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Clinical Pharmacology Final MCQs- 5th Year PMU

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Clinical Pharmacology Final MCQs- 5th Year PMU

Clinical Pharmacology Final MCQs- 5th Year PMU

Question 1 of 100

1

Drugs half-life is an index for

Select one of the following:

  • the route of administration of the drug

  • the duration of the drug effect when there is a relationship between it and plasma concentrations

  • time to reach steady-state plasma concentration after repeated administration

  • determination of dose interval

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Irrational ready-made drug formulations contain

Select one or more of the following:

  • drugs withdifferent half-life

  • drugs for etiotropic and symptomatic treatment

  • drugs with narrow therapeutic window

  • drugs affecting different pathogenic mechanisms

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

Drug surveillance is done by

Select one or more of the following:

  • spontaneous reporting

  • observation studies

  • family doctors

  • population statistics

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions are the following types

Select one or more of the following:

  • augmented

  • bizarre

  • chronic

  • delayed

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

Drugs contraindicated in the first half of pregnancy are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Erythromycin

  • Sex steroids

  • Penicillins

  • Oral anticoagulants

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

For pharmacokinetics in elderly is true

Select one or more of the following:

  • decreased excretion

  • decreased metabolism

  • decreased volume of distribution

  • increased volume of distribution

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

Reasons for inadequate pharmaceutical availability are

Select one or more of the following:

  • chronic renal failure

  • improper use of the drug formulation

  • bad quality of the drug substance

  • participating in treatment

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

First phase of clinical trial can be determinated as

Select one of the following:

  • first application of a new substance to healthy volunteers

  • first application of a new substance to patients

  • efficacy and safety in a large number of patients

  • post-marketing surveillance in thousands of patients

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

Monitoring of therapeutic plasma concentrations is necessary for

Select one or more of the following:

  • theophyllin

  • phenobarbital

  • carbamazepin

  • amoxicillin

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

Pharmacogenetic differences lead to

Select one or more of the following:

  • decreased effect

  • increased effect

  • development of adverse drug reactions

  • avitaminosis

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

Placebo is

Select one of the following:

  • allergic drug reaction

  • drug form, without active substance

  • method for treatment of acute pain

  • drug tolerance

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

Nocebo effect is

Select one of the following:

  • Allergic drug reaction

  • Analgesic method

  • Adverse drug reaction, caused by placebo

  • CNS depression

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

When patient and doctor are aware of the contents of the formulation, the trial is defined as

Select one of the following:

  • open trial

  • blind trial

  • placebo trial

  • double blind trial

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

Binding of drugs with plasma proteins is important for

Select one or more of the following:

  • half- life

  • drugs interactions

  • bioavailabillity

  • the value of the pharmacological effect

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions lead to

Select one or more of the following:

  • increased pharmacological effect

  • decreased risk of toxicity

  • decreased efficacy of the treatment

  • development of unpredictable drug effects

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

Tobacco smoking

Select one or more of the following:

  • increases drugs metabolism

  • decreases drug metabolism

  • decreases plasma concentrations of methylxanthines

  • doesn’t change drugs metabolism

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

Categories of ADRs are

Select one or more of the following:

  • certain

  • probable

  • possible

  • unlikely

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

Therapeutic drug monitoring is

Select one or more of the following:

  • method for neuroleptanalgesy

  • used, when there is relationship between plasma concentrations and drug effect

  • used for drugs with narrow therapeutic window

  • used for drugs with long half- live

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

Third phase of clinical trial can be determinated as

Select one of the following:

  • first application of a new substance to healthy volunteers

  • first application of a new substance to patients

  • efficacy and safety in a large number of patients

  • post-marketing surveillance in thou-sands of patients

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

Clearence is an index for

Select one of the following:

  • drugs excretion

  • determination of maintaining dose of the drugs

  • drugs absorption

  • effects of the drugs on the heart

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions of methylxanthines are

Select one or more of the following:

  • arrhythmias

  • headache, fatigue, seizures

  • decreased diuresis

  • bradycardia

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

Bronchodilators are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Antimuscarinic drugs

  • β2-mimetics

  • Methylxanthines

  • H2-blockers

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

Drugs, used for treatment of chronic heart failure are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cardiac glycosides

  • ACE- inhibitors

  • Calcium channel blockers

  • Diuretics

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

Diuretics, used in chronic liver failure are

Select one or more of the following:

  • osmotic diuretics

  • thiazide diuretics

  • loop diuretics

  • aldosterone antagonists

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Anti-angina effect of β-blockers is due to

Select one or more of the following:

