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Quiz on Biochemistry MCQs- MAY 12, created by MatthewEllis96 on 02/02/2015.

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Biochemistry MCQs- MAY 12

Question 1 of 40

1

The glycolytic pathway in dinosaurs

Select one of the following:

  • Was likely to be completely different to modern day animals, because every organism has different metabolic pathways

  • Was likely to be completely different to modern day organisms because they eat different types of food

  • Was likely to be similar or identical to modern day organisms, because metabolic pathways have been highly conserved through evolution

  • Is something we cannot make meaningful predictions about because we have no knowledge of how metabolism has evolved

Explanation

Question 2 of 40

1

In thin layer chromatography, ninhydrin can be used to stain which compounds?

Select one of the following:

  • Monosaccharides

  • Amino acids

  • Keto acids

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 3 of 40

1

Which of the following lists contains the components of a phospholipid?

Select one of the following:

  • Choline, phosphate group, glycerol, fatty acids

  • Choline, phosphate group, glyceraldehyde, fatty acids

  • Carnitine, phosphate group, glycerol, amino acids

  • Carnitine, phosphate group, glyceraldehyde, amino acids

Explanation

Question 4 of 40

1

Testosterone belongs to which class of compounds?

Select one of the following:

  • Fats

  • Oils

  • Ketose monosaccharides

  • Sterols

Explanation

Question 5 of 40

1

Which of the following passes easily through phospholipid bilayers?

Select one of the following:

  • Chloride ions

  • ATP

  • Glucose 6-phosphate

  • Water

Explanation

Question 6 of 40

1

Peripheral membrane proteins

Select one of the following:

  • Pass through the cell membrane

  • Are non-covalently associated with integral membrane proteins

  • Are covalently linked to membrane lipids

  • Are always linked to sugars

Explanation

Question 7 of 40

1

Which of the following fatty acids is likely to have the highest melting temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • One with 14 carbon atoms and no double bonds

  • One with 14 carbon atoms and one double bond

  • One with 16 carbon atoms and no double bonds

  • One with 16 carbon atoms and one double bond

Explanation

Question 8 of 40

1

In the furanose ring form of β-D-fructose, how many of the carbon atoms are chiral?

Select one of the following:

  • 0

  • 2

  • 4

  • 6

Explanation

Question 9 of 40

1

Cellulose is a polymer of

Select one of the following:

  • α-D-glucose units only

  • β-D-glucose units only

  • α-D-glucose and β-D-fructose units

  • β-D-glucose and α-D-fructose units

Explanation

Question 10 of 40

1

In catabolic (degradative) reactions in humans, the most commonly used oxidising cofactors are

Select one of the following:

  • NAD+ and FAD

  • NADP+ and FAD

  • NADH and FADH2

  • NADPH and FADH2

Explanation

Question 11 of 40

1

Considering only the glycolytic pathway, what is the net gain in ATP molecules, per molecule of glucose processed?

Select one of the following:

  • 0

  • 1

  • 2

  • 4

Explanation

Question 12 of 40

1

Under anaerobic conditions, glycolysis in mammals can result in the compound lactose. Why?

Select one of the following:

  • To make ATP by substrate level phosphorylation

  • To regenerate NAD+

  • To make NADH for oxidative phosphorylation

  • To replenish Krebs’ (tricarboxylic acid) cycle intermediates

Explanation

Question 13 of 40

1

Which of the following statements about gluconeogenesis is TRUE?

Select one of the following:

  • Glucose is generated from the hydrolysis of phosphate from glucose 6-phosphate. No ATP is produced in this reaction.

  • Glucose is generated from the hydrolysis of phosphate from glucose 6-phosphate. One molecule of ATP is produced in this reaction.

  • In mammals, acetyl coenzyme A (AcCoA) can be a starting point.

  • The reactions are exactly the same as glycolysis, except in reverse.

