ITA MQ

Question 1 of 81

1

Which air navigation service is the responsible to disseminate the instrument approach charts to the aircraft operators?

Select one of the following:

The airspace management (ASM) service.
The ﬂight inforamtion service (FIS).
The aeronautical information service (AIS).
The aerodrome traﬃc zone (ATZ) service.

Explanation

Question 2 of 81

1

Which air navigation service is the responsible to disseminate the visual approach charts to the aircraft operators?

Select one of the following:

The airspace management (ASM) service.
The ﬂight inforamtion service (FIS).
The aeronautical information service (AIS).
The aerodrome traﬃc zone (ATZ) service.

Explanation

Question 3 of 81

1

Which air navigation service is the responsible to disseminate the rules of the air that apply to a speciﬁc country?

Select one of the following:

The airspace management (ASM) service of the country.
The ﬂight inforamtion service (FIS) of the country.
The aeronautical information service (AIS) of the country.
The aerodrome traﬃc zone (ATZ) services of the country.

Explanation

Question 4 of 81

1

What is a ﬂight information region (FIR)?

Select one of the following:

A speciﬁed airspace assigned to one air traﬃc controller (or two if working in pairs) providing ﬂight information services.
A speciﬁed airspace assigned to one air traﬃc controller (or two if working in pairs) providing alert services
A speciﬁed airspace in which ﬂight information and alert services are provided. It is the largest regular division of airspace in use in the world today.
A speciﬁed airspace above an airﬁeld where ﬂight information is provided to aircraft in the airﬁeld traﬃc pattern.

Explanation

Question 5 of 81

1

What is an upper information region (UIR)?

Select one of the following:

A FIR in the upper airspace.
A speciﬁed airspace above an airﬁeld where ﬂight information is provided to aircraft executing SIDs and STARs.
A speciﬁed airspace above an airﬁeld where ﬂight information is provided to aircraft executing approaches.
A speciﬁed airspace above an airﬁeld where ﬂight information is provided to aircraft in the airﬁeld traﬃc pattern.

Explanation

Question 6 of 81

1

North Atlantic tracks (NAT) are...

Select one of the following:

the static airway network in the North Atlantic airspace.
an organised en-route track network that is updated every day as a function of the wind ﬁeld forecast.
the set of actual trajectory tracks that have been ﬂown by all aircraft crossing the North Atlantic in a given period of time and considering realised weather.
the name given to the oceanic clearances required to enter the North Atlantic airspace.

Explanation

Question 7 of 81

1

A VFR aircraft is cruising with heading 130o. According to the ICAO ﬂight level allocation scheme (odd-even rule), a possible ﬂight level for this ﬂight could be:

Select one of the following:

FL130
FL135
FL140
IFR ﬂights do not ﬂy using ﬂight levels, but Altitudes.

Explanation

Question 8 of 81

1

An IFR aircraft is cruising with heading 130o. According to the ICAO ﬂight level allocation scheme (odd-even rule), a possible ﬂight level for this ﬂight could be:

Select one of the following:

FL130
FL135
FL140
IFR ﬂights do not ﬂy using ﬂight levels, but Altitudes.

Explanation

Question 9 of 81

1

During a climb, when the pilot reaches the transition altitude, he/she shall...

Select one of the following:

change the altimeter setting from QNH to STD
change the altimeter setting from STD to QNH
change the altimeter setting from STD to QFE.
do nothing in particular regarding the altimeter setting.

Explanation

Question 10 of 81

1

A pilot is reporting ”our altitude is six thousand feet”. This means:

Select one of the following:

The barometric altimeter of the aircraft indicates 6000 ft and it is calibrated with respect to the standard pressure at sea level (1013.25 hPa).
The barometric altimeter of the aircraft indicates 6000 ft and it is calibrated with respect to the local QNH.
The radio altimeter of the aircraft indicates 6000 ft and it is calibrated with respect to the standard pressure at sea level (1013.25 hPa).
The radio altimeter of the aircraft indicates 6000 ft and it is calibrated with respect to the local QNH.