  • bradycardic effect

  • coronary vessels dilation

  • reduced oxygen demand of the heart

  • inhibition of platelet aggregation

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions of dihydropyridine calcium channel antagonists are

Select one or more of the following:

  • tachycardia

  • bradycardia

  • swelling of ankles

  • flushing and headache

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

Withdrawal syndrome is observed in treatment with

Select one of the following:

  • Calcium channel blockers

  • β-blockers

  • Organic nitrates

  • Metabolotropic drugs

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

Drugs preferred for treatment of hypertensive crisis are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Furosemide

  • Clonidine

  • Nitroprusside

  • Pindolol

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

Which are the main drug groups for treatment of ulcer disease

Select one or more of the following:

  • antacids drugs

  • anti-secretion drugs

  • gastro-duodenal protectors

  • drugs against HP infections

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

Which are non-absorbent antacid drugs

Select one or more of the following:

  • sodium salts

  • calcium salts

  • aluminium salts

  • magnesium salts

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

Point out the correct statement for opioid analgesics

Select one or more of the following:

  • binds to specific opioid receptors

  • cause dependence and abuse

  • in high doses suppress the respiratory center

  • showed withdrawal in long term therapy

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

Which are the therapeutic effects of NSAIDs

Select one or more of the following:

  • analgesic

  • antipyretic

  • anti-inflammatory

  • cough suppressants

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

In patients with Gram (-) infections are preferred

Select one of the following:

  • Ureidopenicillins

  • Narrow spectrum penicillins

  • Macrolides

  • First generation cephalosporins

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

Antimicrobial drugs with renal excretion are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Penicillins

  • Quinolones

  • Macrolides

  • Aminoglycosides

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

Surrogates in rational pharmacotherapy are

Select one or more of the following:

  • clinical- laboratory indexes

  • instrumental investigations - ECG: EMG; MRT etc

  • disease improvement

  • decreased mortality rate

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

Pharmacodynamic changes in elderly are

Select one or more of the following:

  • increased sensitivity to drugs suppressing central nervous system

  • decreased sensitivity to drugs suppressing central nervous system

  • paradoxal reactions are observed

  • adverse drug reactions are more frequent

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

Steady-state plasma concentration is

Select one of the following:

  • blood concentration of the drug 2 hours after administration

  • blood concentration of the drug after repeated administration when there is a balance between absorbtion and excretion

  • blood concentration of the drug after it has been ceased

  • blood concentration of the drug during its absorbtion

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

Bad compliance of the patient may be due to

Select one or more of the following:

  • dose regimen with many drugs with frequent administration

  • a large number of drugs

  • lack of information for the treatment

  • the drug must be taken once daily

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

Fourth phase of clinical trial can be determinated as

Select one of the following:

  • first application of a new substance to healthy volunteers

  • first application of a new substance to patients

  • efficacy and safety in a large number of patients

  • post-marketing surveillance in thousands of patients

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

Drugs clearance is

Select one of the following:

  • amount of drug, that reaches systemic circulation

  • blood plasma volume from which the drug is eliminated for defined period of time

  • steady- state plasma concentration

  • withdrawal syndrome

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

β2-mimetics are contraindicated for patients with

Select one or more of the following:

  • diabetes

  • bradycardia

  • thyreotoxicosis

  • hypertension

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

Pethidine is indicated for

Select one or more of the following:

  • strong acute pain as some crisis

  • chronic pain in cancer patients

  • toothache

  • headache

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

The main mechanism of action of NSAIDs is

Select one of the following:

  • inhibition of COX enzymes

  • inhibition of phosphodiesterase

  • bind to dopamine receptors

  • bind to opioid receptors

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

The antibiotics of choice for patients with immune deficits are

Select one or more of the following:

  • bactericidal

  • bacteriostatic

  • carbapenemes

  • glycopeptides

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

Corticosteroids for systemic application are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Prednisone

  • Budesonide

  • Methylprednisolone

  • Prednisolone

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

The therapy of cardiac failure should starts

Select one or more of the following:

  • As earlier as having diagnose

  • ACE inhibitors are recommended as first line drugs

  • The very low doses are preferred

  • Start with high doses

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

The most often ADRs of β-blockers are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tiredness

  • Bradycardia

  • AV block

  • Hypertension

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

For treatment of Prinzmetal angina are used

Select one or more of the following:

  • propranolol

  • diltiazem

  • verapamil

  • furosemide

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions of ACE inhibitors are

Select one or more of the following:

  • angioedema

  • dry cough

  • hyperlipidemia

  • hyperglycemia

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

Mechanism of antihypertensive drugs are

Select one or more of the following:

  • decrease of blood volume

  • decreased sensitivity of vessels to vasoconstrictors

  • reduced activity of renin-angiotensin system

  • decreased peripheral vascular tone

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

Proton pump inhibitors are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Omeprazole

  • Rabeprazole

  • Mizoprostol

  • Lansoprazole

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

Gastrointestinal mucosa protectors are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sucralphate

  • Misoprostol

  • Probiotics

  • Colloidal bismuths salts

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

Opioid analgesics are suitable for treatment of

Select one or more of the following:

  • traumatic shock

  • acute myocardial infarction

  • malignant pain

  • neuropathic pain

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

Which are the indications for prescribing NSAIDs

Select one or more of the following:

  • arthritis

  • toothache

  • radiculitis

  • neuropathic pain

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

Triptans are used for treatment of

Select one of the following:

  • acute migraine

  • prevention of migraine

  • cancer pain

  • allergies

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

Antimicrobial drugs for hepato-biliary infections are

Select one of the following:

  • Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

  • Gentamycin

  • Rifampicin (Tubocin)

  • Doxyxyclin (Vibramycin)

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions of aminoglycosides are

Select one or more of the following:

  • ototoxicity

  • nephrotoxicity

  • gastrointestinal problems

  • liver toxicity

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

Indications for using cardiac glycosides in the therapy of congestive heart failure are

Select one or more of the following:

  • early stage of chronic cardiac failure

  • heavy CCF

  • supra-ventricular fibrillations

  • decrease the mortality rate

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions of non-dihyropyridine calcium channel antagonists are

Select one or more of the following:

  • tachycardia

  • bradycardia

  • constipation

  • heart failure

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Anti-angina effects of organic nitrates is done by

Select one or more of the following:

  • decreased preload of the heart

  • improved oxygen supply

  • reduced afterload of the heart

  • dilation of coronary vessels

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

Typical for mixed type of insomnia are the following features

Select one or more of the following:

  • the difficulties to fall asleep

  • easy fall asleep

  • awakening during the night

  • early awake

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

Which of the following β2-mimetics are used as controllers

Select one or more of the following:

  • Salbutamol

  • Salmeterol

  • Seretide

  • Terbutaline

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

The quality of therapeutic decision (outcomes) can be measured by

Select one or more of the following:

  • clinical outcomes

  • costs — direct and indirect

  • functional status pf patient

  • overall patient satisfaction

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

Method of evaluation of cost/benefits ration are

Select one or more of the following:

  • cost minimization analysis

  • cost effectiveness analysis

  • cost utility analysis

  • cost consequence analysis

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

Diuretics are combined with which of the drugs for treatment of cardiac failure

Select one or more of the following:

  • ACE inhibitors

  • Cardiac glycosides

  • β-blockers

  • Organic nitrates

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

β2-mimetics should not be combined with

Select one or more of the following:

  • Corticosteroids

  • β-blockers

  • Leukotriene inhibitors

  • MAO inhibitors

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

Methylxanthines should not be combined with

Select one or more of the following:

  • Diuretics

  • β2-mimetics

  • Corticosteroids

  • Leukotriene antagonists

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

Characteristic feature of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB) are

Select one or more of the following:

  • good tolerability

  • better compliance

  • complex hemodynamic improving effect

  • less tolerated and low compliance in comparison with ACE inhibitors

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

Antianginal drugs are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cardiac glycosides

  • β-blockers

  • Organic nitrates

  • Calcium channel blockers

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Antihypertensive drugs are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Diuretics

  • ACE inhibitors

  • Angiotensin receptor blockers

  • β-blockers

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions of salt losing diuretics are

Select one or more of the following:

  • hyperglycemia

  • hyperuricemia

  • hypopotassiemia

  • hyperpotassiamia

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

Well known drug interactions of proton pump inhibitors are

Select one or more of the following:

  • decreased absorption of some antibiotics as tetracyclines, isoniazid, ciprofloxacin

  • decreased absorption of some drugs as digoxin, quinidine, theophylline, NSAIDs

  • increased absorption of some antibiotics as tetracyclines, isoniazid, ciprofloxacin

  • increased absorption of other drugs as digoxin, quinidine, theophylline, warfarin

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

Contraindicated during pregnancy or breast feedings drugs are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Bismuth salts

  • Misoprostol

  • Proton pump inhibitors

  • Antacid drugs

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

In which cases step-wise pain killing approach is used

Select one of the following:

  • patients with cancer pain

  • patients with crisis

  • patients with toothache

  • patients with headache

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

Which are the ADRs of NSAIDs the selective COX-2 inhibitors

Select one or more of the following:

  • cardio-toxicity

  • epidermal necrolysis

  • peptic ulcer

  • depressed fertility

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions of triptans are

Select one or more of the following:

  • sleepiness

  • fatigue and dizziness

  • hyperglycemia

  • paresthesias

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

In patients with Gram (+) infections are preferred

Select one or more of the following:

  • Ureidopenicillins

  • Narrow spectrum penicillins

  • Macrolides

  • First generation cephalosporins

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions of tetracyclines are

Select one or more of the following:

  • liver damage

  • ototoxicity

  • nephrotoxicity

  • teeth and bone damage

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions of quinolones are

Select one or more of the following:

  • gastro-intestinal

  • damage of the joints

  • increase of intraocular pressure

  • provoke seizures in patients with epilepsy

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

Mechanisms of drug interactions are

Select one or more of the following:

  • unpredictable

  • pharmacokinetic

  • pharmacodynamic

  • pharmaceutical

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

Pharmacokinetic defects are

Select one or more of the following:

  • acetylation

  • oxidation

  • hydrolysis

  • red cells enzyme defects

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions of β2-mimetics are

Select one or more of the following:

  • tachycardia

  • hyperglycemia

  • hypoglycemia

  • headache

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

For treatment of stable angina are preferred

Select one or more of the following:

  • Calcium channel blockers

  • Organic nitrates

  • Diuretics

  • β-blockers

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions of nitrates used for acute attacks are

Select one or more of the following:

  • tachycardia

  • tolerance

  • hypertension

  • headache and flushing

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

Which are contraindications for NSAIDs non-selective COX inhibitors

Select one or more of the following:

  • asthma

  • peptic ulcer

  • liver insufficiency

  • kidney insufficiency

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

The benzodiazepines and some barbiturates exert the following ADRs

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypertension

  • drug tolerance and dependence

  • slowed reflex time and myorelaxation

  • morning sleepiness for the drugs which form active metabolites

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

Which of the following drugs are used to treat headache

Select one or more of the following:

  • Beta-blockers

  • Triptans

  • Opioid analgesics

  • NSAIDs

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

The rational drug combinations for treatment of headache are between the following drugs

Select one or more of the following:

  • NSAIDs and spasmolytics

  • NSAIDs and coffein

  • Opioid analgesics and NSAIDs

  • Analgesics and calcium channel antagonists

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

Quinolones are contraindicated for

Select one or more of the following:

  • pregnant women

  • breast feeding mothers

  • children under 12 years of age

  • patients with kidney failure

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions of sulfonamides are

Select one or more of the following:

  • bone-marrow suppression

  • allergy

  • kidney damage in high doses

  • heart failure

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

Metabolic effects of glucocortcosteroids are

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypoglycemia

  • hyperglycemia

  • reduced calcium absorption

  • increased protein catabolism

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

Drugs decreasing myocardial hypertrophy are

Select one or more of the following:

  • β-blockers

  • Angiotensin receptors blockers

  • Diuretics

  • α-blockers

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

Rational drug combinations for treatment of hypertension are

Select one or more of the following:

  • β-blocker + α-blocker

  • β-blocker + diuretic

  • α-blocker + ACE inhibitor

  • Calcium channel antagonists + Diuretic

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

Adverse drug reactions of α1-blockers are

Select one or more of the following:

  • tachycardia

  • flush syndrome

  • dry mouth

  • orthostatic hypotension

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

Opioid analgesics are suitable for treatment of

Select one or more of the following:

  • traumatic shock

  • acute myocardial infarction

  • malignant pain

  • neuropathic pain

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

Which corticosteroids are used by inhalation in asthma attacks

Select one or more of the following:

  • Budesonide

  • Dexamethasone

  • Fluticasone

  • Beclomethasone

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

Antihypertensive drugs with direct vasodilating effects are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Diazoxide

  • Nitroprusside

  • Propranolol

  • Methyldopa

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

Antihypertensive drugs are

Select one or more of the following:

  • α2-agonists

  • α1-blockers

  • M-cholinolytics

  • Antihistamine drugs

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

Which are anti-secretion drugs

Select one or more of the following:

  • Proton pump inhibitors

  • H2-histamine blockers in stomach mucosa

  • M3-cholinergic blockers in stomach mucosa cells

  • COX inhibitors

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

Which drugs are used for eradication of Helicobacter pylori infections

Select one or more of the following:

  • proton pump inhibitors

  • colloidal bismuthi salts

  • histamine blockers

  • antibacterial drugs

Explanation

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