Shawn Tredinnick
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study resource for ADV PHARMACOTHERAPEUTICS 20S-NURS-G820-W03 2nd test

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Shawn Tredinnick
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advanced Pharm study guide for test 2

Question 1 of 81

1

What is the significance of bradykinin in the RAAS system

Select one of the following:

  • it is a peptide needed for the release of aldosterone by the adrenal gland

  • It is a peptide that causes blood vessels to constrict, raising blood pressure

  • it causes contraction of non-vascular smooth muscle

  • it is broken down by angiotensin converting enzyme causing vasodilation and mild dieresis

Explanation

Question 2 of 81

1

the patient complains of a dry cough, what medication would be the most likely to have this finding?

Select one of the following:

  • Captopril

  • Losartan

  • Amilodipine

  • Naproxen

Explanation

Question 3 of 81

1

angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) work on what part of the RAAS system?

Select one of the following:

  • blocks Renin from stimulating the release of Angiotensinogen

  • blocks Angiotensinogen conversion to Angiotensin I

  • Blocks Angiotensin I conversion to Angiotensin II

  • blocks Angiotensin II conversion to aldosterone

Explanation

Question 4 of 81

1

what class of medications will reduce the adverse affects of Diabetes on the kidneys as well as decrease inappropriate remodeling of the heart

Select one of the following:

  • thiazide diuretics

  • angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

  • Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs)

  • angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors)

Explanation

Question 5 of 81

1

What statement is true regarding ACE inhibitors?

Select one of the following:

  • they are potassium wasting and must be monitored for hypokalema

  • they have little negative effect on lipids or sexual function

  • African-Americans & low-renin hypertensives are extremely sensitive to monotherapy

  • they increase the effectiveness of NSAIDs

Explanation

Question 6 of 81

1

What is considered the most serious ADR with ACE inhibitors?

Select one of the following:

  • Angioedema <1%

  • <1% neutropenia & agranulocytosis

  • Hyperkalemia

  • Proteinuria & glomerulonephritis

Explanation

Question 7 of 81

1

Ace inhibitors and ARBs would be the drug of choice for which patient?

Select one of the following:

  • 37yo Caucasian male with Hx of MI, and kidney failure

  • 57yo Asian Female currently taking spironolactone

  • 49yo caucasian female with Hx of DM, HF and MIx3

  • 46yo African American male with Hx of DM, HTN and kidney stones

Explanation

Question 8 of 81

1

which of the following statements is True about ACE inhibitors and ARBs used for the treatment of hypertension .

Select one of the following:

  • ACEIs affect the myocardial oxygen demand but not the myocardial oxygen supply

  • ACEIs affect the myocardial oxygen supply but not the myocardial oxygen demand

  • ACEIs affect both the myocardial oxygen supply and the myocardial oxygen demand

  • ACEIs and ARBs are contraindicated in treating heart failure related to CAD

Explanation

Question 9 of 81

1

where are the primary sites of metabolism and excretion for ACEI's?

Select one of the following:

  • all ACEIs are prodrugs and do not need to be metabolized, excretion is from the kidneys.

  • ACEI's are metabolized in the avieoli of the lungs, excretion is primarily by GI tract with the capsule being whole but hollow

  • all ACEI's are prodrugs and converted to active metabolites in the liver, The kidney is the primary organ of excretion

  • ACI's are prodrugs and converted to active metabolites in the liver, excretion is primarily by GI tract with the capsule being whole but hollow

Explanation

Question 10 of 81

1

What are the contraindications for the use of ACEI's?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hypertensive Proteinuric Diabetes

  • Bilateral renal artery stenosis

  • Postmyocardial Infarction

  • Pregnancy

Explanation

Question 11 of 81

1

what is the first goal of Hypertension management?

