AP BIO MIDTERM REVIEW

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Question 1 of 199

Darwinʹs mechanism of natural selection required long time spans in order to modify species. From whom did
Darwin get the concept of Earthʹs ancient age?

Select one of the following:

Georges Cuvier
Charles Lyell
Alfred Wallace
Thomas Malthus
John Henslow

Explanation

Question 2 of 199

Charles Darwin was the first person to propose

Select one of the following:

that evolution occurs.
a mechanism for how evolution occurs.
that the Earth is older than a few thousand years.
a mechanism for evolution that was supported by evidence.
a way to use artificial selection as a means of domesticating plants and animals.

Explanation

Question 3 of 199

Which of these conditions should completely prevent the occurrence of natural selection in a population over
time?

Select one of the following:

All variation between individuals is due only to environmental factors.
The environment is changing at a relatively slow rate.
The population size is large.
The population lives in a habitat where there are no competing species present.

Explanation

Question 4 of 199

Which of the following represents an idea that Darwin learned from the writings of Thomas Malthus?

Select one of the following:

All species are fixed in the form in which they are created.
Populations tend to increase at a faster rate than their food supply normally allows.
Earth changed over the years through a series of catastrophic upheavals.
The environment is responsible for natural selection.
Earth is more than 10,000 years old.

Explanation

Question 5 of 199

Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of the following events, under
the influence of natural selection?
1. Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring than do poorly adapted individuals.
2. A change occurs in the environment.
3. Genetic frequencies within the population change.
4. Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship.

Select one of the following:

2 → 4 → 1 → 3
4 → 2 → 1 → 3
4 → 1 → 2 → 3
4 → 2 → 3 → 1
2 → 4 → 3 → 1

Explanation

Question 6 of 199

To observe natural selectionʹs effects on a population, which of these must be true?

Select one of the following:

One must observe more than one generation of the population.
The population must contain genetic variation.
Members of the population must increase or decrease the use of some portion of their anatomy.
A and C only
A and B only

Explanation

Question 7 of 199

During drought years on the Galapagos, small, easily eaten seeds become rare, leaving mostly large,
hard-cased seeds that only birds with large beaks can eat. If a drought persists for several years, what should
one expect to result from natural selection?

Select one of the following:

Small birds gaining larger beaks by exercising their mouth parts.
Small birds mutating their beak genes with the result that later-generation offspring have larger beaks.
Small birds anticipating the long drought and eating more to gain weight and, consequently, growing
larger beaks.
More small-beaked birds dying than larger-beaked birds. The offspring produced in subsequent
generations have a higher percentage of birds with large beaks.
Larger birds eating less so smaller birds can survive

Explanation

Question 8 of 199

Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act upon that population?

Select one of the following:

Genetic variation among individuals
Variation among individuals caused by environmental factors
Sexual reproduction
B and C only
A, B, and C

Explanation

Question 9 of 199

How many separate species, both extant and extinct, are depicted in this tree?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 199

Which of the five common ancestors, labeled V—Z, has given rise to the greatest number of species, both extant
and extinct?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 199

Evolutionary trees such as this are properly understood by scientists to be

Select one of the following:

theories.
hypotheses.
laws.
dogmas.
facts.

Explanation

Question 12 of 199

Which statement best describes the evolution of pesticide resistance in a population of insects?

Select one of the following:

Individual members of the population slowly adapt to the presence of the chemical by striving to meet
the new challenge.
All insects exposed to the insecticide begin to use a formerly silent gene to make a new enzyme that
breaks down the insecticide molecules.
Insects observe the behavior of other insects that survive pesticide application, and adjust their own
behaviors to copy those of the survivors.
Offspring of insects that are genetically resistant to the pesticide become more abundant as the
susceptible insects die off.

Explanation

Question 13 of 199

Some members of a photosynthetic plant species are genetically resistant to an herbicide, while other members
of the same species are not resistant to the herbicide. Which combination of events should cause the most
effective replacement of the non-herbicide-resistant strain of plants by the resistant strain?
1. The presence of the herbicide in the environment
2. The absence of the herbicide from the environment
3. The maintenance of the proper conditions for one generation
4. The maintenance of the proper conditions for many generations

Select one of the following:

1 and 3
1 and 4
2 and 3
2 and 4

Explanation

Question 14 of 199

Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bird?

Select one of the following:

Dorsal fin of a shark
Hindlimb of a kangaroo
Wing of a butterfly
Tail fin of a flying fish
Flipper of a cetacean

Explanation

Question 15 of 199

Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones, these
bones having developed from very similar embryonic tissues. How do biologists interpret these similarities?

Select one of the following:

By identifying the bones as being homologous
By the principle of convergent evolution
By proposing that humans, bats, and dolphins share a common ancestor
A and C only
A, B, and C

Explanation

Question 16 of 199

Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth?

Select one of the following:

All organisms require energy.
All organisms use essentially the same genetic code.
All organisms reproduce.
All organisms show heritable variation.
All organisms have undergone evolution.

Explanation

Question 17 of 199

Which of the following statements most detracts from the claim that the human appendix is a completely
vestigial organ?

Select one of the following:

The appendix can be surgically removed with no immediate ill effects.
The appendix might have been larger in fossil hominids.
The appendix has a substantial amount of defensive lymphatic tissue
Individuals with a larger-than-average appendix leave fewer offspring than those with a
below-average-sized appendix.
In a million years, the human species might completely lack an appendix.

Explanation

Question 18 of 199

Ichthyosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs. Fossils show us that they had dorsal fins and tails, as do fish, even
though their closest relatives were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal
fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are

Select one of the following:

homologous.
examples of convergent evolution.
adaptations to a common environment.
A and C only
B and C only

Explanation

Question 19 of 199

Monkeys of South and Central America have prehensile tails, meaning that their tails can be used to grasp
objects. The tails of African and Asian monkeys are not prehensile. Which discipline is most likely to provide
an evolutionary explanation for how this difference in tails came about?

Select one of the following:

Aerodynamics
Biogeography
Physiology
Biochemistry
Botany

Explanation

Question 20 of 199

Heterozygote advantage should be most closely linked to which of the following?

Select one of the following:

sexual selection
stabilizing selection
random selection
directional selection
disruptive selection

Explanation

Question 21 of 199

In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by

Select one of the following:

hydrogen bonds.
nonpolar covalent bonds.
polar covalent bonds.
ionic bonds.
van der Waals interactions.

Explanation

Question 22 of 199

An example of a hydrogen bond is the bond between

Select one of the following:

C and H in methane (CH4).
the H of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule.
Na+and Cl- in salt.
the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of hydrogen gas (H2).
Mg+and Cl- in MgCl2.

Explanation

Question 23 of 199

What gives rise to the cohesiveness of water molecules?

Select one of the following:

hydrophobic interactions
nonpolar covalent bonds
ionic bonds
hydrogen bonds
both A and C

Explanation

Question 24 of 199

Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink?

Select one of the following:

Molecular collisions in the drink increase.
Kinetic energy in the drink decreases.
A calorie of heat energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink.
The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases.
Evaporation of the water in the drink increases.

Explanation

Question 25 of 199

The nutritional information on a cereal box shows that one serving of a dry cereal has 200 kilocalories. If one
were to burn one serving of the cereal, the amount of heat given off would be sufficient to raise the temperature
of 20 kg of water how many degrees Celsius?