Explanation

Question 11 of 81

1

Why in standard instrumental departures carts maximum altitude restrictions for certain segments are typically indicated?

Select one of the following:

To allow visual self-separation procedures.
To allow continuous climb operations (CCO).
To strategically de-conﬂict them with arrivals crossing from below.
To strategically de-conﬂict them with arrivals crossing from above.

Explanation

Question 12 of 81

1

With our small VFR aircraft, which is NOT equipped with any VHF communications radio...

Select one of the following:

it is not legal to ﬂy in civil airspace without a communications radio.
we can only ﬂy in airspace G.
we can only ﬂy in airspace F or G.
we can only ﬂy in airspace E, F or G.

Explanation

Question 13 of 81

1

The ATZ typically encompasses...

Select one of the following:

the SIDs and STARs.
the instrumental approach procedures.
the visual airﬁeld traﬃc pattern.
all the other answers are correct.

Explanation

Question 14 of 81

1

Which of the following controlled airspace zones is sized to accommodate, approximately, all the aircraft ﬂying standard instrumental departures?

Select one of the following:

The ATZ.
The CTR.
The TMA.
The ATC.

Explanation

Question 15 of 81

1

Which of the following statements is correct when talking about free route airspace?

Select one of the following:

Within free route space the pilot can freely execute the ﬂight between any entry and exit points, but must communicate the intentions to the air traﬃc control.
Within free route space the aircraft operator can freely plan routes between any entry and exit points, but must specify the chosen route in the ﬂight plan.
Within free route space the air traﬃc controller can freely move aircraft from their planned routes by giving instructions (vectors) in order to expedite the ﬂow of air traﬃc.
Within free route space the air traﬃc controller is not responsible to guarantee separation between aircraft and will only assist them in case of an emergency.

Explanation

Question 16 of 81

1

What is a TRA (temporary reserved area)?

Select one of the following:

a volume of airspace temporary reserved for IFR terminal manoeuvres where VFR traﬃc might transit under an ATC clearance
a volume of airspace temporary reserved for IFR terminal manoeuvres where VFR traﬃc cannot transit under any circumstance
a volume of airspace temporary reserved and allocated for speciﬁc use where civil traﬃc might transit under an ATC clearance.
a volume of airspace temporary reserved and allocated for speciﬁc use where civil traﬃc cannot transit under any circumstance.

Explanation

Question 17 of 81

1

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to the FUA concept?

Select one of the following:

Airspace segregations are not longer permanent and they are based on real use during conveniently chosen time periods.
Airspace should no longer be designated either military or civil.
Airspace should be considered as one continuum and used ﬂexibly on a day-to-day basis.
All the other options apply to the FUA concept.

Explanation

Question 18 of 81

1

Regarding the ﬂexible use of airspace (FUA) concept, the second level (pre-tactical level) deals with:

Select one of the following:

The deﬁnition of national airspace policy and predetermined airspace structures.
The day-to-day allocation of airspace, according to users requirements.
The real-time use and management of available airspace.
The deﬁnition of the sectorisation and capacity of the military airways.

Explanation

Question 19 of 81

1

What is the international radiotelephony urgency signal for aviation?

Select one of the following:

The word MayDay.
The word MayDay repeated three times.
The word Pan-Pan.
The word Pan-Pan repeated three times.

Explanation

Question 20 of 81

1

Which of the following transponder codes indicates distress?

Select one of the following:

1215
7500
7600
7700

Explanation

Question 21 of 81

1

An air traﬃc controller issues the following radiotelephony message: Echo Charlie Uniform Papa Charlie, traﬃc at your 10 o’clock position, Cessna 172 westbound at 4 miles, 300 ft below. Which of the following answers is correct?

Select one of the following:

The message is a separation instruction to prevent a midair collision.
It is a distress signal message.
It is a collision hazard ﬂight information message.
It is a urgency signal message.