Explanation

Question 14 of 40

1

Isomerisation of glucose 1-phosphate to glucose 6-phosphate occurs in

Select one of the following:

  • Glycolysis and gluconeogenesis

  • Glycogen synthesis and degradation

  • Glycolysis and the Leloir pathway

  • The Leloir pathway and glycogen degradation

Explanation

Question 15 of 40

1

In the Calvin cycle, carbon dioxide reacts with ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate. The first product(s) of this reaction is/are:

Select one of the following:

  • Two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate

  • Two molecules of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

  • One molecule of glucose 6-phosphate

  • One molecule of fructose 6-phosphate

Explanation

Question 16 of 40

1

In Calvin’s experiments to identify the compounds in the Calvin cycle, the function of the hot ethanol was

Select one of the following:

  • To shield the algae from the heat of the lamps

  • To provide a source of carbon atoms for the algae

  • To kill the algae after a defined time point

  • To solublise the compounds in the algae

Explanation

Question 17 of 40

1

The main source of energy for sperm cells is

Select one of the following:

  • Glucose

  • Fatty acids

  • Glycerol

  • Fructose

Explanation

Question 18 of 40

1

The transition state in an enzyme-catalysed reaction:

Select one of the following:

  • Is always covalently associated to the enzyme.

  • Is never covalently associated to the enzyme.

  • Can never be observed experimentally.

  • Can often be similar in structure to potent enzyme inhibitors.

Explanation

Question 19 of 40

1

In enzyme catalysis, the term ‘approximation’ refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • A catalytic strategy that facilitates transition state stabilisation through formation of covalent bonds between a substrate and amino acid groups in the active site.

  • A catalytic strategy that facilitates transition state stabilisation through formation of hydrogen bonds and electrostatic interactions between a substrate and amino acid groups in the active site.

  • A catalytic strategy that facilitates transition state stabilisation through interaction with metal ions in the active site.

  • A catalytic strategy that facilitates transition state stabilisation through direct transfer of a proton to the substrate from an acidic amino acid group in the active site.

Explanation

Question 20 of 40

1

The Urea cycle:

Select one of the following:

  • Is completely located in the mitochondrial matrix – preventing the exposure of free ammonium to other components of the eukaryote cell.

  • Allows free ammonia obtained directly from de-amination of glutamate to be converted to urea – preventing the exposure of free ammonium to other components of the eukaryote cell.

  • Allows free ammonia obtained directly from de-amination of tryptophan to be converted to urea – preventing the exposure of free ammonium to other components of the eukaryote cell.

  • Is completely located in the cytoplasm of the cell – preventing the exposure of free ammonium to other components of the eukaryote cell.

Explanation

Question 21 of 40

1

Serine proteases:

Select one of the following:

  • Are proteases that hydrolyse polypeptides with serine in the F1 position

  • Are proteases that are found in the cytoplasm of all cells

  • Utilise a serine residue at the active site to facilitate substrate binding

  • Utilise a serine residue at the active site to facilitate cleavage of peptide bonds

Explanation

Question 22 of 40

1

Consider an enzyme that shows Michaelis-Menton kinetics where:
vo = Vmax . [S] / (Km + [S])
If a substrate, S, is present at a concentration of 4 mM, and Km is 2 mM, the rate of reaction (vo) measured will be:

Select one of the following:

  • Half of Vmax

  • Two thirds of Vmax

  • Double Vmax

  • Three times Vmax

Explanation

Question 23 of 40

1

In acid-base catalysis:

Select one of the following:

  • An acidic- or basic- amino acid in the active site of an enzyme facilitates transition state formation by hydrogen abstraction from an appropriate substrate.

  • An acid- or basic- substrate in the active site of an enzyme facilitates transition state formation by hydrogen abstraction from a catalytic amino acid in the active site.

  • Both are correct.

  • Neither are correct.

Explanation

Question 24 of 40

1

The protein ubiquitin:

Select one of the following:

  • Can be covalently linked to proteins via the N-terminus glycine residue.

  • Is a polypeptide.

  • Is an essential component of eukaryote respiratory chains.

  • Can be covalently linked to proteins via isopeptide bond formation.

Explanation

Question 25 of 40

1

An oxyanion hole is:

Select one of the following:

  • A region of the enzyme active site that facilitates binding of positively charged substrates through their association with oxygen-containing amino-acid side chains in the enzyme.

  • A region of the enzyme active site that facilitates binding of negatively charged substrates through their association with oxygen-containing amino acid side chains in the enzyme.

  • A region of the active site that facilitates binding of positively charged oxygen containing groups present in a substrate.

  • A region of the active site that facilitates binding of negatively charged oxygen-containing groups present in a substrate.