Select one of the following:

0.2°C
1.0°C
2.0°C
10.0°C
20.0°C

Explanation

Question 26 of 199

Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?

Select one of the following:

ionic bonds
nonpolar covalent bonds
polar covalent bonds
hydrogen bonds
covalent bonds

Explanation

Question 27 of 199

Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are

Select one of the following:

nonpolar substances that repel water molecules.
nonpolar substances that have an attraction for water molecules.
polar substances that repel water molecules.
polar substances that have an affinity for water.
charged molecules that hydrogen-bond with water molecules.

Explanation

Question 28 of 199

One mole (mol) of a substance is

Select one of the following:

6.02 × 10^23 molecules of the substance.
1 g of the substance dissolved in 1 L of solution.
the largest amount of the substance that can be dissolved in 1 L of solution.
the molecular mass of the substance expressed in grams.
A and D only

Explanation

Question 29 of 199

When an ionic compound such as sodium chloride (NaCl) is placed in water the component atoms of the NaCl
crystal dissociate into individual sodium ions (Na+) and chloride ions (Cl-). In contrast, the atoms of covalently
bonded molecules (e.g., glucose, sucrose, glycerol) do not generally dissociate when placed in aqueous
solution. Which of the following solutions would be expected to contain the greatest number of particles
(molecules or ions)?

Select one of the following:

1 L of 0.5 M NaCl
1 L of 0.5 M glucose
1 L of 1.0 M NaCl
1 L of 1.0 M glucose
C and D will contain equal numbers of particles.

Explanation

Question 30 of 199

The molecular mass of glucose (C6H12O6) is 180 g. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to
make a 0.5 M solution of glucose?

Select one of the following:

Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of
solution is 1 L.
Dissolve 90 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of
the solution is 1 L.
Dissolve 180 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of
the solution is 1 L.
Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in 1 L of water.
Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 1 L of water.

Explanation

Question 31 of 199

You have a freshly-prepared 0.1M solution of glucose in water. Each liter of this solution contains how many
glucose molecules?

Select one of the following:

6.02 × 10^23
3.01 × 10^23
6.02 × 10^24
12.04 × 10^23
6.02 × 10^22

Explanation

Question 32 of 199

You have a freshly-prepared 1M solution of glucose in water. You carefully pour out a 100 mL sample of that
solution. How many glucose molecules are included in that 100 mL sample?

Select one of the following:

6.02 × 10^23
3.01 × 10^23
6.02 × 10^24
12.04 × 10^23
6.02 × 10^22

Explanation

Question 33 of 199

Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong base (alkali)?

Select one of the following:

NaCl
HCl
NH3
H2CO3
NaOH

Explanation

Question 34 of 199

What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxyl ion [OH-] concentration of 10-12 M?

Select one of the following:

pH 4
pH 2
pH 6
pH 8
pH 10

Explanation

Question 35 of 199

Organic chemistry is a science based on the study of

Select one of the following:

functional groups.
vital forces interacting with matter.
carbon compounds.
water and its interaction with other kinds of molecules.
inorganic compounds.

Explanation

Question 36 of 199

The experimental approach taken in current biological investigations presumes that

Select one of the following:

simple organic compounds can be synthesized in the laboratory from inorganic precursors, but complex organic compounds like carbohydrates and proteins can only be synthesized by living organisms.
a life force ultimately controls the activities of living organisms and this life force cannot be studied by physical or chemical methods.
although a life force, or vitalism, exists in living organisms, this life force cannot be studied by physical or chemical methods.
living organisms are composed of the same elements present in nonliving things, plus a few special trace elements found only in living organisms or their products.
living organisms can be understood in terms of the same physical and chemical laws that can be used to explain all natural phenomena.

Explanation

Question 37 of 199

Which of the following people used this apparatus to study the formation of organic compounds?

Select one of the following:

Stanley Miller
Jakob Berzelius
Friedrich Wohler
Hermann Kolbe
August Kekulé

Explanation

Question 38 of 199

Which of the following people synthesized an organic compound, acetic acid, from inorganic substances that had been prepared directly from pure elements?

Select one of the following:

Stanley Miller
Jakob Berzelius
Friedrich Wohler
Hermann Kolbe
August Kekulé

Explanation

Question 39 of 199

How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 40 of 199

The two molecules shown in the figure above are best described as

Select one of the following:

optical isomers.
enantiomers.
structural isomers.
cis-trans isomers.
chain length isomers.

Explanation

Question 41 of 199

The two molecules shown in the figure above are best described as

Select one of the following:

enantiomers.
radioactive isotopes.
structural isomers.
nonisotopic isomers
geometric isomers

Explanation

Question 42 of 199

Which of the following statements best describes the carbon atoms present in all organic molecules?

Select one of the following:

They were incorporated into organic molecules by plants.
They were processed into sugars through photosynthesis.
They are ultimately derived from carbon dioxide
Only A and C are correct.
A, B, and C are correct.

Explanation

Question 43 of 199

All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except:

Select one of the following:

DNA.
a cell wall
a plasma membrane.
ribosomes.
an endoplasmic reticulum.

Explanation

Question 44 of 199

Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules?

Select one of the following:

lipids
glycogen
proteins
cellulose
nucleic acids

Explanation

Question 45 of 199

Which type of organelle or structure is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids?

Select one of the following:

ribosome
lysosome
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
mitochondrion
contractile vacuole

Explanation

Question 46 of 199

The fact that the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope has bound ribosomes allows one to most reliably conclude that

Select one of the following:

at least some of the proteins that function in the nuclear envelope are made by the ribosomes on the nuclear envelope
the nuclear envelope is not part of the endomembrane system
the nuclear envelope is physically separated from the endoplasmic reticulum.
small vesicles from the Golgi fuse with the nuclear envelope
nuclear pore complexes contain proteins

Explanation

Question 47 of 199

Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells accumulating and becoming clogged with very large and complex lipids. Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition?

Select one of the following:

the endoplasmic reticulum
the Golgi apparatus
the lysosome
mitochondria
membrane-bound ribosomes

Explanation

Question 48 of 199

Which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted?

Select one of the following:

lysosome
vacuole
mitochondrion
Golgi apparatus
peroxisome

Explanation

Question 49 of 199

Which of the following contains hydrolytic enzymes?

Select one of the following:

lysosome
vacuole
mitochondrion
Golgi apparatus
peroxisome

Explanation

Question 50 of 199

Which organelle often takes up much of the volume of a plant cell?

Select one of the following:

lysosome
vacuole
mitochondrion
Golgi apparatus
peroxisome

Explanation

Question 51 of 199

Which plant cell organelle contains its own DNA and ribosomes?

Select one of the following:

glyoxysome
vacuole
mitochondrion
Golgi apparatus
peroxisome

Explanation

Question 52 of 199

Which animal cell organelle contains enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various substrates to oxygen?

Select one of the following:

lysosome
vacuole
mitochondrion
Golgi apparatus
peroxisome

Explanation

Question 53 of 199

The chemical reactions involved in respiration are virtually identical between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In eukaryotic cells, ATP is synthesized primarily on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. In light of the endosymbiont theory for the evolutionary origin of mitochondria, where is most ATP synthesis likely to occur in prokaryotic cells?

Select one of the following:

in the cytoplasm
on the inner mitochondrial membrane
on the endoplasmic reticulum
on the inner plasma membrane
on the inner nuclear envelope

Explanation

Question 54 of 199

Which of the following are capable of converting light energy to chemical energy?