Explanation

Question 22 of 81

1

Which of the following summarises the three high-level tasks that are always performed by an air traﬃc controller?

Select one of the following:

Aviate, Navigate and Communicate.
Coordinate clearances with other ATC units, coordinate civil-military operations, coordinate emergencies.
Gather and process data from ﬂights and/or ground vehicles, issue clearances, coordinate clearances with other ATC units.
Gather and process data from ﬂights and/or ground vehicles, separate aircraft, give ﬂight information instructions.

Explanation

Question 23 of 81

1

In which situation, the visual contact with aircraft is the main data gathering source for an air traﬃc controller?

Select one of the following:

for the IFR clearance delivery dependency.
for the ground movement control dependency.
for the approach control dependency
Nowadays, visual contact with aircraft is not used as source of information by ATC anymore.

Explanation

Question 24 of 81

1

Which of the following elements is not included in an IFR clearance delivery?

Select one of the following:

the route to follow.
the wind conditions for take-oﬀ.
the ﬁrst transponder code (squawk) of the ﬂight.
the initial altitude of the ﬂight

Explanation

Question 25 of 81

1

North Atlantic control typically requires the aircraft crew to:

Select one of the following:

Report their position only when requested by the ATC.
Report periodically their position every 2h.
Report periodically their position every 10o of longitude.
Switch-oﬀ the transponder.

Explanation

Question 26 of 81

1

Imagine a ground ATC system equipped only with a SSR mode C radar. Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

Aircraft calibrated airspeed can be inferred from radar data.
Aircraft true airspeed can be inferred from radar data.
Only aircraft ADS-B messages can be received from radar data.
Only aircraft squawk code and altitude are received from radar data.

Explanation

Question 27 of 81

1

Who is the responsible to issue air traﬃc control clearances?

Select one of the following:

The strategic controller
The tactical controller.
The planner controller.
The ATC supervisor.

Explanation

Question 28 of 81

1

Who is the responsible to receive and sort incoming ATC ﬂight progress strips?

Select one of the following:

The strategic controller
The tactical controller.
The controller in charge of the IFR clearance delivery dependency.
The ATC supervisor.

Explanation

Question 29 of 81

1

In the context of air traﬃc control (ATC), which type of information we would typically ﬁnd in a letter of agreement (LoA)?

Select one of the following:

The clearances to cross a temporary reserved area (TRA).
The exit ﬂight levels of certain ATC sectors.
The deﬁnition of the standard instrumental departures of the airport.
All answers are correct.

Explanation

Question 30 of 81

1

What ATC dependency is typically in charge to issue taxi clearances?

Select one of the following:

The en-route control.
The ground control.
The IFR clearance delivery.
The tower control.

Explanation

Question 31 of 81

1

What ATC dependency is typically in charge to conﬁrm that the cruise altitude ﬁled in the ﬂight plan has been accepted?

Select one of the following:

The en-route control.
The ground control.
The IFR clearance delivery.
The tower control.

Explanation

Question 32 of 81

1

Why is it diﬃcult to implement controller to pilot data link communications (CPDLC) in civil aviation?

Select one of the following:

CPDLC has already been implemented for several years in Europe and USA and used extensively, at least for the en-route phase.
Because its coverage is very small and requires a high number of antennas and frequencies, leading to possible capacity issues.
Because it is a safe-critical system requiring very demanding (and expensive) certiﬁcation processes.
Because it relies on GPS, which does not meet integrity requirements for civil aviation.

Explanation

Question 33 of 81

1

The main diﬀerence between a VOR and an NDB is that...

Select one of the following:

the VOR emits with much more signal power than the NDB.
the NDB emits with much more signal power than the VOR.
with an NDB the pilot only knows a relative bearing to the NDB station, while with the VOR the pilot knows the position of the aircraft.
with an NDB the pilot only knows a relative bearing to the NDB station, while with the VOR the pilot has directional information (relative to the magnetic North) with respect to the VOR station.