Select one of the following:

  • Controlling isolated systolic hypertension (ISH)

  • Prevent the rise of BP with age

  • reduction in Cardio vascular risk

  • Improve control of HTN to below 140/90 mm Hg in adults and below 150/90 in those greater than age 60

Explanation

Question 12 of 81

1

what statement is true with reguard to Dihydropyridines

Select one of the following:

  • greater affinity for vascular ca+ channels than cardiac Ca+2 channels

  • greater affinity for cardiac Ca+2 channels than vascular ca+ channels

  • Blocks L-type calcium channels producing vasoconstriction

  • Has an intrinsic natriuretic effect requiring the use of a diuretic

Explanation

Question 13 of 81

1

select all of the adverse drug reactions for Nondihydropyridines

Select one or more of the following:

  • Reflex tachycardia

  • Anorexia

  • Constipation

  • Bradycardia

Explanation

Question 14 of 81

1

Most CCBs have short-acting forms with half-lives between 2 and 8 hours and sustained-release forms with half-lives of 12 to 24 hours what is the exception to this?

Select one of the following:

  • Digoxin, with a half life of 36-48 hours

  • Cardizem, with a half life of 3-4 hours

  • Amlodipine, with a half-life of 30 to 50 hours

  • isradipine with a half life of 1.5-2 hours

Explanation

Question 15 of 81

1

what is the main effect of digoxin

Select one of the following:

  • opens the ATPase pump allowing free flow of Na+ and Ca+

  • inhibits the ATPase pump preventing Na+ from leaving the cell

  • Blocks L-type calcium channels producing vasodilation

  • inhibits the ATPase pump preventing Ca+ from leaving the cell

Explanation

Question 16 of 81

1

how is dosing for digoxin determined?

Select one of the following:

  • The principal tissue reservoir is skeletal muscle, Dosing should be based on lean muscle mass

  • The principal tissue reservoir is adipose tissue, Dosing should be based on BMI%

  • The principal tissue reservoir is the CNS and dosing should be based on CSF results

  • there is not a principal tissue reservoir, dosage is determined by weight in Kg.

Explanation

Question 17 of 81

1

select the contraindications for the use of digoxen.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Renal Impairment

  • AV blocks or uncontrolled ventricular arrhythmias

  • Atrial Fibrillation

  • idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS)

  • Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia

Explanation

Question 18 of 81

1

what finding would make you suspect CG Toxicity?

Select one of the following:

  • serum levels of 4.5 ng/mL.

  • the patient presents with severe anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

  • ST-T wave changes on the a 12-lead ECG

  • pt presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and serum levels of 2.3 ng/mL.

Explanation

Question 19 of 81

1

Arrhythmias are caused either by abnormal pacemaker activity or by abnormal impulse conduction, which is NOT an example of The major mechanisms by which antiarrhythmics act?

Select one of the following:

  • blockade of Central Nervous System (CNS) effects on the heart

  • prolongation of the effective refractory period

  • sodium channel blockade

  • blockade of the calcium channel

Explanation

Question 20 of 81

1

sodium channel blockers are what class of antiarrhythmic drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • Class I

  • Class II

  • Class III

  • Class IV

Explanation

Question 21 of 81

1

Beta Blockers are what class of antiarrhythmic drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • Class I

  • Class II

  • Class III

  • Class IV

Explanation

Question 22 of 81

1

Calcium Channel Blockers (CCB) are what class of antiarrhythmic drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • Class I

  • Class II

  • Class III

  • Class IV

Explanation

Question 23 of 81

1

How are Antiarrhythmics metabolized.

Select one of the following:

  • antiarrhythmics are already in their metabolized form after absorption and are deactivated by the liver.

  • All antiarrhythmics are metabolized and excreated from the GI tract

  • all antiarrhythmics are prodrugs and do not need to be metabolized

  • All antiarrhythmics are metabolized By the liver

Explanation

Question 24 of 81

1

this drug class was introduced for the treatment of angina in the 19th century

Select one of the following:

  • ACEs

  • CCBs

  • nitrates

  • ARBs

Explanation

Question 25 of 81

1

what statement is true with reguard to Nitrates?

Select one of the following:

  • by providing more nitric oxide (NO) to vascular endothelium and arterial smooth muscle, resulting in vasodilation.

  • cause targeted relaxation of large veins resulting in decreased pre-load

  • Arterial dilation is more common with lower doses and can result in a decrease in systemic arterial pressure

  • Arterial dilation is more common with higher doses and can result in an increase in systemic arterial pressure

Explanation

Question 26 of 81

1

in which of the following cases would you NOT give nitrates.