Select one of the following:

chloroplasts
mitochondria
leucoplasts
peroxisomes
Golgi bodies

Explanation

Question 55 of 199

A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and
mitochondria. It could be a cell from

Select one of the following:

a bacterium.
an animal, but not a plant.
a plant, but not an animal.
a plant or an animal.
any kind of organism.

Explanation

Question 56 of 199

According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, which of the following is a true statement about membrane phospholipids?

Select one of the following:

They can move laterally along the plane of the membrane.
They frequently flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other.
They occur in an uninterrupted bilayer, with membrane proteins restricted to the surface of the membrane.
They are free to depart from the membrane and dissolve in the surrounding solution.
They have hydrophilic tails in the interior of the membrane

Explanation

Question 57 of 199

Which of the following would likely move through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly?

Select one of the following:

CO2
an amino acid
glucose
K+
starch

Explanation

Question 58 of 199

Which of the following statements is correct about diffusion?

Select one of the following:

It is very rapid over long distances.
It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell.
It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration.
It requires integral proteins in the cell membrane.

Explanation

Question 59 of 199

If a membrane protein in an animal cell is involved inthe cotransport of glucose and sodiumions into the cell, which of the following is most likely true?

Select one of the following:

The sodium ions are moving down their electrochemical gradient while glucose is moving up.
Glucose is entering the cell along its concentration gradient.
Sodium ions can move down their electrochemical gradient through the cotransporter whether or not glucose is present outside the cell.
Potassium ions move across the same gradient as sodium ions.
A substance that blocked sodium ions from binding to the cotransport protein would also block the transport of glucose.

Explanation

Question 60 of 199

Which of the following statements about xylem is incorrect?

Select one of the following:

It conducts material upward.
It conducts materials within dead cells.
It transports mainly sugars and amino acids.
It has a lower water potential than soil does.
No energy input from the plant is required for xylem transport.

Explanation

Question 61 of 199

Root hairs are most important to a plant because they

Select one of the following:

anchor a plant in the soil
store starches.
increase the surface area for absorption.
provide a habitat for nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
contain xylem tissue.

Explanation

Question 62 of 199

What is the role of proton pumps in root hair cells?

Select one of the following:

establish ATP gradients
acquire minerals from the soil
pressurize xylem transport
eliminate excess electrons
A and D only

Explanation

Question 63 of 199

A water molecule could move all the way through a plant from soil to root to leaf to air and pass through a living cell only once. This living cell would be a part of which structure?

Select one of the following:

the Casparian strip
a guard cell
the root epidermis
the endodermis
the root cortex

Explanation

Question 64 of 199

What is the main force by which most of the water within xylem vessels moves toward the top of a tree?

Select one of the following:

active transport of ions into the stele
atmospheric pressure on roots
evaporation of water through stoma
the force of root pressure
osmosis in the root

Explanation

Question 65 of 199

Which of the following are defenses that some plants use against herbivory?

Select one of the following:

production of the unusual amino acid canavanine
release of volatile compounds that attract parasitoid wasps
association of plant tissues with mycorrhizae
A and B only
A, B, and C

Explanation

Question 66 of 199

Plants are affected by an array of pathogens. Which of the following is not a plant defense against disease?

Select one of the following:

cells near the point of infection destroying themselves to prevent the spread of the infection
production of chemicals that kill pathogens
acquiring gene-for-gene recognition that allows specific proteins to interact so that the plant can produce defenses against the pathogen
a waxy cuticle that pathogens have trouble penetrating
All of the above are plant defenses against disease.

Explanation

Question 67 of 199

The transduction pathway that activates systemic acquired resistance in plants is initially signaled by

Select one of the following:

antisense RNA.
Pfr phytochrome.
salicylic acid.
abscisic acid.
red, but not far-red, light.

Explanation

Question 68 of 199

A short-day plant exposed to nights longer than the minimum for flowering but interrupted by short flashes of light will flower.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 69 of 199

A long-day plant will flower only when the night is longer than a critical value.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 70 of 199

An example of a properly functioning homeostatic control system is seen when

Select one of the following:

the level of glucose in the blood is abnormally high whether or not a meal has been eaten.
a blood cell shrinks when placed in a solution of salt and water.
the core body temperature of a runner rises gradually from 37°C to 45°C.
the kidneys excrete salt into the urine when dietary salt levels rise.
the blood pressure increases in response to an increase in blood volume.

Explanation

Question 71 of 199

Positive feedback has occurred when

Select one of the following:

an increase in blood sugar increases the secretion of a hormone that stimulates the movement of sugar out of the blood.
a decrease in blood sugar increases the secretion of a hormone that increases the conversion of glycogen to glucose.
uterine contractions needed for the birthing process are expedited by the pressure of a moving baby in its mother's uterus.
an increase in calcium concentration increases the secretion of a hormone that promotes the storage of calcium in bone.
a decrease in blood calcium increases the amount of the hormone that causes the release of calcium from bone.

Explanation

Question 72 of 199

In a survivably cold environment, an ectotherm is more likely to survive an extended period of food deprivation than would an equally sized endotherm because the ectotherm

Select one of the following:

invests little energy in temperature regulation.
has greater insulation on its body surface.
maintains a higher basal metabolic rate.
metabolizes its stored energy more readily than can the endotherm.
expends more energy per kg of body mass than does the endotherm.

Explanation

Question 73 of 199

Humans can lose, but cannot gain, heat through the process of

Select one of the following:

conduction.
evaporation.
radiation.
metabolism.
convection.

Explanation

Question 74 of 199

An example of an ectothermic organism that has few or no behavioral options when it comes to its ability to adjust its body temperature is a

Select one of the following:

sea star, a marine invertebrate.
bluefin tuna, a predatory fish.
terrestrial lizard.
honeybee in a hive.
hummingbird.

Explanation

Question 75 of 199

Endothermy

Select one of the following:

is only seen in mammals
is a term equivalent to "cold-blooded."
involves the production of heat through metabolism
is only seen in insects
is a characteristic of most animals

Explanation

Question 76 of 199

An example of an organism that has only behavioral controls over its body temperature is the

Select one of the following:

green frog.
penguin.
bluefin tuna
house sparrow.
gray wolf.

Explanation

Question 77 of 199

The temperature-regulating center of vertebrate animals is located in the

Select one of the following:

medulla oblongata.
thyroid gland.
hypothalamus.
subcutaneous layer of the skin.
liver

Explanation

Question 78 of 199

Ingested foods inside the digestive tract of snakes are typically digested by

Select one of the following:

biosynthesis.
enzymatic hydrolysis
uric acid.
chemiosmosis.
metabolic heat.

Explanation

Question 79 of 199

What does the difference in temperature between arteries and veins in the goose's legs indicate?

Select one of the following:

The legs need to be kept cool so that muscles will function well.
The feet need to be kept very warm so they do not freeze in water.
Heat loss is proportional to the difference in temperature inside and outside, so minimizing the difference means the goose will lose less heat.
Arterial blood helps return heat to the core of the goose.
Warm venous blood is necessary to keep the goose's feet from freezing.

Explanation

Question 80 of 199

Both the eye and the respiratory tract are protected against infections by which of the
following?

Select one of the following:

the secretion of lysozyme onto their surface
the mucous membranes that cover their surface
the secretion of complement proteins
the release of slightly acidic secretions
interferons produced by immune cells

Explanation

Question 81 of 199

Which statement about the complement system is true?

