explanation

Question 17 of 44

1

The presence of blood at the external nares is known as

Select one of the following:

haemoptysis
epistaxis
dysphagia
orthopnoea

Explanation

Question 18 of 44

1

Which of the following is TRUE regarding cyanosis?

Select one of the following:

Is is only evident if hemoglobin levels are abnormal
often seen with anaemia
it only causes blue discolouration of the mucous membrane
it occurs due to poor peripheral perfusion

Explanation

Question 19 of 44

1

In horses, breathing and stride rate are independent when trotting.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 20 of 44

1

An owner notices their horse has very loud, intense respiratory sound at gallop whenever its limbs are extending. This suggests

Select one of the following:

inspiratory stridor
expiratory stridor
epistaxis
orthopnoea

Explanation

Question 21 of 44

1

Which of the following is most indicative of infected sinuses?

Select one of the following:

asymmetrical facial symmetry
epistaxis
orthopnoea
nasal discharge

Explanation

Question 22 of 44

1

Which of the following is NOT an important point of auscultation in ruminants?

Select one of the following:

6th intercostal space
3rd intercostal space
9th intercostal space
11th intercostal space

Explanation

Question 23 of 44

1

Hearing crackles when auscultating small animals indicates

Select one of the following:

issues with the upper respiratory tract
issues with small airways and alveoli
partial obstruction of larger airways
possible pleural effusion

Explanation

Question 24 of 44

1

Which of the following diagnostic techniques uses general anaesthesia?

Select one of the following:

transtracheal aspirate
endoscopically-guided tracheal aspirate
thoracocentesis
trans-tracheal wash

Explanation

Question 25 of 44

1

Trans-tracheal washes involves direct access to a patient's airway via

Select one of the following:

puncture of cricothyroid ligament
puncture of thyrohyoid membrane
ET tube placed down oral cavity
puncture between first and second tracheal rings

Explanation

Question 26 of 44

1

Which of the following diagnostics allows characterisation of pleural effusion?

Select one of the following:

thoracocentesis
bronchoalveolar lavage
trans-tracheal wash
lung aspiration

Explanation

Question 27 of 44

1

You suspect a horse has recurrent airway obstruction but its owner is low on funds. Which of the following diagnostics would you therefore suggest to confirm RAO?

Select one of the following:

bronchoalveolar lavage
thoracocentesis
lung aspirate
nasopharyngeal swab

Explanation

Question 28 of 44

1

Which of the following imaging is most useful for characterising pleural effusion?

Select one of the following:

Thoracic ultrasonography
Thoracic CT scan
Thoracic radiography

Explanation

Question 29 of 44

1

The mucociliary escalator extends from

Select one of the following:

terminal bronchioles to the larynx
alveoli to the pharynx
bronchioles to the trachea
bronchioles to nasal cavity

Explanation

Question 30 of 44

1

Failure of lung tissue to expand at birth is known as

Select one of the following:

primary atelectasis
secondary atelectasis
emphyesma
orthopnoea

Explanation

Question 31 of 44

1

A tumor in the pleural cavity outside the lung compresses the lung and causes it to partially collapse. This is

Select one of the following:

primary atelectasis
secondary atelectasis
emphysema
anthracosis

Explanation

Question 32 of 44

1

Which of the following can cause this type of lung pathology?

Select one of the following:

emphysema
hydrothorax
primary atelectasis
pulmonary oedema

Explanation

Question 33 of 44

1

What type of emphysema does recurrent airway disease cause in horses?

Select one of the following:

alveolar
interstitial
compensatory

Explanation

Question 34 of 44

1

What is the difference between hyperaemia and congestion?

Select one of the following:

Hyperemia involves increased arteriole inflow while venous outflow is maintained. Congestion involves normal arteriole inflow but increased venous outflow.
Hyperemia involves increased arteriole inflow while venous outflow is increased. Congestion involves normal arteriole inflow but decreased venous outflow.
Hyperemia involves increased arteriole inflow while venous outflow is maintained. Congestion involves normal arteriole inflow but decreased venous outflow.
Hyperemia involves decreased arteriole inflow while venous outflow is maintained. Congestion involves normal arteriole inflow but decreased venous outflow.

Explanation

Question 35 of 44

1

In aspirational pneunoma, the hyperaemia typically affects which lung lobes?

Select one of the following:

caudodorsal
cranioventral
caudoventral
craniodorsal

Explanation

Question 36 of 44

1

Which of the following is NOT a major factor that prevents pulmonary oedema?

Select one of the following:

tight junctions between alveolar epithelium
intra-alveolar pressure being greater than interstitial pressure
lymphatic drainage
hydrostatic pressure

Explanation

Question 37 of 44

1

Which of the following is unlikely to cause pulmonary oedema?

Select one of the following:

left-sided heart failure
right-sided heart failure
acute brain damage
excessive fluid therapy

Explanation

Question 38 of 44

1

Click on each orange point and select the correct answer.

Pneumonia can be classified based on location. Label the following image with the most likely type of pnuemonia to cause the pathology pattern.