Select one or more of the following:

  • 33yo female c/o migraine with HR111 bp 200/120

  • 75yo male c/o chest pain that has not improved, HR 63 bp 110/65

  • 45yo male car vs tree, c/o dizziness, chest pain and nausea. had MI 2 years ago. HR110 BP185/96

  • 35yo female with weakness to one side of her body, difficulty speaking and pain in the jaw that radiates to her back

Explanation

Question 27 of 81

1

which statement about Peripheral Vasodilators is FALSE?

Select one of the following:

  • Significant clinical improvement of PVD can rarely be seen with monotherapy

  • Peripheral alpha1 antagonists and central alpha2 agonists can be used to treat resistant HTN and PVD.

  • monotherapy is recommended to show Significant clinical improvement of PVD without associated ADRs

  • act by direct relaxation and dilation of arteriolar smooth muscle, thereby decreasing PVR

Explanation

Question 28 of 81

1

when prescribing reductase inhibitors, what lab tests should also be performed?

Select one of the following:

  • CBC

  • AST/ALT

  • BUN/creatinine

  • Lipid Panel

Explanation

Question 29 of 81

1

what is the clinical indication for the use of Antilipidemics?

Select one of the following:

  • increased LDL, decreased HDL, high VLDL

  • High VLDL, increased HDL, Decreased LDL

  • increased HDL, increased LDL, low VLDL

  • decreased LDL, increased HDL, low VLDL

Explanation

Question 30 of 81

1

The liver is the primary site of metabolism for most diuretics, which diuretic has nonhepatic and hepatic metabolism

Select one of the following:

  • Furosemide (Lasix)

  • spironolactone (Aldactone)

  • Amiloride

  • hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

Explanation

Question 31 of 81

1

if a patient is taking an aminoglycoside medication what Adverse drug reaction would you actively assess for?

Select one of the following:

  • a white crystalline precipitate to form in the superficial portion of the cornea.

  • localized ocular toxicity

  • itching/swelling of the face/tongue/throat

  • Increased Ocular Pressure in narrow-angle glaucoma

Explanation

Question 32 of 81

1

if planning on using a combination of steroids and anti-infectives for ophthalmic Anti-Infective treatment in primary care what must be used to perform the assessment?

Select one of the following:

  • Keratometry

  • retinoscope

  • opthalmoscope

  • Tonometry device

Explanation

Question 33 of 81

1

which of the following Ophthalmic Anti-Infectives has a high hypersensitivity rate?

Select one of the following:

  • azithromycin

  • erythromycin

  • polymyxin B

  • gentamicin

Explanation

Question 34 of 81

1

what is important to remember when using Sulfacetamide

Select one of the following:

  • it is incompatible with silver-containing preparations

  • must have tonometry available

  • it has a high hypersensitivity rate

  • may cause localized ocular toxicity

Explanation

Question 35 of 81

1

Children 3 months through 8 years are most likely to have what type of Bacterial conjunctivitis
select all that apply

Select one or more of the following:

  • staphylococcal

  • strepto­coccal

  • Haemophilus

  • Staphylococcus aureus

  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Explanation

Question 36 of 81

1

what is the treatment for Conjunctivitis-otitis syndrome

Select one of the following:

  • high-dose amoxicillin

  • parenteral antibiotics (ceftriaxone)

  • ophthalmic/otitc antibiotics

  • erythromycin ointment

Explanation

Question 37 of 81

1

What symptoms would make you suspect herpes keratitis? if herpes keratitis is suspected what should be done next?

Select one of the following:

  • intense redness of the eye, Watery/mucus discharge from the eye, fever blister on or near the eye; examination with woodslamp

  • Swelling of the lymph nodes in front of the ears, fever, slight Pinkness of the eye; referral to ophthalmologist

  • burning, gritty sensation to the eye, lesion close to or on the eye, fever; referral to ophthalmologist

  • Crustiness around the eyelids upon waking in the morning, cough, fever; ocular assessment with ophthalmoscope

Explanation

Question 38 of 81

1

while removing a cerumen impaction you notice that while irrigating, your patient suddenly develops nystagmus and states that they are suddenly dizzy. what is the likely cause of this?