Select one of the following:

These proteins are involved in innate immunity and not acquired immunity.
These proteins are secreted by cytotoxic T cells and other CD8 cells.
This group of proteins includes interferons and interleukins.
These proteins are one group of antimicrobial proteins acting together in cascade fashion.
These proteins act individually to attack and lyse microbes.

Explanation

Question 82 of 199

Which cells and which signaling molecules are responsible for initiating an inflammatory response?

Select one of the following:

phagocytes: lysozymes
phagocytes: chemokines
dendritic cells: interferons
mast cells: histamines
lymphocytes: interferons

Explanation

Question 83 of 199

Septic shock, a systemic response including high fever and low blood pressure, is a response to

Select one of the following:

specific forms of viruses.
certain bacterial infections.
the presence of natural killer cells.
a fever of >103°F in adults.
increased production of neutrophils

Explanation

Question 84 of 199

If a newborn were accidentally given a drug that destroyed the thymus, what would most likely happen?

Select one of the following:

His cells would lack class I MHC molecules on their surface.
His immune system would not function.
Genetic rearrangement of antigen receptors would not occur.
His T cells would not mature and differentiate appropriately.
His B cells would be reduced in number.

Explanation

Question 85 of 199

The clonal selection theory is an explanation for how

Select one of the following:

a single type of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells.
V gene and J gene segments are rearranged
an antigen can provoke development of very few cells to result in production of high levels of specific antibodies.
HIV can disrupt the immune system.
macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells.

Explanation

Question 86 of 199

When would B cells produce effector cells?

Select one of the following:

between 0 and 7 days
between 7 and 14 days
between 28 and 35 days
A and B
A and C

Explanation

Question 87 of 199

When would memory cells be produced?

Select one of the following:

between 0 and 7 days
between 7 and 14 days
between 28 and 35 days
between 35 and 42 days
both A and C

Explanation

Question 88 of 199

Which of the following differentiates T cells and B cells?

Select one of the following:

T cells but not B cells are stimulated to increase the rate of their cell cycles.
Only B cells are produced from stem cells of the bone marrow.
T cells but not B cells can directly attack and destroy invading pathogens.
T cells but not B cells have surface markers.
Only B cells take part in cell-mediated immunity.

Explanation

Question 89 of 199

The MHC is important in a T cell's ability to

Select one of the following:

recognize specific parasitic pathogens.
distinguish self from nonself.
identify specific bacterial pathogens.
identify specific viruses.
recognize differences among types of cancer.

Explanation

Question 90 of 199

The following events occur when a mammalian immune system first encounters a
pathogen. Which shows the correct sequence in which they occur?
I. Pathogen is destroyed.
II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies.
III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes.
IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous.
V. Only memory cells remain.

Select one of the following:

I → III → II → IV → V
III → II → I → V → IV
II → I → IV → III → V
IV → II → III → I → V
III → IV → II → I → V

Explanation

Question 91 of 199

Which cell type interacts with both the humoral and cell-mediated immune
pathways?

Select one of the following:

plasma cells
helper T cells
natural killer cells
CD8 cells
cytotoxic T cells

Explanation

Question 92 of 199

Which of the following is accounted for by immunological memory?

Select one of the following:

the human body's ability to distinguish self from nonself
the observation that some strains of the pathogen that causes dengue fever cause worse
disease than others
the ability of a helper T cell to signal B cells via cytokines
the ancient observation that someone who had recovered from the plague could safely care
for those newly diseased
the ability of the immune system to present antigen fragments in association with MHC
antigens

Explanation

Question 93 of 199

An otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV, the virus that causes infectious
mononucleosis. The same student had already been infected when she was a child, and she had
merely experienced a mild sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in her neck. This time, though
infected, she does not get sick. The EBV antigen fragments will be presented by the virus-infected cells along with which of
the following?

Select one of the following:

complement
antibodies
class I MHC molecules
class II MHC molecules
Dendritic cells

Explanation

Question 94 of 199

A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T cell being unable
to

Select one of the following:

respond to T-independent antigens.
lyse tumor cells.
stimulate a cytotoxic T cell.
interact with a class I MHC-antigen complex
interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex.

Explanation

Question 95 of 199

Naturally acquired passive immunity would involve the

Select one of the following:

injection of vaccine.
ingestion of interferon.
placental transfer of antibodies.
absorption of pathogens through mucous membranes.
injection of antibodies.

Explanation

Question 96 of 199

What accounts for antibody switching (i.e., the switch of one B cell from producing one class
of antibody to another antibody class that is responsive to the same antigen)?

Select one of the following:

mutation in the genes of that B cell, induced by exposure to the antigen
the rearrangement of V region genes in that clone of responsive B cells
a switch in the kind of antigen-presenting cell that is involved in the immune response
a patient's reaction to the first kind of antibody made by the plasma cells
the shuffling of exons for one C region type to another attached to the V-J transcript

Explanation

Question 97 of 199

In which of the cases could the mother exhibit an anti-Rh-factor reaction to the
developing fetus?

Select one of the following:

Case 1 only
Case 3 only
Cases 1 and 2 only
Cases 1, 2, and 3
It cannot be determined from the data given.

Explanation

Question 98 of 199

When an individual is subject to short-term starvation, most available food is used to provide energy(metabolism) rather than building blocks (growth and repair). Which hormone would be particularly active intimes of food shortage?

Select one of the following:

epinephrine
glucagon
oxytocin
antidiuretic hormone
insulin

Explanation

Question 99 of 199

Based on their effects, which pair below could be considered antagonistic?

Select one of the following:

prostaglandin F and nitric oxide
growth hormone and ecdysone
endocrine and exocrine glands
hormones and target cells
neurosecretory cells and neurotransmitters

Explanation

Question 100 of 199

For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship.
(A) The number of purines in the DNA strand 5ʹ-AAGAGGAGAAA-3ʹ
(B) The number of pyrimidines in the DNA strand 5ʹ-AAGAGGAGAAA-3ʹ

Select one of the following:

Item (A) is greater than item (B).
Item (A) is less than item (B).
Item (A) is exactly or very approximately equal to item (B).
Item (A) may stand in more than one of the above relations to item (B).

Explanation

Question 101 of 199

Which of the following is not a polymer?

Select one of the following:

glucose
starch
cellulose
chitin
DNA

Explanation

Question 102 of 199

The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a
molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?

Select one of the following:

C18H36O18
C18H30O15
C6H10O5
C18H10O15
C3H6O3

Explanation

Question 103 of 199

Which of the following descriptors is true of the molecule shown in Figure 5.1?

Select one of the following:

hexose
fructose
glucose
A and B only
A and C only

Explanation

Question 104 of 199

Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in Figure 5.2?

Select one of the following:

It is a saturated fatty acid.
A diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.
Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.
A and B only
A, B and C

Explanation

Question 105 of 199

Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in Figure 5.3?

Select one of the following:

It is a saturated fatty acid.
A diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.
Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature
A and B only
A, B and C

Explanation

Question 106 of 199

What is the structure shown in Figure 5.4?

