CISCO 2 - Chapter 5 bis Chapter 9

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Question 1 of 107

Which statement describes the port speed LED on the Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch?

Select one of the following:

If the LED is amber, the port is operating at 1000 Mb/s.
If the LED is blinking green, the port is operating at 10 Mb/s.
If the LED is off, the port is not operating.
If the LED is green, the port is operating at 100 Mb/s.

Explanation

Question 2 of 107

Which command is used to set the BOOT environment variable that defines where to find the IOS image file on a switch?

Select one of the following:

confreg
boot loader
boot system
config-register

Explanation

Question 3 of 107

What is a function of the switch boot loader?

Select one of the following:

to provide an environment to operate in when the switch operating system cannot be found
to control how much RAM is available to the switch during the boot process
to provide security for the vulnerable state when the switch is booting
to speed up the boot process

Explanation

Question 4 of 107

Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?

Select one of the following:

VLAN 99
interface connected to the default gateway
Fa0/1
Fa0/0
VLAN 1

Explanation

Question 5 of 107

A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a Switch> prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.
A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
The boot process was interrupted.
POST occurred normally.

Explanation

Question 6 of 107

Which two statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Full-duplex Fast Ethernet offers 100 percent efficiency in both directions.
Performance is improved because the NIC is able to detect collisions.
Nodes operate in full-duplex with unidirectional data flow.
Latency is reduced because the NIC processes frames faster.
Performance is improved with bidirectional data flow.

Explanation

Question 7 of 107

In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?

Select one of the following:

to determine the MAC address of a directly attached network device on a particular interface
when an end device can reach local devices, but not remote devices
when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host
to determine if remote access is enabled

Explanation

Question 8 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting connectivity issues in an Ethernet network with the command show interfaces fastEthernet 0/0. What conclusion can be drawn based on the partial output in the exhibit?

Select one of the following:

All hosts on this network communicate in full-duplex mode.
A malfunctioning NIC can cause frames to be transmitted that are longer than the allowed maximum length.
There are collisions in the network that cause frames to occur that are less than 64 bytes in length.
Some workstations might use an incorrect cabling type to connect to the network.

Explanation

Question 9 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. What media issue might exist on the link connected to Fa0/1 based on the show interface command?

Select one of the following:

The bandwidth parameter on the interface might be too high.
The interface might be configured as half-duplex.
The cable attaching the host to port Fa0/1 might be too long.
There could be too much electrical interference and noise on the link.
There could be an issue with a faulty NIC.

Explanation

Question 10 of 107

If one end of an Ethernet connection is configured for full duplex and the other end of the connection is configured for half duplex, where would late collisions be observed?

Select one of the following:

on the half-duplex end of the connection
only on serial interfaces
on the full-duplex end of the connection
on both ends of the connection

Explanation

Question 11 of 107

What is one difference between using Telnet or SSH to connect to a network device for management purposes?

Select one of the following:

Telnet sends a username and password in plain text, whereas SSH encrypts the username and password.
Telnet supports a host GUI whereas SSH only supports a host CLI.
Telnet does not provide authentication whereas SSH provides authentication.
Telnet uses UDP as the transport protocol whereas SSH uses TCP.

Explanation

Question 12 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?

Select one of the following:

Use SSH version 1.
Modify the transport input command.
Configure SSH on a different line.
Reconfigure the RSA key.

Explanation

Question 13 of 107

What is the effect of using the switchport port-security command?

Select one of the following:

detects the first MAC address in a frame that comes into a port and places that MAC address in the MAC address table
automatically shuts an interface down if applied to a trunk port
enables port security globally on the switch
enables port security on an interface

Explanation

Question 14 of 107

Where are dynamically learned MAC addresses stored when sticky learning is enabled with the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command?

Select one of the following:

flash
NVRAM
RAM
ROM

Explanation

Question 15 of 107

A network administrator configures the port security feature on a switch. The security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access port?

Select one of the following:

shutdown
warning
protect
restrict

Explanation

Question 16 of 107

Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.
After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.

Explanation

Question 17 of 107

Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?

Select one of the following:

Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands.
Clear the MAC address table on the switch.
Issue the switchport mode access command on the interface.
Remove and reconfigure port security on the interface.

Explanation

Question 18 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/2 has already been configured appropriately. The IP phone and PC work properly. Which switch configuration would be most appropriate for port Fa0/2 if the network administrator has the following goals?