Explanation

Question 34 of 81

1

What is the main diﬀerence between a Locator and a NDB?

Select one of the following:

they are the same radionavigation system.
the Locator provides 3D guidance, while the NDB provides only 2D guidance.
the Locator is essentially the same system as the NDB, but with a lower radio coverage.
None of the other answers is correct.

Explanation

Question 35 of 81

1

What is the main diﬀerence between a Locator and a Localiser?

Select one of the following:

they are the same radionavigation system.
the Locator provides 3D guidance, while the Localiser provides only 2D guidance.
the Locator is essentially the same system as the Localiser, but with a lower radio coverage.
None of the other answers is correct.

Explanation

Question 36 of 81

1

In the context of air navigation, what is an aircraft based augmentation system (ABAS)?

Select one of the following:

A suite of algorithms and mathematical checks, embedded in the GNSS receiver, that are capable to detect misleading information from certain navigation satellites.
An enhanced antenna and ampliﬁer that allows to signiﬁcantly improve the GPS position accuracy.
The corresponding on-board receiver of a ground-based augmentation system, which allows to signiﬁcantly improve the GPS integrity.
A technology that allows to improve GPS integrity based on a set of messages cooperatively interchanged among several aircraft ﬂying in the same geographical area.

Explanation

Question 37 of 81

1

Which is the European SBAS system?

Select one of the following:

the WAAS.
the LAAS.
the EGNOS.
the Galileo.

Explanation

Question 38 of 81

1

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

GPS integrity is related with the average time (latency) the receiver needs to compute the position.
GPS integrity is related with the average time the GPS ground-control segment needs to detect a satellite is not working properly.
GPS integrity is related with the probability that the positioning error exceeded a certain threshold.
GPS integrity is related with the probability to have the system unavailable.

Explanation

Question 39 of 81

1

What is the transponder or squawk?

Select one of the following:

It is the device that allows to encrypt information transmitted by ATC to pilots.
It is the radio equipment that enables voice communications between pilots and ATC.
It is the on-board device that replies to surveillance radar interrogations.
It is an emergency beacon that activates in case of a crash in order to help search and rescue operations.

Explanation

Question 40 of 81

1

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

ADS-B positioning is based on secondary radar interrogations.
ADS-B has the advantage to be signiﬁcantly cheaper than secondary radar technology.
ADS-B positioning is independent from the navigation system of the aircraft.
ADS-B has the advantage that an aircraft is always detected, even if the crew is not willing to ”cooperate”.

Explanation

Question 41 of 81

1

Imagine a twin engine aircraft departing in IMC from a controlled airport. Few seconds after take-oﬀ, it hits birds, causing a ﬁre in one of the engines and loosing all of its power. In this situation, the navigate function of the aircraft crew would be:

Select one of the following:

to check if there is a contingency departure published for that airport and execute it.
to safely control the aircraft trajectory with the loss of power and to manage to extinguish the ﬁre and shut down the engine.
to send a distress message to the air traﬃc control.
to revert to manual control and visual ﬂight to safely land as soon as possible.

Explanation

Question 42 of 81

1

The direction, with respect to the North, to which the actual path of the aircraft is pointing to, is called...

Select one of the following:

track.
heading.
course.
bearing.

Explanation

Question 43 of 81

1

If the visibility is good enough for visual ﬂight, then...

Select one of the following:

we are in IMC and must ﬂy under IFR.
we are in VMC and must ﬂy under IFR.
we are in VMC and must ﬂy under VFR.
we are in VMC and can ﬂy under VFR or IFR.

Explanation

Question 44 of 81

1

What is it required to ﬂy under IFR?

Select one of the following:

Certiﬁed radionavigation equipment on-board the aircraft.
A special training (and rating) for the pilot.
To ﬁle an ATS ﬂight plan.
All answers are correct.

Explanation

Question 45 of 81

1

Which of the following methods shall be used to deﬁne a VFR reporting point?