Select one of the following:

starch molecule
protein molecule
steroid molecule
cellulose molecule
phospholipid molecule

Explanation

Question 107 of 199

At which bond would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the peptide, back to
its component amino acid?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 108 of 199

Which bond is a peptide bond?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 109 of 199

Which bond is closest to the N-terminus of the molecule?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 110 of 199

The structure depicted in Figure 5.7 shows the

Select one of the following:

1-4 linkage of the α glucose monomers of starch
1-4 linkage of the β glucose monomers of cellulose.
double helical structure of a DNA molecule.
α helix secondary structure of a polypeptide.
β pleated sheet secondary structure of a polypeptide

Explanation

Question 111 of 199

Which of the following best describes the flow of information in eukaryotic cells?

Select one of the following:

DNA → RNA → proteins
RNA → proteins → DNA
proteins → DNA → RNA
RNA → DNA → proteins
DNA → proteins → RNA

Explanation

Question 112 of 199

If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine, what would be the percentage of
guanine?

Select one of the following:

10
20
40
80
impossible to tell from the information given

Explanation

Question 113 of 199

If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5ʹATTGCA3ʹ, the other
complementary strand would have the sequence

Select one of the following:

5ʹTAACGT3ʹ
3ʹTAACGT5ʹ.
5ʹUAACGU3ʹ
3ʹUAACGU5ʹ.
5ʹUGCAAU3ʹ.

Explanation

Question 114 of 199

Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules?

Select one of the following:

lipids
starches
proteins
steroids
glucose

Explanation

Question 115 of 199

Under which of the following conditions would you expect to find a cell with a majority of "free" ribosomes (not connected to the ER)?

Select one of the following:

a cell that is secreting proteins
a cell that is producing cytoplasmic enzymes
a cell that is constructing its cell wall or extracellular matrix
a cell that is digesting food particles
a cell that is enlarging its vacuole

Explanation

Question 116 of 199

Which type of organelle is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids?

Select one of the following:

smooth endoplasmic reticulum
lysosome
ribosome
mitochondrion
contractile vacuole

Explanation

Question 117 of 199

The Golgi apparatus has a polarity or sidedness to its structure and function. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes this polarity?

Select one of the following:

Transport vesicles fuse with one side of the Golgi and leave from the opposite side.
Proteins in in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other.
Lipids in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other.
Soluble proteins in the cisternae (interior) of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other.
All of the above correctly describe polar characteristics of the Golgi function.

Explanation

Question 118 of 199

Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell?

Select one of the following:

rough ER
lysosomes
plasmodesmata
Golgi vesicles
free cytoplasmic ribosomes

Explanation

Question 119 of 199

In animal cells, hydrolytic enzymes are packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. Which of the following organelles functions in this compartmentalization?

Select one of the following:

chloroplast
lysosome
central vacuole
peroxisome
glyoxysome

Explanation

Question 120 of 199

Which of the following is a compartment that often takes up much of the volume of a plant cell?

Select one of the following:

lysosome
vacuole
mitochondrion
Golgi apparatus
peroxisome

Explanation

Question 121 of 199

Which is one of the main energy transformers of cells?

Select one of the following:

lysosome
vacuole
mitochondrion
Golgi apparatus
peroxisome

Explanation

Question 122 of 199

Which of the following contains enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various substrates to oxygen?

Select one of the following:

lysosome
vacuole
mitochondrion
Golgi apparatus
peroxisome

Explanation

Question 123 of 199

Grana, thylakoids, and stroma are all components found in

Select one of the following:

vacuoles.
chloroplasts.
mitochondria.
lysosomes.
nuclei.

Explanation

Question 124 of 199

A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from

Select one of the following:

a bacterium.
an animal, but not a plant.
a plant, but not an animal.
a plant or an animal
any kind of organism

Explanation

Question 125 of 199

Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction's

Select one of the following:

entropy
activation energy.
equilibrium point.
endothermic level.
free-energy content.

Explanation

Question 126 of 199

Which curve represents the behavior of an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives in hot springs at temperatures of 70oC or higher?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 127 of 199

Which curve was most likely generated from analysis of an enzyme form a human stomach where conditions are strongly acidic?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 128 of 199

Which of the following terms best describes the forward reaction in Figure 8.1?

Select one of the following:

endergonic, ∆G > 0
exergonic, ∆G < 0
endergonic, ∆G < 0
exergonic, ∆G > 0
chemical equilibrium, ∆G = 0

Explanation

Question 129 of 199

Assume that the reaction in Figure 8.1 has a ΔG of -5.6 kcal/mol. Which of the following would be true?

Select one of the following:

The reaction could be coupled to power an endergonic reaction with a ΔG of +6.2 kcal/mol.
The reaction could be coupled to power an exergonic reaction with a ΔG of +8.8 kcal/mol.
The reaction would result in a decrease in entropy (S) and an increase in the total energy content (H) of the system.
The reaction would result in an increase in entropy (S) and a decrease in the total energy content (H) of the system.
The reaction would result in products (C + D) with a greater free-energy content than in the initial reactants (A + B).

Explanation

Question 130 of 199

Paracrine signaling

Select one of the following:

involves secreting cells acting on nearby target cells by discharging a local regulator into the extracellular fluid.
requiresnerve cells to release a neurotransmitter into the synapse
occurs only in paracrine yeast cells.
has been found in plants but not animals.
involves mating factors attaching to target cells and causing production of new paracrine cells.

Explanation

Question 131 of 199

What would be true for the signaling system in an animal cell that lacks the ability to produce GTP?

Select one of the following:

It would not be able to activate and inactivate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane.
It could activate only the epinephrine system.
It would be able to carry out reception and transduction, but would not be able to respond to a signal.
Only A and C are true.
A, B, and C are true.

Explanation

Question 132 of 199

Up to 60% of all medicines used today exert their effects by influencing what structures in the cell membrane?

Select one of the following:

tyrosine-kinases receptors
ligand-gated ion channel receptors
growth factors
G proteins
cholesterol

Explanation

Question 133 of 199

Which of the following are chemical messengers that pass through the plasma membrane of cells & have receptor molecules in the cytoplasm?

Select one of the following:

Insulin
Testosterone
cAMP
Ephinephrine

Explanation

Question 134 of 199

A major group of G protein-coupled receptors contains seven transmembrane α helices. The amino end of the protein lies at the exterior of the plasma membrane. Loops of amino acids connect the helices either at the exterior face or on the cytosol face of the membrane. The loop on the cytosol side between helices 5 and 6 is usually substantially longer than the others.

Where would you expect to find the carboxyl end?

Select one of the following:

at the exterior surface
at the cytosol surface
connected with the loop at H5 and H6
between the membrane layers

Explanation

Question 135 of 199

One of the major categories of receptors in the plasma membrane reacts by forming dimers, adding phosphate groups, and then activating relay proteins. Which type does this?

Select one of the following:

G protein-coupled receptors
ligand-gated ion channels
steroid receptors
receptor tyrosine kinases

Explanation

Question 136 of 199

Sutherland discovered that epinephrine signals

Select one of the following:

a decrease in levels of cAMP as a result of bypassing the plasma membrane.
lower blood glucose by binding to liver cells.
interactions with insulin inside muscle cells.
interactions directly with glycogen phosphorylase.
elevation of cytosolic concentrations of cyclic AMP.

Explanation

Question 137 of 199

Which of the following describes cell communication systems?

Select one of the following:

Cell signaling evolved more recently than systems such as the immune system of vertebrates.
Communicating cells are usually close together.
Most signal receptors are bound to the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope.
Lipid phosphorylation is a major mechanism of signal transduction.
In response to a signal, the cell may alter activities by changes in cytosol activity or intranscription of RNA.