No one is allowed to disconnect the IP phone or the PC and connect some other wired device.
If a different device is connected, port Fa0/2 is shut down.
The switch should automatically detect the MAC address of the IP phone and the PC and add those addresses to the running configuration.

Select one of the following:

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security violation restrict

Explanation

Question 19 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about port security from the information that is shown?

Select one of the following:

The port has been shut down.
The port has the maximum number of MAC addresses that is supported by a Layer 2 switch port which is configured for port security.
The port violation mode is the default for any port that has port security enabled.
The port has two attached devices.

Explanation

Question 20 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. Which event will take place if there is a port security violation on switch S1 interface Fa0/1?

Select one of the following:

A notification is sent.
The interface will go into error-disabled state.
Packets with unknown source addresses will be dropped.
A syslog message is logged.

Explanation

Question 21 of 107

What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

no required configuration
improved IT staff efficiency
end user satisfaction
cost reduction
a reduction in the number of trunk links
security

Explanation

Question 22 of 107

Which type of VLAN is used to designate which traffic is untagged when crossing a trunk port?

Select one of the following:

management
native
default
data

Explanation

Question 23 of 107

A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

between two switches that share a common VLAN
between a switch and a network printer
between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC
between a switch and a client PC
between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs

Explanation

Question 24 of 107

What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

Select one of the following:

Enter the no shutdown command in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.
Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.

Explanation

Question 25 of 107

When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

Select one of the following:

management VLAN ID
data VLAN ID
native VLAN ID
unused VLAN ID

Explanation

Question 26 of 107

Port Fa0/11 on a switch is assigned to VLAN 30. If the command no switchport access vlan 30 is entered on the Fa0/11 interface, what will happen?

Select one of the following:

VLAN 30 will be deleted.
Port Fa0/11 will be returned to VLAN 1.
An error message would be displayed.
Port Fa0/11 will be shutdown.

Explanation

Question 27 of 107

Which command is used to remove only VLAN 20 from a switch?

Select one or more of the following:

no switchport access vlan 20
no vlan 20
delete flash:vlan.dat
delete vlan.dat

Explanation

Question 28 of 107

What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?

Select one of the following:

The port creates the VLAN again.
The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.
The port goes back to the default VLAN.
The port becomes inactive.

Explanation

Question 29 of 107

Which two characteristics match extended range VLANs? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

They are commonly used in small networks.
VLANs are initialized from flash memory.
They are saved in the running-config file by default.
VLAN IDs exist between 1006 to 4094.
CDP can be used to learn and store these VLANs.

Explanation

Question 30 of 107

A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?

Select one of the following:

It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.
It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.
It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.
It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.

Explanation

Question 31 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. PC-A and PC-B are both in VLAN 60. PC-A is unable to communicate with PC-B. What is the problem?

Select one of the following:

The native VLAN should be VLAN 60.
The VLAN that is used by PC-A is not in the list of allowed VLANs on the trunk.
The trunk has been configured with the switchport nonegotiate command.
The native VLAN is being pruned from the link.

Explanation

Question 32 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. DLS1 is connected to another switch, DLS2, via a trunk link. A host that is connected to DLS1 is not able to communicate to a host that is connected to DLS2, even though they are both in VLAN 99. Which command should be added to Fa0/1 on DLS1 to correct the problem?

Select one or more of the following:

switchport nonegotiate
switchport trunk allowed vlan add 99
switchport trunk native vlan 66
switchport mode dynamic auto

Explanation

Question 33 of 107

What is a characteristic of legacy inter-VLAN routing?

Select one of the following:

Inter-VLAN routing must be performed on a switch instead of a router.
The user VLAN must be the same ID number as the management VLAN.
The router requires one Ethernet link for each VLAN.
Only one VLAN can be used in the topology.

Explanation

Question 34 of 107

What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

Select one of the following:

requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links
does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs
requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing
does not support VLAN-tagged packets

Explanation

Question 35 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?

Select one or more of the following:

The router will drop the packet.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.

Explanation

Question 36 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. In what switch mode should port G0/1 be assigned if Cisco best practices are being used?

Select one or more of the following:

access
auto
native
trunk

Explanation

Question 37 of 107

A small college uses VLAN 10 for the classroom network and VLAN 20 for the office network. What is needed to enable communication between these two VLANs while using legacy inter-VLAN routing?