Select one of the following:

  • irrigation was being performed too forcefully

  • the irrigation solution was not warmed

  • irrigation solution has bypassed the ear drum and is interfering with the middle ear

  • the patient is having a seizure

Explanation

Question 39 of 81

1

which statement is FALSE with reguard to Corticosteroids

Select one of the following:

  • have metabolic, anti-inflammatory, and growth-suppressing effects

  • high levels of cortisol can cause decreased memory recall, anxiety and disturbed sleep patterns

  • Glucocorticoids decrease blood glucose concentration by stimulating glycogenesis in the liver

  • Corticosteroids can raise your risk of infections due to the wide range of effects on the immune system

Explanation

Question 40 of 81

1

What determines systolic Blood pressure?

Select one of the following:

  • mean arterial pressure

  • Total peripheral resistance

  • end-diastolic volume (EDV) - end-systolic volume (ESV)

  • HR times stroke volume

Explanation

Question 41 of 81

1

What determines diastolic blood pressure?

Select one of the following:

  • Total peripheral resistance

  • Cardiac output

  • mean arterial pressure divided by ejection fraction

  • end-diastolic volume (EDV) - end-systolic volume (ESV)

Explanation

Question 42 of 81

1

select what factors will have a direct effect on systemic arterial pressure. select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • total peripheral resistance

  • heart rate

  • Stroke volume

  • mean arterial pressure

Explanation

Question 43 of 81

1

an increase in BP will send inhibitory impulses to the sympathetic vasomotor center in the brainstem resulting in what?

Select one of the following:

  • excitation of efferent nerves in the SNS results in decreased heart rate,

  • Inhibition of efferent nerves in the SNS that innervate cardiac and vascular smooth muscle results in increased heart rate

  • Inhibition of efferent nerves in the SNS that innervate cardiac and vascular smooth muscle results in vasodilation of peripheral arterioles

  • excitation of efferent nerves in the SNS that innervate cardiac and vascular smooth muscle

Explanation

Question 44 of 81

1

changes in BP is sensed by ____ located in _____

Select one of the following:

  • baroreceptors; aorta

  • Mechanoreceptors; carotid arteries

  • Nociceptors; arch of the aorta

  • Mechanoreceptors; kidneys

Explanation

Question 45 of 81

1

what are the ultimate goals of Angina therapy

Select one of the following:

  • to treat anginal chest pain and return to normal activities

  • reduce the risks of stroke

  • reduce the risks of MI

  • smooth muscle and cardiac relaxation

Explanation

Question 46 of 81

1

what statements are true about organic nitrates. select all that apply

Select one or more of the following:

  • Reduces preload

  • Increases afterload

  • Inhibit platelet aggregation

  • leads to the mediation of smooth muscle relaxation

Explanation

Question 47 of 81

1

what makes Ranolazine unique for the treatment of angina?

Select one of the following:

  • Have a negative chronotropic and inotropic effect and ↓ afterload, Decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, Increases myocardial perfusion

  • decreases peripheral vascular resistance and thereby MOD, as the heart has decreased afterload

  • cause arterial smooth muscle relaxation, which results in peripheral vasodilation, decreased afterload,

  • Has antianginal and anti-ischemic effects that do not depend on reduction in heart rate or blood pressure

Explanation

Question 48 of 81

1

what medication reduces platelet aggregation by inhibiting the synthesis of thromboxane A2

Select one of the following:

  • Aspirin

  • Nitroglycerin

  • Nifedipide (Procardia)

  • Diltiazem (Cardizem)

Explanation

Question 49 of 81

1

select what would be classified as class I according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society

Select one of the following:

  • Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals

  • Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs

  • Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina

  • Chest pain that occurs at rest

Explanation

Question 50 of 81

1

select what would be classified as class II according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society

Select one of the following:

  • Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals

  • Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs

  • Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina

  • Chest pain that occurs at rest

Explanation

Question 51 of 81

1

select what would be classified as class III according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society

Select one of the following:

  • Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals

  • Chest pain that occurs at rest

  • Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina

  • Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs

Explanation

Question 52 of 81

1

select what would be classified as class IV according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society

Select one of the following:

  • Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals

  • Chest pain that occurs at rest

  • Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina

  • Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs

Explanation

Question 53 of 81

1

What is considered to be the foundation of initial drug therapy for patients with angina ?