Explanation

Question 138 of 199

Which of the following most likely would be an immediate result of growth factor binding to its receptor?

Select one of the following:

protein kinase activity
adenylyl cyclase activity
GTPase activity
protein phosphatase activity
phosphorylase activity

Explanation

Question 139 of 199

Adenylyl cyclase has the opposite effect of which of the following?

Select one of the following:

protein kinase
protein phosphatase
phosphodiesterase
phosphorylase
GTPase

Explanation

Question 140 of 199

If a pharmaceutical company wished to design a drug to maintain low blood sugar levels, oneapproach might be to

Select one of the following:

design a compound that blocks epinephrine receptor activation.
design a compound that inhibits cAMP production in liver cells.
design a compound that inhibits phosphorylase activity.
design a compound to block G-protein activity in liver cells.
All of the above are possible approaches.

Explanation

Question 141 of 199

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

When signal molecules first bind to receptor tyrosine kinases, the receptors phosphorylate anumber of nearby molecules
In response to some G-protein-mediated signals, a special type of lipid molecule associated with the plasma membrane is cleaved to form IP3 and calcium.
In most cases, signal molecules interact with the cell at the plasma membrane and then enter the cell and eventually the nucleus.
Toxins such as those that cause botulism and cholera interfere with the ability of activated G proteins to hydrolyze GTP to GDP, resulting in phosphodiesterase activity in the absence of an appropriate signal molecule.
Protein kinase A activation is one possible result of signal molecules binding to G protein-linked receptors.

Explanation

Question 142 of 199

One inhibitor of cGMP is Viagra. It provides a signal that leads to dilation of blood vesselsand increase of blood in the penis, facilitating erection. cGMP is inhibited, therefore the signal isprolonged. The original signal that is now inhibited would have

Select one of the following:

hydrolyzed cGMP to GMP.
hydrolyzed GTP to GDP
phosphorylated GDP.
dephosphorylated cGMP.
removed GMP from the cell.

Explanation

Question 143 of 199

The nucleus and most of the organelles in a neuron are located in the

Select one of the following:

dendritic region.
axon hillock.
axon.
cell body.
axon terminals

Explanation

Question 144 of 199

For a neuron with an initial membrane potential at -70 mV, an increase in the movement of potassium ions out of that neuron's cytoplasm would result in

Select one of the following:

the depolarization of the neuron
the hyperpolarization of the neuron
the replacement of potassium ions with sodium ions.
the replacement of potassium ions with calcium ions
the neuron switching on its sodium-potassium pump to restore the initial conditions

Explanation

Question 145 of 199

Although the membrane of a "resting" neuron is highly permeable to potassium ions, its membrane potential does not exactly match the equilibrium potential for potassium because the neuronal membrane is also

Select one of the following:

fully permeable to sodium ions.
slightly permeable to sodium ions
fully permeable to calcium ions.
impermeable to sodium ions
highly permeable to chloride ions.

Explanation

Question 146 of 199

The operation of the sodium-potassium "pump" moves

Select one of the following:

sodium and potassium ions into the cell.
sodium and potassium ions out of the ce
sodium ions into the cell and potassium ions out of the cell.
sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell.
sodium and potassium ions into the mitochondria.

Explanation

Question 147 of 199

A "resting" motor neuron is expected to

Select one of the following:

release lots of acetylcholine.
have high permeability to sodium ions.
be equally permeable to sodium and potassium ions.
exhibit a resting potential that is more negative than the "threshold" potential.
have a higher concentration of sodium ions on the inside of the cell than on the outside

Explanation

Question 148 of 199

The "threshold" potential of a membrane

Select one of the following:

is the point of separation from a living to a dead neuron.
is the lowest frequency of action potentials a neuron can produce.
is the minimum hyperpolarization needed to prevent the occurrence of action potentials.
is the minimum depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels.
is the peak amount of depolarization seen in an action potential.

Explanation

Question 149 of 199

A toxin that binds specifically to voltage-gated sodium channels in axons would be expected to

Select one of the following:

prevent the hyperpolarization phase of the action potential.
prevent the depolarization phase of the action potential.
prevent graded potentials
increase the release of neurotransmitter molecules.
have most of its effects on the dendritic region of a neuron.

Explanation

Question 150 of 199

After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by

Select one of the following:

the opening of sodium activation gates.
the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the closing of sodium channels.
a decrease in the membrane's permeability to potassium and chloride ions.
a brief inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump
the opening of more voltage-gated sodium channels.

Explanation

Question 151 of 199

The membrane potential is closest to the equilibrium potential for potassium at label

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 152 of 199

The membrane's permeability to sodium ions is at its maximum at label

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 153 of 199

The minimum graded depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels is indicated by the label

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 154 of 199

The cell is not hyperpolarized; however, repolarization is in progress, as the sodium channels are closing or closed, and many potassium channels have opened at label

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 155 of 199

The neuronal membrane is at its resting potential at label

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 156 of 199

In the sequence of permeability changes for a complete action potential, the first of these events that occurs is

Select one of the following:

the activation of the sodium-potassium "pump."
the inhibition of the sodium-potassium "pump."
the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels.
the closing of voltage-gated potassium channels.
the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels.

Explanation

Question 157 of 199

Neurotransmitters are released from axon terminals via

Select one of the following:

osmosis.
active transport.
diffusion.
transcytosis.
exocytosis.

Explanation

Question 158 of 199

The observation that the acetylcholine released into the junction between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle binds to a sodium channel and opens it is an example of

Select one of the following:

a voltage-gated sodium channel.
a voltage-gated potassium channel.
a ligand-gated sodium channel.
a second-messenger-gated sodium channel.
a chemical that inhibits action potentials.

Explanation

Question 159 of 199

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) occurs in a membrane made more permeable to

Select one of the following:

potassium ions.
sodium ions.
calcium ions.
ATP.
all neurotransmitter molecules.

Explanation

Question 160 of 199

The activity of acetylcholine in a synapse is terminated by

Select one of the following:

its active transport across the presynaptic membrane.
its diffusion across the presynaptic membrane.
its active transport across the postsynaptic membrane
its diffusion across the postsynaptic membrane.
its degradation by a hydrolytic enzyme on the postsynaptic membrane

Explanation

Question 161 of 199

When several EPSPs arrive at the axon hillock from different dendritic locations, depolarizing the postsynaptic cell to threshold for an action potential, this is an example of

Select one of the following:

temporal summation.
spatial summation.
tetanus.
the refractory state.
an action potential with an abnormally high peak of depolarization.

Explanation

Question 162 of 199

Functionally, which cellular location is the neuron's "decision-making site" as to whether or not an action potential will be initiated?

Select one of the following:

axonal membranes
axon hillocks
dendritic membranes
mitochondrial membranes
presynaptic membranes

Explanation

Question 163 of 199

Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy within a cell?

Select one of the following:

respiration
dehydration reactions
hydrolysis
catabolism
digestion

Explanation

Question 164 of 199

Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy?

Select one of the following:

the muscle contractions of a person mowing grass
water rushing over Niagara Falls
light flashes emitted by a firefly
a molecule of glucose
the flight of an insect foraging for food

Explanation

Question 165 of 199

Which of the following is true of metabolism in its entirety in all organisms?

Select one of the following:

Metabolism depends on a constant supply of energy from food.
Metabolism depends on an organism's adequate hydration.
Metabolism uses all of an organism's resources.
Metabolism is a property of organismal life.
Metabolism manages the increase of entropy in an organism.