Select one or more of the following:

A switch with a port that is configured as trunk is needed to connect to a router.
A router with one VLAN interface is needed to connect to the SVI on a switch.
Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN.
A router with at least two LAN interfaces should be used.

Explanation

Question 38 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to configure router-on-a-stick for the networks that are shown. How many subinterfaces will have to be created on the router if each VLAN that is shown is to be routed and each VLAN has its own subinterface?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 39 of 107

When configuring a router as part of a router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing topology, where should the IP address be assigned?

Select one or more of the following:

to the VLAN
to the SVI
to the subinterface
to the interface

Explanation

Question 40 of 107

A high school uses VLAN15 for the laboratory network and VLAN30 for the faculty network. What is required to enable communication between these two VLANs while using the router-on-a-stick approach?

Select one or more of the following:

A switch with a port that is configured as a trunk is needed when connecting to the router.
Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN.
A router with at least two LAN interfaces is needed.
A multilayer switch is needed.

Explanation

Question 41 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?

Select one or more of the following:

The wrong VLAN has been configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45.
There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.
The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.
The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.

Explanation

Question 42 of 107

A network administrator issues the show VLAN brief command while troubleshooting a user support ticket. What output will be displayed?

Select one or more of the following:

the VLAN assignment and native VLAN
the VLAN assignment and membership for all switch ports
the VLAN assignment and trunking encapsulation
the VLAN assignment and membership for device MAC addresses

Explanation

Question 43 of 107

Which four steps are needed to configure a voice VLAN on a switch port? (Choose four).

Select one or more of the following:

Configure the interface as an IEEE 802.1Q trunk.
Configure the switch port interface with subinterfaces.
Ensure that voice traffic is trusted and tagged with a CoS priority value.
Activate spanning-tree PortFast on the interface.
Assign the voice VLAN to the switch port.
Add a voice VLAN.
Assign a data VLAN to the switch port.
Configure the switch port in access mode.

Explanation

Question 44 of 107

In which configuration would an outbound ACL placement be preferred over an inbound ACL placement?

Select one or more of the following:

when an interface is filtered by an outbound ACL and the network attached to the interface is the source network being filtered within the ACL
when an outbound ACL is closer to the source of the traffic flow
when a router has more than one ACL
when the ACL is applied to an outbound interface to filter packets coming from multiple inbound interfaces before the packets exit the interface

Explanation

Question 45 of 107

Which address is required in the command syntax of a standard ACL?

Select one or more of the following:

destination IP address
source IP address
destination MAC address
source MAC address

Explanation

Question 46 of 107

Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?

Select one or more of the following:

On a network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one outbound ACL can be configured.
Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.
Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be used only on routers.
In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria.

Explanation

Question 47 of 107

Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Each packet is compared to the conditions of every ACE in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.
Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list.
A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACE will be forwarded by default.
A packet that has been denied by one ACE can be permitted by a subsequent ACE.
A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched.
An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACE.

Explanation

Question 48 of 107

What single access list statement matches all of the following networks?
192.168.16.0
192.168.17.0
192.168.18.0
192.168.19.0

Select one or more of the following:

access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.25
access-list 10 permit 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255
access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.15.255
access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255

Explanation

Question 49 of 107

A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve the task? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.255
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.0
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.255
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23

Explanation

Question 50 of 107

If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 51 of 107

Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

For every inbound ACL placed on an interface, there should be a matching outbound ACL.
Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.
Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.
Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.

Explanation

Question 52 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. Which command would be used in a standard ACL to allow only devices on the network attached to R2 G0/0 interface to access the networks attached to R1?

Select one or more of the following:

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.63
access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63
access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.96 0.0.0.31

Explanation

Question 53 of 107

If the network administrator created a standard ACL that allows only devices that connect to the R2 G0/0 network access to the devices on the R1 G0/1 interface, how should the ACL be applied?

Select one or more of the following:

outbound on the R2 S0/0/1 interface
inbound on the R1 G0/1 interface
outbound on the R1 G0/1 interface
inbound on the R2 G0/0 interface

Explanation

Question 54 of 107

Refer to the following output. What is the significance of the 4 match(es) statement?
R1# <output omitted>
10 permit 192.168.1.56 0.0.0.7
20 permit 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.63 (4 match(es))
30 deny any (8 match(es))

Select one or more of the following:

Four packets have been denied that have been sourced from any IP address.
Four packets have been allowed through the router to reach the destination network of 192.168.1.64/26.
Four packets have been allowed through the router from PCs in the network of 192.168.1.64.
Four packets have been denied that are destined for the 192.168.1.64 network.