Explanation

Question 26 of 40

1

If the ΔG°′ of the reaction Malate → Oxaloacetate is +30 kJ/mol, what will happen in the presence of malate dehydrogenase under standard conditions?

Select one of the following:

  • The reaction will proceed fast with the formation of the explosive products.

  • The reaction will not occur spontaneously.

  • The reaction will never reach equilibrium.

  • The reaction will proceed spontaneously from left to right.

Explanation

Question 27 of 40

1

Which of the following redox couple have the highest midpoint redox potential?

Select one of the following:

  • ubiquinol/ubiquinone

  • NADH/NAD+

  • H2O/½O2

  • ferrocytochrome c/ferricytochrome c

Explanation

Question 28 of 40

1

What is the source of energy for ATP synthesis in mitochondria?

Select one of the following:

  • AMP, ADP and inorganic phosphate

  • Gradient of Na+ across the inner mitochondrial membrane

  • Matrix fumarase and aconitase

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 29 of 40

1

Which of the following cannot reduce mitochondrial respiratory chain in normal conditions?

Select one of the following:

  • NADH

  • Oxygen

  • FADH2

  • Ubiquinol

Explanation

Question 30 of 40

1

The oxygen molecules released into the air as a product of photosynthesis comes from:

Select one of the following:

  • Light quanta

  • Cytochome c oxidase

  • Carbon dioxide

  • Water

Explanation

Question 31 of 40

1

Production of lactic acid in anaerobic muscle cells is:

Select one of the following:

  • Caused by breakdown of glycogen

  • Caused by a buildup of AMP

  • Coupled to the recycling of NAD+ to NADH by lactate dehydrogenase when it oxidises pyruvate

  • Due to pyruvate being reduced by lactate dehydrogenase while it recycles NADH to NAD+

Explanation

Question 32 of 40

1

Phosphofructokinase-1 activity is:

Select one of the following:

  • Inhibited by fructose 2,6-bisphosphate

  • Inhibited by AMP

  • Inhibited by citrate

  • Stimulated by citrate

Explanation

Question 33 of 40

1

The Warburg effect:

Select one of the following:

  • Is the inhibition of glycolysis that occurs in anaerobic cells when exposed to oxygen

  • Is the continued use of anaerobic fermentation by cancer cells even in the presence of oxygen

  • Is caused by an over-active glycerol phosphate shuttle in cancer

  • Is due to the inhibition of phosphofructokinase-1 by AMP

Explanation

Question 34 of 40

1

Glycogen synthase activity is:

Select one of the following:

  • Inhibited by ATP

  • Stimulated by glucose 6-phosphate

  • Stimulated by fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

  • Inhibited by citrate

Explanation

Question 35 of 40

1

Phosphofructokinase-1 activity is:

Select one of the following:

  • Stimulated by citrate

  • Inhibited by AMP

  • Inhibited by citrate

  • Inhibited by fructose 2,6-bisphosphate

Explanation

Question 36 of 40

1

Which of the following is NOT true of Aldosterone?

Select one of the following:

  • It is a mineralocorticoid

  • It is a peptide hormone

  • It is a steroid hormone

  • It is released in response to angiotensin II

Explanation

Question 37 of 40

1

Calcitonin is a hormone that is released from:

Select one of the following:

  • The pituitary gland

  • The thyroid gland

  • The hypothalamus

  • The parathyroid gland

Explanation

Question 38 of 40

1

Which of the following is NOT a feature of metabolic pathways?

Select one of the following:

  • Sequential feedback inhibition

  • Common intermediate metabolites

  • The presence of aquaporins

  • End product inhibition

Explanation

Question 39 of 40

1

Which of the following is NOT true of the anabolic hormone insulin?

Select one of the following:

  • It increases glycogen synthesis

  • It increases fatty acid synthesis

  • It increases esterification of fatty acids

  • It increases protein breakdown (proteinolysis)

Explanation

Question 40 of 40

1

Which of the following has NOT been a commercial method for the synthesis of artificial human insulin?

Select one of the following:

  • Separate A- and B-chain synthesis in E. coli

  • Phage display in E. coli

  • Pro-insulin synthesis in E. coli

  • Biosynthesis in brewer’s yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae)

Explanation