Select one of the following:

  • ACEI and beta-adrenergic blockers

  • ACEI and CCB

  • BB and CCB

  • Nitrates and BB

Explanation

Question 54 of 81

1

when diagnosing heart failure why might a chest x-ray be ordered?

Select one of the following:

  • it can be used to identify and distinguish between systolic dysfunction and preserved systolic function.

  • can show Cephalization of the vascular supply

  • can show left-ventricular hypertrophy and axis deviation

  • used to rule out pulmonary embolism

Explanation

Question 55 of 81

1

select the types of heart failure. select all that apply

Select one or more of the following:

  • low-output failure

  • high-output failure

  • Systolic dysfunction

  • Diastolic dysfunction

Explanation

Question 56 of 81

1

What is the most common BB used in heart failure?

Select one of the following:

  • Atenolol

  • Losartan

  • carvedilol

  • clonidine

Explanation

Question 57 of 81

1

how does Digoxin work?

Select one of the following:

  • Digoxin decreases contractility by decreasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump

  • Digoxin increases heart rate by increasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump

  • Digoxin increases contractility by increasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump

  • Digoxin decreases heart rate by increasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump

Explanation

Question 58 of 81

1

Patients with left-ventricular dysfunction with current or prior symptoms of HF are classified as what stage according to ACC and AHA guidelines.

Select one of the following:

  • Stage A

  • Stage B

  • Stage C

  • stage D

Explanation

Question 59 of 81

1

Which of the following is NOT one of the diagnostic criteria for DM?

Select one of the following:

  • A1C ≥6.5%

  • FPG ≥126 mg/dL

  • plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL

  • classic symptoms of hyperglycemia and a random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL

Explanation

Question 60 of 81

1

What is true about DM type 1?

Select one of the following:

  • Typically diagnosed early in life

  • the bodies compensatory insulin production mechanisms reduce the onset of clinical symptoms for many years

  • 90% to 95% of cases are diagnosed before the age of 30.

  • If the disease progresses without treatment hypoglycemia, coma and death can occur.

Explanation

Question 61 of 81

1

What are the treatment targets for Glycemic control in DM? select all that apply

Select one or more of the following:

  • 2 hour postprandial plasma glucose less than 180 mg/dL

  • Hemoglobin A1c less than 5%

  • Random urine albumin/Cr less than 30mcg/mg
    creatinine

  • Preprandial plasma glucose 70 to 130 mg/dL

Explanation

Question 62 of 81

1

What is the treatment target for blood pressure when treating DM?

Select one of the following:

  • less than 130/80, 140/80 for patients with DM, hypertension

  • less than 120/60, 130/80 for patients with DM, hypertension

  • less than 140/80, 145/85 for patients with DM, hypertension

  • less than 130/80, 150/90 for patients with DM, hypertension

Explanation

Question 63 of 81

1

what are the treatment targets for lipid control when treating DM?

Select one of the following:

  • HDL >100mg/dl, LDL <50mg/dl, triglicerides less than 150mg/dl

  • HDL >150mg/dl, LDL <100mg/dl, triglicerides less than 50mg/dl

  • HDL >50mg/dl, LDL <100mg/dl, triglicerides less than 150mg/dl

  • HDL >100mg/dl, LDL <150mg/dl, triglicerides less than 50mg/dl

Explanation

Question 64 of 81

1

what factors effect the treatment plan and drug selection process when treating DM? Select all that apply

Select one or more of the following:

  • individual patient variables (race, weight, pregnant etc.)

  • current AHA guidelines

  • Desiered gylcemic target

  • type of diabetes

  • severity of the hyper/hypo glycemia

Explanation

Question 65 of 81

1

For the treatment of type 2 DM what is the first-line therapy for most patients?

Select one of the following:

  • Insulin

  • Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)

  • Metformin

  • Glipizide

Explanation

Question 66 of 81

1

Insulin with and onset of 5-30min, peak 0.5-3h and duration of 3-4h describes what type of insulin?