{"9.80839_54.7102":[{"id":31727089,"answer":"granulomatous pneumonia","x":9.80839,"y":54.7102},{"id":31727090,"answer":"embolic pneumonia","x":9.80839,"y":54.7102},{"id":31727091,"answer":"interstitial pneumonia","x":9.80839,"y":54.7102},{"id":31727092,"answer":"fibrinous bronchopneumonia","x":9.80839,"y":54.7102},{"id":31727093,"answer":"suppurative bronchopneumonia","x":9.80839,"y":54.7102},{"id":31727094,"answer":"normal lung","x":9.80839,"y":54.7102}],"51.0508_27.0665":[{"id":31727083,"answer":"normal lung","x":51.0508,"y":27.0665},{"id":31727084,"answer":"suppurative bronchopneumonia","x":51.0508,"y":27.0665},{"id":31727085,"answer":"fibrinous bronchopneumonia","x":51.0508,"y":27.0665},{"id":31727086,"answer":"interstitial pneumonia","x":51.0508,"y":27.0665},{"id":31727087,"answer":"embolic pneumonia","x":51.0508,"y":27.0665},{"id":31727088,"answer":"granulomatous pneumonia","x":51.0508,"y":27.0665}],"50.5039_53.9247":[{"id":31727146,"answer":"normal lung","x":50.5039,"y":53.9247},{"id":31727147,"answer":"suppurative bronchopneumonia","x":50.5039,"y":53.9247},{"id":31727148,"answer":"fibrinous bronchopneumonia","x":50.5039,"y":53.9247},{"id":31727149,"answer":"interstitial pneumonia","x":50.5039,"y":53.9247},{"id":31727150,"answer":"embolic pneumonia","x":50.5039,"y":53.9247},{"id":31727151,"answer":"granulomatous pneumonia","x":50.5039,"y":53.9247}],"9.26147_84.0598":[{"id":31727152,"answer":"granulomatous pneumonia","x":9.26147,"y":84.0598},{"id":31727153,"answer":"embolic pneumonia","x":9.26147,"y":84.0598},{"id":31727154,"answer":"fibrinous bronchopneumonia","x":9.26147,"y":84.0598},{"id":31727155,"answer":"interstitial pneumonia","x":9.26147,"y":84.0598},{"id":31727156,"answer":"suppurative bronchopneumonia","x":9.26147,"y":84.0598},{"id":31727157,"answer":"normal lung","x":9.26147,"y":84.0598}],"50.5039_84.207":[{"id":31727162,"answer":"normal lung","x":50.5039,"y":84.207},{"id":31727163,"answer":"suppurative bronchopneumonia","x":50.5039,"y":84.207},{"id":31727164,"answer":"fibrinous bronchopneumonia","x":50.5039,"y":84.207},{"id":31727165,"answer":"interstitial pneumonia","x":50.5039,"y":84.207},{"id":31727166,"answer":"embolic pneumonia","x":50.5039,"y":84.207},{"id":31727167,"answer":"granulomatous pneumonia","x":50.5039,"y":84.207}]}

Explanation

Question 39 of 44

1

Which of the following is a possible sequel of persistent bronchopneumonia?

Select one of the following:

bronchiectasis
melanosis
alveolar emphysema
secondary atelectasis

Explanation

Question 40 of 44

1

Which of the following animals would you be more likely to see lobar pneumonia?

Select one of the following:

cattle
sheep
horses
dogs

Explanation

Question 41 of 44

1

Interstitial pneumonia often involves "cuffing" or proliferation of what type of cell around airways?

Select one of the following:

lymphocytes
neutrophils
macrophages
eosinophils
mast cells

Explanation

Question 42 of 44

1

Paraquat is a pneumotoxin and cause what type of pneumonia in small animals?

Select one of the following:

interstitial
suppurative
fibrinous
embolic
granulomatous

Explanation

Question 43 of 44

1

What type of pneumonia is often secondary to endocarditis?

Select one of the following:

Embolic
Granulomatous
Fibrinous
Interstitial
Suppurative

Explanation

Question 44 of 44

1

Tuberculosis can cause what type of pneumonia?

Select one of the following:

granulomatous
embolic
interstitial
fibrinous
suppurative

	Created by Marina Martins over 5 years ago

Graduate Accelerated Veterinary Medicine (Respiratory) Quiz on BVetMed3: Signs of Respiratory Disease, created by Marina Martins on 12/04/2019.

BVetMed3: Signs of Respiratory Disease

BVetMed3: Signs of Respiratory Disease

Question 1 of 44

Which of the following causes bronchodilation of the smooth muscle in a dog's airway?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 44

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the cough reflex?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 44

Which of the following is NOT a opioid receptor agonist?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 44

Which of the following are NOT resident cells in the respiratory tract?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 44

Which immunoglobulin is involved in the lower respiratory airways?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 44

Which immunoglobulin is involved in the upper respiratory airways?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 44

Which of the following cough characteristics is more typical of an lower airway issue?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 44

A harsh, non-productive cough is indicative of a problem in the

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 44

What is the normal respiratory rate for adult horses?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 44

What is the normal respiratory rate for adult cows, sheep and pigs?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 44

What is the normal respiratory rate for foals and calves?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 44

Which of the following would not cause inspiratory distress?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 44

Which of the following would cause BOTH inspiratory and expiratory distress?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 44

Orthopnoea refers to

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 44

Unilateral nasal discharge tends to originate in

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 44

Food or milk in the nasal discharge can be indicative of

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 44

The presence of blood at the external nares is known as

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 44

Which of the following is TRUE regarding cyanosis?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 44

In horses, breathing and stride rate are independent when trotting.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 44