Select one of the following:

Overﬂying a radionavigation facility.
Some timing after overﬂying a radionavigation facility.
The intersection of a VOR radial and a NDB course.
An signiﬁcant landmark.

Explanation

Question 46 of 81

1

In which situation the eﬀect of the wind will have a bigger impact on the actual trajectory ﬂown by an aircraft?

Select one of the following:

when ﬂying a dead reckoning leg.
when ﬂying an NDB course.
when ﬂying a VOR radial.
when ﬂying a DME arc.

Explanation

Question 47 of 81

1

What is the cruise phase?

Select one of the following:

The phase of the ﬂight after the whole climb where the aircraft is at a constant altitude.
The phase of the ﬂight that follows the departure procedure.
The phase of the ﬂight that precedes the arrival.
All answers are correct.

Explanation

Question 48 of 81

1

Which of the following statements is false?

Select one of the following:

Not all airports have published STARs.
Not all airports have published SIDs.
In general, all aircraft begin the descent when overﬂying the ﬁrst ﬁx of the STAR.
A SID procedure can only be executed in IFR.

Explanation

Question 49 of 81

1

Who is the responsible to publish a contingency instrumental departure for a given runway?

Select one of the following:

the ANSP.
the aircraft operator.
the aircraft manufacturer.
The national safety agency.

Explanation

Question 50 of 81

1

Who is the responsible to publish the standard operational procedures for an aircraft, such as the best moment to retract ﬂaps/slats, deploy the landing gear, etc.

Select one of the following:

the ANSP.
the aircraft operator.
the aircraft manufacturer.
The national safety agency.

Explanation

Question 51 of 81

1

A pilot is executing an airﬁeld traﬃc pattern. How does (s)he knows (s)he is in the downwind leg?

Select one of the following:

by using an MLS.
by using an ILS
by using radar vectoring.
by using visual references.

Explanation

Question 52 of 81

1

Which of the following answers enumerate three diﬀerent legs of the standard airﬁeld traﬃc pattern?

Select one of the following:

downwind, base and ﬁnal.
VOR radial, DME arc and NDB course.
inbound, outbound and timing.
racetrack, reversal and dead-reckoning.

Explanation

Question 53 of 81

1

According to the Figure that appears at the end of this exam...

Select one of the following:

Turns in the airﬁeld traﬃc pattern are always to the right.
Turns in the airﬁeld traﬃc pattern are always to the left.
Turns in the airﬁeld traﬃc pattern are to the right for runway 31 and to the left for runway 13.
Turns in the airﬁeld traﬃc pattern are to the left for runway 31 and to the right for runway 13.

Explanation

Question 54 of 81

1

Regarding the Figure that appears at the end of this exam, what does the point Echo (E) in the chart indicate?

Select one of the following:

a VOR.
an NDB.
a visual reference point for the arrival procedure.
a visual reference point of the en-route phase.

Explanation

Question 55 of 81

1

Consider the VFR chart of the area around Limoges, provided in annex to this exam. The airspace class over the NDB LSU (south-west of Limoges airport) at 4500 ft QNH is:

Select one of the following:

Class C.
Class D.
Class E.
Class G.

Explanation

Question 56 of 81

1

An aircraft with no VHF radio equipment ﬂying under VFR wants to take-oﬀ from St Junien (LFBJ), located at the west of Limoges, and take heading 030o approximately. Check the VFR chart provided in annex to this exam. Which of the following answers is correct?

Select one of the following:

This ﬂight cannot be done without a VHF radio.
This ﬂight can be done if the aircraft remains always outside the CTR of Limoges.
This ﬂight can be done if the aircraft remains always outside the CTR of Limoges and always below 1000 ft above ground level
This ﬂight can be done if the aircraft remains always outside the CTR of Limoges and always between 1000 ft above ground level and 4000ft above the mean sea level.

Explanation

Question 57 of 81

1

An IFR ﬂight is crossing the Limoges airspace at 2000ft QNH following a straight line from south to north that overﬂies Limoges airport (dotted linne in the VFR chart provided in annex to this exam). At which point this aircraft will need a clearance to enter controlled airspace?

