Cara Carter
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Questions created to help review for NAPLEX exam

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Cara Carter
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NAPLEX Study

Question 1 of 37

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Convert the following liquids to mL
1 tsp= ( 5mL, 4mL, 6mL, 5.5mL )
1 tbsp= ( 15mL, 7.5mL, 20mL, 10mL )
1 oz= ( 30mL, 45mL, 50mL, 25mL )
1 cup= ( 240mL, 300mL, 250mL, 275mL )
1 pint= ( 480mL, 500mL, 490mL, 470mL )
1 quart= ( 960mL, 1000mL, 900mL, 955mL )
1 gallon= ( 3840mL, 4000mL, 3.8L, 3750mL )

Explanation

Question 2 of 37

1

Which of the following elements is correctly matched with their valence type?

Select one of the following:

  • None of these

  • More than one of these

  • Potassium is divalent

  • Calcium is monovalent

  • Sodium is monovalent

Explanation

Question 3 of 37

1

Which of the following solid weight conversions are correct? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1 grain= 65mg

  • 1 kg= 454 grams

  • 1 ounce= 28.4 grams

  • 1 pound= 2 kg

Explanation

Question 4 of 37

1

Which of the following indicates the correct conversion for inches and meters to centimeters?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 inch= 2.54cm and 1 meter=100cm

  • 1 inch= 2.54cm and 1 meter=1000cm

  • 1 inch= 3.5cm and 1 meter=200cm

  • 1 inch= 2.7cm and 1 meter=2500cm

Explanation

Question 5 of 37

1

In order of operations, which function should be completed first?

Select one of the following:

  • Brackets

  • Exponents

  • Subtraction

  • Division

Explanation

Question 6 of 37

1

At what albumin level does phenytoin require use of a formula to calculate corrected drug level?

Select one of the following:

  • Greater than 15g/dL

  • Less than 3.5 g/dL

  • A range of 5-10 g/dL

  • Less than or equal to 2.5 g/dL

Explanation

Question 7 of 37

1

True or False. Density factor is used in preparation of syringes.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 8 of 37

1

Which of the following are elements in the calculation of density factor? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Suppository Base Weight

  • Suppository Blank Weight

  • Medicated Suppository Weight

  • None of These

Explanation

Question 9 of 37

1

Which of the following is the density factor formula?

A= weight of suppository blank, B= weight of medication per suppository, C=weight of medicated suppository

Select one of the following:

  • B/ (A-C+B)

  • B*(A-C)/B

  • (A+B)/(B-C)

  • A*(B-C)

Explanation

Question 10 of 37

1

Which of the following is a patient need met by traditional compounding?

Select one of the following:

  • Avoiding an excipient that a patient cannot tolerate

  • Producing a discontinued product

  • Changing the color of a product based on patient preference

  • Producing a product that is also commercially available

Explanation

Question 11 of 37

1

Which of the following statements is true regarding torsion balances? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • It is not necessary to calculate minimum weighable quantity because all torsion balances have a minimum weighable quantity of 6mg

  • The sensitivity requirement for a torsion balance is 6mg.

  • The minimum weighable quantity equation is sensitivity requirement divided by acceptable error rate

  • Internal weights should be used to weight quantities less than 1 gram

Explanation

Question 12 of 37

1

Which of the following is an additional name for levigation?

Select one of the following:

  • Spatulation

  • Comminution

  • Pulverization by intervention

  • Trituration with mortar and pestle

  • Geometric dilution

Explanation

Question 13 of 37

1

Magnesium stearate is a glidant.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 14 of 37

1

Rectal suppositories are used to treat local or systemic conditions while vaginal suppositories are used to treat which of the following? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Internal vaginal conditions

  • Hematologic conditions

  • Pneumococcal Sepsis

  • Reproductive related conditions

  • None of these

Explanation

Question 15 of 37

1

Which is true regarding HLB Numbers?

Select one of the following:

  • The HLB range is a percentage from 0-100

  • A higher HLB number is more lipid soluble

  • A lower HLB number is more lipid soluble

  • HLB numbers are only used for water in oil emulsions

Explanation

Question 16 of 37

1

What do the following agents have in common?

Acacia, Agar, PEG, Sodium lauryl sulfate

Select one of the following:

  • They are emulsifiers

  • They are legivating agents

  • They cause no allergic reactions

  • They are only used in specialty drugs

Explanation

Question 17 of 37

1

What are the ratios for the dry gum method?

Select one of the following:

  • 4 parts oil: 2 parts water: 1 part emulsifier

  • 4 parts gum: 2 parts emulsifier: 1 part water

  • 4 parts petrolatum: 2 parts acacia: 1 part water

  • 4 parts water: 2 parts gum: 1 part PEG

Explanation

Question 18 of 37

1

Which of the following is an antifoaming agent?

Select one of the following:

  • simethicone

  • magnesium oxide

  • gelatin

  • gluten

Explanation

Question 19 of 37

1

Kyla is a community pharmacist who compounds a water-based solution for a pediatric patient. The compound has been flavored and auxiliary labels stating "Shake Well" and "Store in Refrigerator" have been affixed. What beyond use date should be affixed to the compounded product?