Explanation

Question 55 of 107

On which router should the show access-lists command be executed?

Select one or more of the following:

on the router that has the ACL configured
on any router through which the packet referenced in the ACL travels
on the router that routes the packet referenced in the ACL from the source network
on the router that routes the packet referenced in the ACL to the final destination network

Explanation

Question 56 of 107

What is the quickest way to remove a single ACE from a named ACL?

Select one or more of the following:

Create a new ACL with a different number and apply the new ACL to the router interface.
Copy the ACL into a text editor, remove the ACE, then copy the ACL back into the router.
Use the no access-list command to remove the entire ACL, then recreate it without the ACE.
Use the no keyword and the sequence number of the ACE to be removed.

Explanation

Question 57 of 107

Which feature will require the use of a named standard ACL rather than a numbered standard ACL?

Select one or more of the following:

the ability to add additional ACEs in the middle of the ACL without deleting and re-creating the list
the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol

Explanation

Question 58 of 107

An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?

Select one or more of the following:

R1(config-line)# access-class 1 out
R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 out
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 in

Explanation

Question 59 of 107

Which type of router connection can be secured by the access-class command?

Select one or more of the following:

Ethernet
serial
console
vty

Explanation

Question 60 of 107

Consider the following output for an ACL that has been applied to a router via the access-class in command. What can a network administrator determine from the output that is shown?
R1# <output omitted>
Standard IP access list 2
10 permit 192.168.10.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 (2 matches)
20 deny any (1 match)

Select one or more of the following:

Two devices connected to the router have IP addresses of 192.168.10.x.
Traffic from two devices was allowed to enter one router port and be routed outbound to a different router port.
Two devices were able to use SSH or Telnet to gain access to the router.
Traffic from one device was not allowed to come into one router port and be routed outbound a different router port.

Explanation

Question 61 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

Select one or more of the following:

Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.
Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.
Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.
Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.

Explanation

Question 62 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. An ACL was configured on R1 with the intention of denying traffic from subnet 172.16.4.0/24 into subnet 172.16.3.0/24. All other traffic into subnet 172.16.3.0/24 should be permitted. This standard ACL was then applied outbound on interface Fa0/0. Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?

Select one or more of the following:

Only traffic from the 172.16.4.0/24 subnet is blocked, and all other traffic is allowed.
The ACL should be applied outbound on all interfaces of R1.
All traffic will be blocked, not just traffic from the 172.16.4.0/24 subnet.
An extended ACL must be used in this situation.
The ACL should be applied to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1 inbound to accomplish the requirements.

Explanation

Question 63 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to the access list 10 ACEs if the router is rebooted before any other commands are implemented?

Select one or more of the following:

The ACEs of access list 10 will be deleted.
The ACEs of access list 10 wildcard masks will be converted to subnet masks.
The ACEs of access list 10 will be renumbered.
The ACEs of access list 10 will not be affected.

Explanation

Question 64 of 107

What is the effect of configuring an ACL with only ACEs that deny traffic?

Select one or more of the following:

The ACL must be applied outbound only.
The ACL must be applied inbound only.
The ACL will permit any traffic that is not specifically denied.
The ACL will block all traffic.

Explanation

Question 65 of 107

Which type of ACL statements are commonly reordered by the Cisco IOS as the first ACEs?

Select one or more of the following:

lowest sequence number
permit any
range
host

Explanation

Question 66 of 107

A network administrator is configuring an ACL to restrict access to certain servers in the data center. The intent is to apply the ACL to the interface connected to the data center LAN. What happens if the ACL is incorrectly applied to an interface in the inbound direction instead of the outbound direction?

Select one or more of the following:

The ACL will analyze traffic after it is routed to the outbound interface.
The ACL does not perform as designed.
All traffic is permitted.
All traffic is denied.

Explanation

Question 67 of 107

When would a network administrator use the clear access-list counters command?

Select one or more of the following:

when troubleshooting an ACL and needing to know how many packets matched
when an ACE is deleted from an ACL
when buffer memory is low
when obtaining a baseline

Explanation

Question 68 of 107

What is the result of a network technician issuing the command ip dhcp excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15 on a Cisco router?