Select one of the following:

Before entering the TMA Limoges 2 (aproximatelly over St. Yrieix-la-Perche).
Before entering the TMA Limoges 1 (aproximatelly over Nexoh).
Before entering the CTR Limoges 1.
Before entering the CTR Limoges 2.

Explanation

Question 58 of 81

1

A VFR ﬂight is crossing the Limoges airspace at 1500ft above ground level following a straight line from south to north that overﬂies Limoges airport (dotted linne in the VFR chart provided in annex to this exam). At which point this aircraft will need a clearance before entering controlled airspace?

Select one of the following:

Before entering the TMA Limoges 2 (aproximatelly over St. Yrieix-la-Perche).
Before entering the TMA Limoges 1 (aproximatelly over Nexoh).
Before entering the CTR Limoges 1.
Before entering the CTR Limoges 2.

Explanation

Question 59 of 81

1

A small aircraft with no VHF radio equipment ﬂying in VFR wants to ﬂy the black dotted line over the Limoges area from sourth to north at a constant altitude. Is this ﬂight possible? If yes, at which of the following altitudes?

Select one of the following:

This ﬂight cannot be done without a VHF radio.
500ft ASFC.
2000ft QNH.
4500ft QNH.

Explanation

Question 60 of 81

1

An helicopter is over the mountain of 1886 ft that appears in the south-est corner of the Limoges chart provided in this exam. The helicopter will be inside Restricted Area 166C if:

Select one of the following:

its altitude is 500 ft above ground level.
its altitude is 2500 ft QNH
its altitude is 3500 ft QNH
its altitude is 5000 ft QNH

Explanation

Question 61 of 81

1

An helicopter is over the mountain of 1886 ft that appears in the south-est corner of the Limoges chart provided in this exam. The helicopter will be inside Restricted Area 68B if:

Select one of the following:

its altitude is 500 ft above ground level.
its altitude is 2500 ft QNH
its altitude is 3500 ft QNH
its altitude is 5000 ft QNH

Explanation

Question 62 of 81

1

What is the airspace class at 1500 ft over the Limoges VOR?

Select one of the following:

Class A
Class D
Class E
Class G

Explanation

Question 63 of 81

1

Consider the VFR chart of the area around Perpignan, provided in annex to this exam. The lower limit of the Dangerous area D142, located over the mediterranean sea is:

Select one of the following:

the sea level.
3000 ft above the sea level.
3000 ft above the elevation of Perpignan airport.
3000 ft above the 1013.25 hPa isobar.

Explanation

Question 64 of 81

1

A search and rescue helicopter is at the St. Cyprien beach, at the south-east of Perpignan and must transport urgently a wounded person to the Hospital, which is located in Perpignan city (in between the airport and the PL NDB). This transfer ﬂight is planned at 500 ft above the terrain and in VFR. In these conditions, which of the following statements is correct (check the VFR chart provided in annex to this exam)?

Select one of the following:

The pilot must always be in radio-contact with the ATC during the whole ﬂihgt.
The pilot must receive a clearance to enter the CTR of Perpignan.
Is not necessary for the pilot to contact the ATC (albeit it is recommended).
VFR ﬂights cannot enter the CTR of Perpignan. However, being a search and rescue aircraft this helicopter can proceed with the planned ﬂight and the ATC will give it priority.

Explanation

Question 65 of 81

1

Consider the VFR chart of the area of Perpignan, provided in annex to this exam. The airspace class at 1300 ft above sea level over the beach of St. Cyprien is:

Select one of the following:

Class A.
Class D.
Class E.
Class G.

Explanation

Question 66 of 81

1

Consider the VFR chart of the area of Perpignan, provided in annex to this exam. The airspace class at 3000 ft above ground level over the town of Le Soler (West of Perpignan city and with an elevation of aproximatelly 700 ft) is:

Select one of the following:

Class A.
Class D.
Class E.
Class G.