Explanation

Question 166 of 199

What is the change in free energy of a system at chemical equilibrium?

Select one of the following:

slightly increasing
greatly increasing
slightly decreasing
greatly decreasing
no net change

Explanation

Question 167 of 199

Chemical equilibrium is relatively rare in living cells. Which of the following could be an example of a reaction at chemical equilibrium in a cell?

Select one of the following:

a reaction in which the free energy at equilibrium is higher than the energy content at any point away from equilibrium
a chemical reaction in which the entropy change in the reaction is just balanced by an opposite entropy change in the cell's surroundings
an endergonic reaction in an active metabolic pathway where the energy for that reaction is supplied only by heat from the environment
a chemical reaction in which both the reactants and products are not being produced or used in any active metabolic pathway
no possibility of having chemical equilibrium in any living cell

Explanation

Question 168 of 199

When glucose monomers are joined together by glycosidic linkages to form a cellulose polymer, the changes in free energy, total energy, and entropy are as follows:

Select one of the following:

+ΔG, +ΔH, +ΔS.
+ΔG, +ΔH, -ΔS.
+ΔG, -ΔH, -ΔS.
-ΔG, +ΔH, +ΔS.
-ΔG, -ΔH, -ΔS

Explanation

Question 169 of 199

Which of the following best describes enthalpy (H)?

Select one of the following:

the total kinetic energy of a system
the heat content of a chemical system
the system's entropy
the cell's energy equilibrium
the condition of a cell that is not able to react

Explanation

Question 170 of 199

When 10,000 molecules of ATP are hydrolyzed to ADP and Pi in a test tube, about twice as much heat is liberated as when a cell hydrolyzes the same amount of ATP. Which of the following is the best explanation for this observation?

Select one of the following:

Cells are open systems, but a test tube is a closed system.
Cells are less efficient at heat production than nonliving systems.
The hydrolysis of ATP in a cell produces different chemical products than does the reaction in a test tube.
The reaction in cells must be catalyzed by enzymes, but the reaction in a test tube does not need enzymes.
Reactant and product concentrations in the test tube are different from those in the cell.

Explanation

Question 171 of 199

What term is used to describe the transfer of free energy from catabolic pathways to anabolic pathways?

Select one of the following:

feedback regulation
bioenergetics
energy coupling
entropy
cooperativity

Explanation

Question 172 of 199

When chemical, transport, or mechanical work is done by an organism, what happens to the heat generated?

Select one of the following:

It is used to power yet more cellular work.
It is used to store energy as more ATP.
It is used to generate ADP from nucleotide precursors.
It is lost to the environment.
It is transported to specific organs such as the brain.

Explanation

Question 173 of 199

A number of systems for pumping across membranes are powered by ATP. Such ATP-powered pumps are often called ATPases although they don't often hydrolyze ATP unless they are simultaneously transporting ions. Small increases in calcium ions in the cytosol trigger a number of different intracellular reactions, so the cells must keep the calcium concentration quite low. Muscle cells also transport calcium from the cytosol into the membranous system called the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). If a muscle cell cytosol has a free calcium ion concentration of 10-7 in a resting cell, while the concentration in the SR can be 10-2, then how is the ATPase acting?

Select one of the following:

The ATP must be powering an inflow of calcium from the outside of the cell into the SR
ATP must be transferring Pi to the SR to enable this to occur.
ATPase activity must be pumping calcium from the cytosol to the SR against the concentration gradient.
The calcium ions must be diffusing back into the SR along the concentration gradient.
The route of calcium ions must be from SR to the cytosol, to the cell's environment.

Explanation

Question 174 of 199

What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking down complex molecules?

Select one of the following:

anabolic pathways
catabolic pathways
fermentation pathways
thermodynamic pathways
bioenergetic pathways

Explanation

Question 175 of 199

Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction?
C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6 O₂ → 6 CO₂ + 6 H₂O + Energy

Select one of the following:

C₆H₁₂O₆ is oxidized and O₂ is reduced.
O₂ is oxidized and H₂O is reduced.
CO₂ is reduced and O₂ is oxidized
C₆H₁₂O₆ is reduced and CO₂ is oxidized.
O₂ is reduced and CO₂ is oxidized

Explanation

Question 176 of 199

Where does glycolysis take place in eukaryotic cells?

Select one of the following:

mitochondrial matrix
mitochondrial outer membrane
mitochondrial inner membrane
mitochondrial intermembrane space
cytosol

Explanation

Question 177 of 199

Which step in Figure 9.1 shows a split of one molecule into two smaller molecules?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 178 of 199

Starting with one molecule of glucose, the "net" products of glycolysis are

Select one of the following:

2 NAD⁺, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP
2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP
2 FADH₂, 2 pyruvate, and 4 ATP
6 CO₂, 2 ATP, and 2 pyruvate.
6 CO₂, 30 ATP, and 2 pyruvate

Explanation

Question 179 of 199

Why is glycolysis described as having an investment phase and a payoff phase?

Select one of the following:

It both splits molecules and assembles molecules
It attaches and detaches phosphate groups.
It uses glucose and generates pyruvate.
It shifts molecules from cytosol to mitochondrion.
It uses stored ATP and then forms a net increase in ATP

Explanation

Question 180 of 199

In the presence of oxygen, the three-carbon compound pyruvate can be catabolized in the citric acid cycle. First, however, the pyruvate (1) loses a carbon, which is given off as a molecule of CO₂, (2) is oxidized to form a two-carbon compound called acetate, and (3) is bonded to coenzyme A.

These three steps result in the formation of

Select one of the following:

acetyl CoA, O₂, and ATP.
acetyl CoA, FADH₂, and CO₂
acetyl CoA, FAD, H₂, and CO₂.
acetyl CoA, NADH, H⁺, and CO₂.
acetyl CoA, NAD⁺, ATP, and CO₂

Explanation

Question 181 of 199

How many molecules of carbon dioxide (CO2) would be produced by five turns of the citric acid cycle?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 182 of 199

Which of the following describes the sequence of electron carriers in the electron transport chain, starting with the least electronegative?

Select one of the following:

ubiquinone (Q), cytochromes (Cyt), FMN, Fe•S
cytochromes (Cyt), FMN, ubiquinone, Fe∙S
Fe•S, FMN, cytochromes (Cyt), ubiquinone
FMN, Fe•S, ubiquinone, cytochromes (Cyt)
cytochromes (Cyt), Fe•S, ubiquinone, FMN

Explanation

Question 183 of 199

Where does the Calvin cycle take place?

Select one of the following:

stroma of the chloroplast
thylakoid membrane
cytoplasm surrounding the chloroplast
interior of the thylakoid (thylakoid space)
outer membrane of the chloroplast

Explanation

Question 184 of 199

When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a direct by-product of

Select one of the following:

reducing NADP⁺.
splitting water molecules.
chemiosmosis.
the electron transfer system of photosystem I
the electron transfer system of photosystem II.

Explanation

Question 185 of 199

Figure 10.1 shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for photosynthesis. Why are they different?

Select one of the following:

Green and yellow wavelengths inhibit the absorption of red and blue wavelengths.
Bright sunlight destroys photosynthetic pigments.
Oxygen given off during photosynthesis interferes with the absorption of light.
Other pigments absorb light in addition to chlorophyll a.
Aerobic bacteria take up oxygen, which changes the measurement of the rate of photosynthesis.