Select one or more of the following:

The ip dhcp excluded-address command is followed by the first and the last addresses to be excluded from being leased to DHCP clients.
The Cisco router will exclude 15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients.
The Cisco router will allow only the specified IP addresses to be leased to clients.
The Cisco router will automatically create a DHCP pool using a /28 mask.
The Cisco router will exclude only the 10.0.15.1 and 10.0.15.15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients.

Explanation

Question 69 of 107

Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?

Select one or more of the following:

broadcast DHCPREQUEST
unicast DHCPREQUEST
broadcast DHCPACK
unicast DHCPACK

Explanation

Question 70 of 107

A company uses DHCP servers to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses to employee workstations. The address lease duration is set as 5 days. An employee returns to the office after an absence of one week. When the employee boots the workstation, it sends a message to obtain an IP address. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will the message contain?

Select one or more of the following:

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and IPv4 address of the DHCP server
MAC address of the DHCP server and 255.255.255.255
both MAC and IPv4 addresses of the DHCP server
FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255

Explanation

Question 71 of 107

Which is a DHCPv4 address allocation method that assigns IPv4 addresses for a limited lease period?

Select one or more of the following:

dynamic allocation
automatic allocation
pre-allocation
manual allocation

Explanation

Question 72 of 107

Which address does a DHCPv4 server target when sending a DHCPOFFER message to a client that makes an address request?

Select one or more of the following:

broadcast MAC address
gateway IP address
client hardware address
client IP address

Explanation

Question 73 of 107

As a DHCPv4 client lease is about to expire, what is the message that the client sends the DHCP server?

Select one or more of the following:

DHCPACK
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPOFFER
DHCPDISCOVER

Explanation

Question 74 of 107

What is an advantage of configuring a Cisco router as a relay agent?

Select one or more of the following:

It reduces the response time from a DHCP server.
It can provide relay services for multiple UDP services.
It can forward both broadcast and multicast messages on behalf of clients.
It will allow DHCPDISCOVER messages to pass without alteration.

Explanation

Question 75 of 107

An administrator issues the commands:
Router(config)# interface g0/1
Router(config-if)# ip address dhcp
What is the administrator trying to achieve?

Select one or more of the following:

configuring the router to resolve IP address conflicts
configuring the router to act as a relay agent
configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server
configuring the router to act as a DHCPv4 server

Explanation

Question 76 of 107

Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The router has a fixed IP address.
This is an ISP requirement.
The router is meant to provide IP addresses to the hosts.
The administrator needs the router to act as a relay agent.
The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway.

Explanation

Question 77 of 107

A company uses the SLAAC method to configure IPv6 addresses for the employee workstations. Which address will a client use as its default gateway?

Select one or more of the following:

the global unicast address of the router interface that is attached to the network
the unique local address of the router interface that is attached to the network
the all-routers multicast address
the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the network

Explanation

Question 78 of 107

A network administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 0 and O flag as 1. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration when a PC tries to configure its IPv6 address?

Select one or more of the following:

It should contact a DHCPv6 server for the prefix, the prefix-length information, and an interface ID that is both random and unique.
It should use the information that is contained in the RA message and contact a DHCPv6 server for additional information.
It should contact a DHCPv6 server for all the information that it needs.
It should use the information that is contained in the RA message exclusively.

Explanation

Question 79 of 107

A company implements the stateless DHCPv6 method for configuring IPv6 addresses on employee workstations. After a workstation receives messages from multiple DHCPv6 servers to indicate their availability for DHCPv6 service, which message does it send to a server for configuration information?

Select one or more of the following:

DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST
DHCPv6 ADVERTISE
DHCPv6 REQUEST
DHCPv6 SOLICIT

Explanation

Question 80 of 107

An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?

Select one or more of the following:

RA and EUI-64
stateful DHCPv6
stateless DHCPv6
SLAAC

Explanation

Question 81 of 107

How does an IPv6 client ensure that it has a unique address after it configures its IPv6 address using the SLAAC allocation method?

Select one or more of the following:

It sends an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message with the IPv6 address as the target IPv6 address.
It contacts the DHCPv6 server via a special formed ICMPv6 message.
It sends an ARP message with the IPv6 address as the destination IPv6 address.
It checks with the IPv6 address database that is hosted by the SLAAC server.