Select one of the following:

  • No later than 14 days

  • No later than 6 months or the earliest expiration date of an ingredient if expiring before 6 months

  • The active pharmaceutical ingredient expiration date

  • No later than 30 days since it is refrigerated

Explanation

Question 20 of 37

1

Which of the following are possible causes of sexual dysfunction? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Use of Buproprion

  • Uncontrolled hypertension or diabetes

  • Chronic alcohol use disorder

  • Use of Panax ginseng

  • Increased physical activity

Explanation

Question 21 of 37

1

Which of the following drug classes likely does not contribute to erectile dysfunction?

Select one of the following:

  • SSRI's

  • SNRI's

  • BPH Medications

  • Proton Pump Inhibitors

Explanation

Question 22 of 37

1

Which of the following PDE-5 inhibitors is correctly matched with its starting dose? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Viagra 100mg

  • Levitra 10 mg

  • Cialis 15 mg

  • Stendra 100mg

Explanation

Question 23 of 37

1

Which of the following is not an indication to reduce the dose of a PDE-5 inhibitor?

Select one of the following:

  • Patient greater than or equal to 65 years of age

  • Patient currently using an alpha-blocker

  • Patient has severe liver disease

  • Patient has severe renal disease

  • All of these are valid indications to reduce the dose

Explanation

Question 24 of 37

1

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of PDE-5 inhibitors?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase the amount of nitric oxide

  • Increase formulation of guanylate cyclase

  • Prevent cGMP degradation

  • Prevent smooth muscle contraction in the penis

Explanation

Question 25 of 37

1

Which PDE-5 inhibitor has the fastest onset of action?

Select one of the following:

  • Sildenafil

  • Vardenafil

  • Tadalfil

  • Avanafil

Explanation

Question 26 of 37

1

What is the administration method for Alprostadil? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Intracavernous injection

  • Urethral pellet

  • Oral solution

  • Intravenous injection

  • Subcutaneous injection

Explanation

Question 27 of 37

1

Which of the following drugs has a black box warning for being contraindicated with alcohol?

Select one of the following:

  • Addyi

  • Aviane

  • Azurette

  • Aranelle

Explanation

Question 28 of 37

1

Phenylephrine is an agonist for what receptor?

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha-1

  • Alpha-2

  • Beta-1

  • Beta-2

Explanation

Question 29 of 37

1

Dobutamine causes an increase in cardiac output and heart rate. What receptor does dobutamine exert action on?

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha-1

  • Alpha-2

  • Beta-1

  • Beta-2

Explanation

Question 30 of 37

1

Karl is a 55 yo male patient with renal dysfunction secondary to uncontrolled diabetes. Although he has been prescribed metformin, lisinopril, atorvastatin, aspirin and Trulicity, he reports not taking any medications. He presents to the ED in shock and the medical team determines he needs dopamine. Which of the following is the appropriate dose?

Select one of the following:

  • 1-4 mcg/kg/min

  • None of these

  • 5-10 mcg/kg/min

  • 10-20 mcg/kg/min

Explanation

Question 31 of 37

1

Dopamine acts on different receptors at different concentrations. Which of the following receptors are correctly matched with its dopamine dosing? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • None of these are correctly matched

  • All of these are correctly matched

  • Dopamine-1: 1-4 mcg/kg/min

  • Dopamine-2: 5-10 mcg/kg/min

  • Alpha-1: 10-20 mcg/kg/min

Explanation

Question 32 of 37

1

Which of the following drug classes has a Black Box Warning for extravasation?

Select one of the following:

  • Vasopressors

  • Vasodilators

  • IV Minerals

  • Colloids

Explanation

Question 33 of 37

1

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated with riociguat and PDE-5 inhibitors?

Select one of the following:

  • Nitroglycerin

  • Nitroprusside

  • Vasopressin

  • Norepinephrine

Explanation

Question 34 of 37

1

Which of the following is the black box warning for Nitropress?

Select one of the following:

  • Nitropress does not have a black box warning

  • Nitropress has a high risk of exrtravasation. If extravasation occurs, it should be treated with phentolamine

  • Nitropress metabolism produces cyanide. If cyanide toxicity occurs it should be treated with sodium thiosulfate

  • Nitropress can cause extreme rebound hypertension. Nitropress should only be used in SBP less than 85.

Explanation

Question 35 of 37

1

Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action of milrinone?

Select one of the following:

  • Selectively inhibits phosphodiesterase 3

  • Prevents conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2

  • Inhibits nitric oxide production

  • Causes vasostriction by acting as a beta-1 antagonist

Explanation

Question 36 of 37

1

Which of the following is not a crystalloid?

Select one of the following:

  • D5W

  • Dextran

  • Lactated Ringer

  • Normal Saline

Explanation

Question 37 of 37

1

Which of the following are common causes of ICU infections? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Mechanical ventilation

  • Foley catheters

  • Admission to the ICU from the ED

  • Having few or no ICU visitors

  • Prophylactic antibiotic therapy

  • All of these

  • None of these

Explanation

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