Explanation

Question 186 of 199

Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes?

Select one of the following:

the splitting of water
the absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
the flow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I
the synthesis of ATP
the reduction of NADP⁺

Explanation

Question 187 of 199

In mitochondria, chemiosmosis translocates protons from the matrix into the intermembranespace, whereas in chloroplasts, chemiosmosis translocates protons from

Select one of the following:

the stroma to the photosystem II.
the matrix to the stroma.
the stroma to the thylakoid space.
the intermembrane space to the matrix.
ATP synthase toNADP+ reductase.

Explanation

Question 188 of 199

In thylakoids, protons travel through ATP synthase from the stroma to the thylakoid space.Therefore the catalytic "knobs" of ATP synthase would be located

Select one of the following:

on the side facing the thylakoid space
on the ATP molecules themselves.
on the pigment molecules of PSI and PSII.
on the stroma side of the membrane.
built into the center of the thylkoid stack (granum).

Explanation

Question 189 of 199

Compare the light reactions with the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis in plants.
Produces NADH:

Select one of the following:

light reactions alone
the Calvin cycle alone
both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle
neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle
occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

Explanation

Question 190 of 199

Compare the light reactions with the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis in plants.
Requires glucose:

Select one of the following:

light reactions alone
the Calvin cycle alone
both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle
neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle
occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

Explanation

Question 191 of 199

The sugar that results from three "turns" of the Calvin cycle is glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(G3P). Which of the following is a consequence of this?

Select one of the following:

Formation of a moleculeof glucose would require 9 "turns."
G3P more readily forms sucrose and other disaccharides than it does monosaccharides.
Some plants would not taste sweet to us.
The formation of starch in plants involves assembling many G3P molecules, with or without further rearrangements.
G3P is easier for a plant to store.

Explanation

Question 192 of 199

If ATP used by this plant is labeled with radioactive phosphorus, which molecules will the radioactivity be measurable after one "turn" of the cycle?

Select one of the following:

B only
B and C only
B, C, and D only
B and E only
B, C, D, and E

Explanation

Question 193 of 199

If the carbon atom of the incoming CO₂ molecule is labeled with a radioactive isotope of carbon, which organic molecules will be radioactively labeled after one cycle?

Select one of the following:

E only
B, C, D, and E
C, D, and E only
B and C only
B and D only

Explanation

Question 194 of 199

Which molecule(s) of the Calvin cycle is (are) also found in glycolysis?

Select one of the following:

A only
C and D only
A, B, C, and E
B, C, and E
E only

Explanation

Question 195 of 199

Evolutionary adaptations that help diverse animals directly exchange matter between cells and the environment include

Select one of the following:

a gastrovascular activity, a two-layered body, and a torpedo-like body shape.
an external respiratory surface, a small body size, and a two-cell-layered body.
a large body volume; a long, tubular body; and a set of wings.
complex internal structures, a small body size, and a large surface area.
an unbranched internal surface, a small body size, and thick covering.

Explanation

Question 196 of 199

Hibernation and estivation are both examples of

Select one of the following:

acclimatization.
torpor.
evaporative cooling
nonshivering thermogenesis.
shivering thermogenesis.

Explanation

Question 197 of 199

If you gently twist your earlobe, it does not remain distorted because it contains

Select one of the following:

collagenous fibers.
elastin fibers.
reticular fibers.
adipose tissue.
loose connective tissue.

Explanation

Question 198 of 199

Endothermy

Select one of the following:

is a characteristic of most animals
involves the production of heat through metabolism
is only seen in insects
is a term equivalent to "cold-blooded"
is only seen in mammals

Explanation

Question 199 of 199

The best time to measure the metabolic rate is when the animal

Select one of the following:

is resting and has not eaten its first meal of the day.
is resting and has just completed its first meal of the day.
has recently eaten a sugar-free meal.
has not consumed any water for at least 48 hours.
has just completed 30 minutes of vigorous exercise.

Explanation

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	Created by rweston17 over 9 years ago

Quiz on AP BIO MIDTERM REVIEW, created by rweston17 on 18/01/2015.

AP BIO MIDTERM REVIEW

AP BIO MIDTERM REVIEW

Question 1 of 199

Darwinʹs mechanism of natural selection required long time spans in order to modify species. From whom did Darwin get the concept of Earthʹs ancient age?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 199

Charles Darwin was the first person to propose

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 199

Which of these conditions should completely prevent the occurrence of natural selection in a population over time?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 199

Which of the following represents an idea that Darwin learned from the writings of Thomas Malthus?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 199

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 199

To observe natural selectionʹs effects on a population, which of these must be true?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 199

During drought years on the Galapagos, small, easily eaten seeds become rare, leaving mostly large, hard-cased seeds that only birds with large beaks can eat. If a drought persists for several years, what should one expect to result from natural selection?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 199

Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act upon that population?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 199

How many separate species, both extant and extinct, are depicted in this tree?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 199

Which of the five common ancestors, labeled V—Z, has given rise to the greatest number of species, both extant and extinct?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 199

Evolutionary trees such as this are properly understood by scientists to be

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 199

Which statement best describes the evolution of pesticide resistance in a population of insects?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 199

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 199

Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bird?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 199

Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones, these bones having developed from very similar embryonic tissues. How do biologists interpret these similarities?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 199

Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 199

Which of the following statements most detracts from the claim that the human appendix is a completely vestigial organ?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 199

Ichthyosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs. Fossils show us that they had dorsal fins and tails, as do fish, even though their closest relatives were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 199

Monkeys of South and Central America have prehensile tails, meaning that their tails can be used to grasp objects. The tails of African and Asian monkeys are not prehensile. Which discipline is most likely to provide an evolutionary explanation for how this difference in tails came about?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 199

Heterozygote advantage should be most closely linked to which of the following?

Select one of the following:

Darwinʹs mechanism of natural selection required long time spans in order to modify species. From whom did
Darwin get the concept of Earthʹs ancient age?

Which of these conditions should completely prevent the occurrence of natural selection in a population over
time?

During drought years on the Galapagos, small, easily eaten seeds become rare, leaving mostly large,
hard-cased seeds that only birds with large beaks can eat. If a drought persists for several years, what should
one expect to result from natural selection?

Which of the five common ancestors, labeled V—Z, has given rise to the greatest number of species, both extant
and extinct?

Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones, these
bones having developed from very similar embryonic tissues. How do biologists interpret these similarities?

Which of the following statements most detracts from the claim that the human appendix is a completely
vestigial organ?

Ichthyosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs. Fossils show us that they had dorsal fins and tails, as do fish, even
though their closest relatives were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal
fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are

Monkeys of South and Central America have prehensile tails, meaning that their tails can be used to grasp
objects. The tails of African and Asian monkeys are not prehensile. Which discipline is most likely to provide
an evolutionary explanation for how this difference in tails came about?

The nutritional information on a cereal box shows that one serving of a dry cereal has 200 kilocalories. If one
were to burn one serving of the cereal, the amount of heat given off would be sufficient to raise the temperature
of 20 kg of water how many degrees Celsius?

The molecular mass of glucose (C6H12O6) is 180 g. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to
make a 0.5 M solution of glucose?

You have a freshly-prepared 0.1M solution of glucose in water. Each liter of this solution contains how many
glucose molecules?

You have a freshly-prepared 1M solution of glucose in water. You carefully pour out a 100 mL sample of that
solution. How many glucose molecules are included in that 100 mL sample?