Explanation

Question 82 of 107

What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

Select one or more of the following:

an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface
an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server
a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address
the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface

Explanation

Question 83 of 107

What two methods can be used to generate an interface ID by an IPv6 host that is using SLAAC? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

ARP
DAD
stateful DHCPv6
random generation
EUI-64

Explanation

Question 84 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what kind of IPv6 addressing is being configured?

Select one or more of the following:

stateless DHCPv6
static link-local
stateful DHCPv6
SLAAC

Explanation

Question 85 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. What should be done to allow PC-A to receive an IPv6 address from the DHCPv6 server?

Select one or more of the following:

Configure the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command on interface Fa0/1.
Add the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:1234:5678::10/64 to the interface configuration of the DHCPv6 server.
Change the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command to ipv6 nd other-config-flag.
Add the ipv6 dhcp relay command to interface Fa0/0.

Explanation

Question 86 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing stateful DHCPv6 operation for the company. However, the clients are not using the prefix and prefix-length information that is configured in the DHCP pool. The administrator issues a show ipv6 interface command. What could be the cause of the problem?

Select one or more of the following:

No virtual link-local address is configured.
The router is configured for stateless DHCPv6 operation
The router is configured for SLAAC DHCPv6 operation.
The Duplicate Address Detection feature is disabled.

Explanation

Question 87 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing the stateless DHCPv6 operation for the company. Clients are configuring IPv6 addresses as expected. However, the clients are not getting the DNS server address and the domain name information configured in the DHCP pool. What could be the cause of the problem?

Select one or more of the following:

The GigabitEthernet interface is not activated.
The clients cannot communicate with the DHCPv6 server, evidenced by the number of active clients being 0.
The DNS server address is not on the same network as the clients are on.
The router is configured for SLAAC operation.

Explanation

Question 88 of 107

Which method is used by a PAT-enabled router to send incoming packets to the correct inside hosts?

Select one or more of the following:

It uses the destination TCP or UDP port number on the incoming packet.
It uses the source IP address on the incoming packet.
It uses the source TCP or UDP port number on the incoming packet.
It uses a combination of the source TCP or UDP port number and the destination IP address on the incoming packet

Explanation

Question 89 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

Select one or more of the following:

10.1.1.2
209.165.20.25
192.168.0.100
any address in the 10.1.1.0 network

Explanation

Question 90 of 107

A network administrator is configuring a static NAT on the border router for a web server located in the DMZ network. The web server is configured to listen on TCP port 8080. The web server is paired with the internal IP address of 192.168.5.25 and the external IP address of 209.165.200.230. For easy access by hosts on the Internet, external users do not need to specify the port when visiting the web server. Which command will configure the static NAT?

Select one or more of the following:

R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.230 8080 192.168.5.25 80
R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.230 80 192.168.5.25 8080
R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.5.25 8080 209.165.200.230 80
R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.5.25 80 209.165.200.230 8080

Explanation

Question 91 of 107

What is defined by the ip nat pool command when configuring dynamic NAT?

Select one or more of the following:

the pool of global address
the range of internal IP addresses that are translated
the range of external IP addresses that internal hosts are permitted to access
the pool of available NAT servers

Explanation

Question 92 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?

Select one or more of the following:

dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses
static NAT with a NAT pool
static NAT with one entry
PAT using an external interface

Explanation

Question 93 of 107

What is the primary purpose of NAT?

Select one or more of the following:

enhance network performance
allow peer-to-peer file sharing
increase network security
conserve IPv4 addresses

Explanation

Question 94 of 107

What is the major benefit of using NAT with Port Address Translation?

Select one or more of the following:

It provides a pool of public addresses that can be assigned to internal hosts.
It allows many internal hosts to share the same public IPv4 address.
It improves network performance for real-time protocols.
It allows external hosts access to internal servers.

Explanation

Question 95 of 107

What is a characteristic of unique local addresses?

Select one or more of the following:

They are defined in RFC 3927.
Their implementation depends on ISPs providing the service.
They are designed to improve the security of IPv6 networks.
They allow sites to be combined without creating any address conflicts.

Explanation

Question 96 of 107

A network administrator configures the border router with the command R1(config)# ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp. What is required to be configured in order for this particular command to be functional?

Select one or more of the following:

a VLAN named corp to be enabled and active and routed by R1
ip nat outside to be enabled on the interface that connects to the LAN affected by the NAT
an access list numbered 4 that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses
an access list named corp that defines the private addresses that are affected by NAT
a NAT pool named corp that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses

Explanation

Question 97 of 107

Which statement describes IPv6 ULAs?