Explanation

Question 67 of 81

1

An helicopter under Special VFR (SVFR) is executing the airﬁled traﬃc pattern to runway 33 in Perpignan airport (see chart provided in annex to this exam). The air traﬃc controller is responsible to separate it from:

Select one of the following:

all IFR ﬂights.
all VFR ﬂights.
all VFR and IFR ﬂights.
the controller has no separation responsibility with SVFR ﬂights in this CTR.

Explanation

Question 68 of 81

1

A VFR ﬂight is ﬂying inside Perpignan TMA 7 (see the northwest corner of the chart provided in annex to this exam). The air traﬃc controller is responsible to separate it from:

Select one of the following:

all IFR ﬂights.
all VFR ﬂights.
all VFR and IFR ﬂights.
the controller has no separation responsibility with VFR ﬂights in this part of the TMA.

Explanation

Question 69 of 81

1

What is the main eﬀect of the ﬂaps/slats conﬁguration in an aircraft performance model?

Select one of the following:

they signiﬁcantly change the wing surface.
they change the engine thrust parameters (engine eﬃciency).
they change the CD0 and CD2 parameters of the drag coeﬃcient.
they do not have a signiﬁcant impact in an aircraft performance model.

Explanation

Question 70 of 81

1

In the San Francisco airport (SFO), two parallel approaches are executed if visibility meteorological conditions (VMC) are met. Otherwise, only one instrumental approach is executed in one of the runways. This is a illustrative example of a trade-oﬀ, or interdependency, between:

Select one of the following:

ﬂight eﬃciency and environmental impact.
ﬂight eﬃciency and safety.
capacity and safety.
capacity and ﬂight eﬃciency.

Explanation

Question 71 of 81

1

Minimum aircraft separation standards in oceanic areas are much larger than separation in continental areas with radar coverage. This is a illustrative example of a trade-oﬀ, or interdependency, between:

Select one of the following:

ﬂight eﬃciency and environmental impact.
ﬂight eﬃciency and safety.
capacity and safety.
capacity and ﬂight eﬃciency.

Explanation

Question 72 of 81

1

Continuous descent operations are not possible in very congested airports. This is a illustrative example of a trade-oﬀ, or interdependency, between:

Select one of the following:

ﬂight eﬃciency and environmental impact.
ﬂight eﬃciency and safety.
capacity and safety.
capacity and ﬂight eﬃciency.

Explanation

Question 73 of 81

1

Noise optimal departures (i.e. minimising noise exposure over the population) typically require more fuel since the aircraft might be required to climb at not optimal speeds and/or ﬂy longer distances to avoid certain populated areas. This is a illustrative example of a trade-oﬀ, or interdependency, between:

Select one of the following:

ﬂight eﬃciency and environmental impact.
ﬂight eﬃciency and safety.
capacity and safety.
capacity and ﬂight eﬃciency.

Explanation

Question 74 of 81

1

It has been reported in many studies that the United States of America (USA) ATM system, if compared with the European system, handles almost the double of traﬃc but with much less technical staﬀ and air traﬃc controllers involved. Which of the following potential reasons is correct?

Select one of the following:

The European airspace is much more complex to manage in terms of aircraft density and network topology.
The European airspace is managed by many air navigation service providers, using diﬀerent systems and procedures; and it is very constrained with several military zones.
The USA communication and navigation systems are much more advanced if compared with the European technology, leading to signiﬁcant capacity increases.
The USA surveillance systems are more precise, allowing for lower separation margins between aircraft.

Explanation

Question 75 of 81

1

Which of the following pieces of aeronautical information could potentially appear in a NOTAM message?

Select one of the following:

”... runway 27L closed for maintenance ...”
”... traﬃc at 11 o’clock at 2NM, 200ft below, Cessna 172 crossing from left to right... ”
”... wind is 280 at 20 kt, visibility is 5km, ... ”
All answers are correct.