Select one of the following:

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI)

  • Short-acting Insulin

  • Intermediate-Acting (IAI)

  • Long-Acting (LAI)

Explanation

Question 67 of 81

1

Insulin with and onset of 30-60min, peak 2-4h and duration of 3-7h describes what type of insulin?

Select one of the following:

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI)

  • Short-acting Insulin

  • Intermediate-Acting (IAI)

  • Long-Acting (LAI)

Explanation

Question 68 of 81

1

Insulin with and onset of 1-2h, peak 4-10h and duration of 10-16h describes what type of insulin?

Select one of the following:

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI)

  • Short-acting Insulin

  • Intermediate-Acting (IAI)

  • Long-Acting (LAI)

Explanation

Question 69 of 81

1

Insulin with and onset of 1-2h, no peak, and duration of 20-24h describes what type of insulin?

Select one of the following:

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI)

  • Short-acting Insulin

  • Intermediate-Acting (IAI)

  • Long-Acting (LAI)

Explanation

Question 70 of 81

1

Generally, what percentage of daily insulin is given as an intermediate or long-acting form of insulin?

Select one of the following:

  • 0-25%

  • 25-50%

  • 50-75%

  • 75-100%

Explanation

Question 71 of 81

1

a 1 Unit bolus of insulin will typically lower glucose by approximately

Select one of the following:

  • 10-20mg/dl

  • 60-90mg/dl

  • 20-60mg/dl

  • 10-40mg/dl

Explanation

Question 72 of 81

1

Each 15 gm Carbohydrate serving raises BG by approximately

Select one of the following:

  • 15mg/dl

  • 25mg/dl

  • 50mg/dl

  • 70mg/dl

Explanation

Question 73 of 81

1

what percentage of beta cells must be lost before hyperglycemia occurs?

Select one of the following:

  • 50-60%

  • 60-70%

  • 70-80%

  • 80-90%

  • 90-100%

Explanation

Question 74 of 81

1

what statement is true about Insulin

Select one of the following:

  • alcohol use, increases hyperglycemia

  • Beta blockers mask hypoglycemic symptoms

  • Short-acting Insulin onset of action is 1 to 1.5 hours, and its duration is 12 to 24 hours

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI) duration of action is 4 to 6 hours

Explanation

Question 75 of 81

1

what is the preferred injection site that absorbs 50% more than other sites

Select one of the following:

  • Inhalation method

  • Abdominal site

  • upper outer area of the arm

  • front and outer sides of the thighs

Explanation

Question 76 of 81

1

what insulin's are pregnancy category C? select all that apply

Select one or more of the following:

  • Aspart

  • Humulin R

  • glargine

  • glulisine

Explanation

Question 77 of 81

1

What is important to consider if your patient has Hyperthyroidism and is taking insulin?

Select one of the following:

  • delays insulin breakdown, and may require less insulin units

  • they have improved insulin sensitivity, will require less insulin

  • increases renal clearance, requiring more insulin than baseline

  • insulin can potentiate effects of antidiuretic hormone

Explanation

Question 78 of 81

1

what is the indication for the use of Sulfonylureas when treating DM?

Select one of the following:

  • Excessive production of glucose by the liver

  • rapid intestinal glucose dumping

  • Insufficient production of endogenous insulin

  • Decreased tissue insensitivity to insulin

Explanation

Question 79 of 81

1

what patient would you NOT prescribe Metformin (Glucophage) for the treatment of type 2 DM?

Select one of the following:

  • 20yo female who had ambulatory surgery 3 days ago

  • 11yo male with HTN

  • 9yo female HTN and HF

  • 18yo male who is currently taking a sulfonylurea

Explanation

Question 80 of 81

1

your patient who is taking metformin and an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor to treat their DM presents with unsteady gait, generalized confusion and elevated anxiety CBG is 50mg/dl. what would you give to correct this?

Select one of the following:

  • a piece of hard candy held between the cheek

  • 15gm CHO

  • sugar packets

  • Lactose

Explanation

Question 81 of 81

1

what DM medication should not be used with ACEIs due to the increased risk of angioedemia

Select one of the following:

  • Thiazolidinediones

  • Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors

  • Biguanides

  • Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4

Explanation