Select one or more of the following:

They are assigned by an ISP.
They are not routable across the internet.
They begin with the fe80::/10 prefix.
They conserve IPv6 address space.

Explanation

Question 98 of 107

What is the purpose of port forwarding?

Select one or more of the following:

Port forwarding allows an internal user to reach a service on a public IPv4 address that is located outside a LAN.
Port forwarding allows for translating inside local IP addresses to outside local addresses.
Port forwarding allows an external user to reach a service on a private IPv4 address that is located inside a LAN.
Port forwarding allows users to reach servers on the Internet that are not using standard port numbers.

Explanation

Question 99 of 107

When dynamic NAT without overloading is being used, what happens if seven users attempt to access a public server on the Internet when only six addresses are available in the NAT pool?

Select one or more of the following:

The first user gets disconnected when the seventh user makes the request.
All users can access the server.
The request to the server for the seventh user fails.
No users can access the server.

Explanation

Question 100 of 107

A network engineer has configured a router with the command ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp overload. Why did the engineer use the overload option?

Select one or more of the following:

The company has a small number of servers that should be accessible by clients from the Internet.
The company router must throttle or buffer traffic because the processing power of the router is not enough to handle the normal load of external-bound Internet traffic.
The company needs to have more public IP addresses available to be used on the Internet.
The company has more private IP addresses than available public IP addresses.

Explanation

Question 101 of 107

What is a disadvantage of NAT?

Select one or more of the following:

The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
There is no end-to-end addressing.

Explanation

Question 102 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

Select one or more of the following:

defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
defines which addresses are allowed into the router

Explanation

Question 103 of 107

What are two of the required steps to configure PAT? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Define the hello and interval timers to match the adjacent neighbor router.
Identify the inside interface.
Define the range of source ports to be used.
Create a standard access list to define applications that should be translated.
Define a pool of global addresses to be used for overload translation.

Explanation

Question 104 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is configuring R2 for static NAT to allow the client to access the web server. What is a possible reason that the client PC cannot access the web server?

Select one or more of the following:

Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface.
The configuration is missing a valid access control list
The IP NAT statement is incorrect.
Interface Fa0/1 should be identified as the outside NAT interface.

Explanation

Question 105 of 107

What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.
It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.
It increases routing performance. It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
It saves public IP addresses.

Explanation

Question 106 of 107

What is an advantage of deploying IPv4 NAT technology for internal hosts in an organization?

Select one or more of the following:

enables the easy deployment of applications that require end-to-end traceability
increases the performance of packet transmission to the Internet
provides flexibility in designing the IPv4 addressing scheme
makes internal network access easy for outside hosts using UDP

Explanation

Question 107 of 107

A technician is required to configure an edge router to use a different TCP port number for each session with a server on the Internet. What type of Network Address Translation (NAT) should be implemented?

Select one or more of the following:

a many-to-one address mapping between local and global addresses
a one-to-many address mapping between local and global addresses
a one-to-one address mapping between local and global addresses
a many-to-many address mapping between local and global addresses

Explanation

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	Created by Leona W. over 4 years ago

CISCO vom Sommersemester 2020 CSDC

CISCO 2 - Chapter 5 bis Chapter 9

Question 1 of 107

Which statement describes the port speed LED on the Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 107

Which command is used to set the BOOT environment variable that defines where to find the IOS image file on a switch?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 107

What is a function of the switch boot loader?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 107

Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 107

A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a Switch> prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 107

Which two statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 107

In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting connectivity issues in an Ethernet network with the command show interfaces fastEthernet 0/0. What conclusion can be drawn based on the partial output in the exhibit?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. What media issue might exist on the link connected to Fa0/1 based on the show interface command?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 107

If one end of an Ethernet connection is configured for full duplex and the other end of the connection is configured for half duplex, where would late collisions be observed?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 107

What is one difference between using Telnet or SSH to connect to a network device for management purposes?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 107

What is the effect of using the switchport port-security command?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 107

Where are dynamically learned MAC addresses stored when sticky learning is enabled with the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 107

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 107

Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 107

Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 107

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about port security from the information that is shown?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 107

Refer to the exhibit. Which event will take place if there is a port security violation on switch S1 interface Fa0/1?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking? (Choose two.)