Explanation

Question 76 of 81

1

Which of the following pieces of aeronautical information could potentially appear in a ﬂight information service (FIS) message?

Select one of the following:

”... runway 27L closed for maintenance ...”
”... traﬃc at 11 o’clock at 2NM, 200ft below, Cessna 172 crossing from left to right... ”
”... wind is 280 at 20 kt, visibility is 5km, ... ”
All answers are correct.

Explanation

Question 77 of 81

1

Which of the following pieces of aeronautical information could potentially appear in an ATIS message?

Select one of the following:

”... traﬃc at 11 o’clock at 2NM, 200ft below, Cessna 172 crossing from left to right... ”
”... sectorisation in Barcelona TMA from 10h to 12h is 11 Victor... ”
”... transition level is seven zero, ...”
All answers are correct.

Explanation

Question 78 of 81

1

What is an aeronautical information circular (CIRC)?

Select one of the following:

It is a notice or advisory that contains useful information for pilots or potential hazards along a ﬂight route or at a location, such an airport, in the short term.
It is information for aircraft operators that typically contain administrative, explicative or advice that in the long term can aﬀect their operations.
It is a document where two air traﬃc control centres agree in how traﬃc is transferred (specifying, for instance exit ﬂight levels).
It is the chapter of the national AIP where the rules of the air that apply to that speciﬁc country are described.

Explanation

Question 79 of 81

1

Which of the following indicators could be representative to measure ﬂight eﬃciency in a terminal manoeuvring area?

Select one of the following:

The average number of people exposed above a certain noise level.
The average length of trajectory level-oﬀs in departures and/or arrivals.
The number of aircraft executing approaches for a given period of time.
The number of air traﬃc controllers divided by the amount of controlled time, and for a given period of time.

Explanation

Question 80 of 81

1

Which of the following indicators could be representative to measure ﬂight eﬃciency in the en-route phase?

Select one of the following:

The diﬀerence, in terms of additional ﬂight distance, between the actual trajectory and the optimal trajectory.
The average separation between aircraft for a given period of time.
The number separation violations between aircraft reported in a given period of time.
The average number of aircraft inside an air traﬃc control sector for a given period of time.

	Created by Aaron Molinari over 4 years ago

Quiz on ITA MQ, created by Aaron Molinari on 05/03/2020.

ITA MQ

Question 1 of 81

Which air navigation service is the responsible to disseminate the instrument approach charts to the aircraft operators?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 81

Which air navigation service is the responsible to disseminate the visual approach charts to the aircraft operators?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 81

Which air navigation service is the responsible to disseminate the rules of the air that apply to a speciﬁc country?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 81

What is a ﬂight information region (FIR)?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 81

What is an upper information region (UIR)?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 81

North Atlantic tracks (NAT) are...

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 81

A VFR aircraft is cruising with heading 130o. According to the ICAO ﬂight level allocation scheme (odd-even rule), a possible ﬂight level for this ﬂight could be:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 81

An IFR aircraft is cruising with heading 130o. According to the ICAO ﬂight level allocation scheme (odd-even rule), a possible ﬂight level for this ﬂight could be:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 81

During a climb, when the pilot reaches the transition altitude, he/she shall...

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 81

A pilot is reporting ”our altitude is six thousand feet”. This means:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 81

Why in standard instrumental departures carts maximum altitude restrictions for certain segments are typically indicated?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 81

With our small VFR aircraft, which is NOT equipped with any VHF communications radio...

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 81

The ATZ typically encompasses...

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 81

Which of the following controlled airspace zones is sized to accommodate, approximately, all the aircraft ﬂying standard instrumental departures?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 81

Which of the following statements is correct when talking about free route airspace?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 81

What is a TRA (temporary reserved area)?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 81

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to the FUA concept?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 81

Regarding the ﬂexible use of airspace (FUA) concept, the second level (pre-tactical level) deals with:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 81

What is the international radiotelephony urgency signal for aviation?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 81