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MatthewEllis96
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Microorganism MCQs (ALL)

Question 1 of 90

1

A microbe growing in a functioning refrigerator is probably a:

Select one of the following:

  • Psychrophile

  • Mesophile

  • Thermophile

  • Hyperthermophile

Explanation

Question 2 of 90

1

A microbe isolated from deep in the ocean could best be characterized as a:

Select one of the following:

  • Psychrophile.

  • Mesophile.

  • Barophile and psychrophile

  • Barophile.

Explanation

Question 3 of 90

1

Addition of blood to a culture medium only allows the haemolytic bacteria that grow on the plate to be picked out. This is an example of a:

Select one of the following:

  • Selective medium

  • Differential medium

  • Complex medium

  • Synthetic medium

Explanation

Question 4 of 90

1

All organisms require the following macronutrients:

Select one of the following:

  • Potassium, magnesium, zinc

  • Phosphorus, cobalt, manganese

  • Calcium, potassium, zinc

  • Phosphorus, potassium, magnesium

Explanation

Question 5 of 90

1

Almost all medically important microbes are:

Select one of the following:

  • Chemolithoautotrophs

  • Photoorganoheterotrophs

  • Photolithoautotrophs

  • Chemoorganoheterotrophs

Explanation

Question 6 of 90

1

An extremophilic microbe is one which:

Select one of the following:

  • Can survive dry conditions

  • Can grow only when there is a mixture of stress parameters (e.g. high temperatures and low pH)

  • Can grow optimally under extreme conditions

  • Becomes dormant under extreme conditions

Explanation

Question 7 of 90

1

Biochemical synthesis of new cell material is called:

Select one of the following:

  • Metabolism.

  • Anabolism.

  • Catabolism.

  • Synthatabolism.

Explanation

Question 8 of 90

1

Carl Woese of the University of Illinois and his collaborators identified two major branches of prokaryotic evolution. What was the basis for dividing prokaryotes into two domains?

Select one of the following:

  • Microscopic examination of the staining characteristics of the cell wall

  • Metabolic characteristics such as the production of methane gas

  • Ecological characteristics such as the ability to survive extreme temperatures

  • Molecular characteristics such as ribosomal RNA sequences

Explanation

Question 9 of 90

1

Carrier mediated transport is necessary when:

Select one of the following:

  • Diffusion will not allow adequate amounts of a substance to enter the cell

  • Movement into the cell is against a concentration gradient

  • The level of nutrients in nature is very low

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 10 of 90

1

Catalase is indispensable to:

Select one of the following:

  • Obligate anaerobes

  • Aerotolerant anaerobes

  • Aerobes

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 11 of 90

1

Chemical energy is released when organic or inorganic compounds are:

Select one of the following:

  • Reduced

  • Incorporated into larger molecules

  • Synthesized

  • Oxidized

Explanation

Question 12 of 90

1

Denitrification is a process by which:

Select one of the following:

  • Nitrogen gas is fixed by microorganisms

  • Nitrates are reduced to nitrogen gas

  • Nitrates are reduced to ammonia

  • Nitrogen is assimilated into cellular material

Explanation

Question 13 of 90

1

Incorporation of atmospheric N2 to NH4+ occurs via the process of:

Select one of the following:

  • Nitrogen fixation.

  • Nitrification.

  • Denitrification.

  • None of the above, atmospheric N2 cannot be incorporated into NH4+

Explanation

Question 14 of 90

1

MacConkey agar selects for:

Select one of the following:

  • Gram-negative bacteria

  • Gram-positive bacteria

  • Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria

  • Haemolytic microorganisms

Explanation

Question 15 of 90

1

Modes of obtaining nutrition, used by at least some bacteria, include all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Chemolithoautrophy

  • Photolithoautrophy

  • Chemoheteroautrophy

  • Chemoorganoheterotrophy

Explanation

Question 16 of 90

1

Photoautotophs use:

Select one of the following:

  • Light as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source

  • Light as an energy and methane as a carbon source

  • CO2 as both an energy source and a carbon source

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 17 of 90

1

Siderophores:

Select one of the following:

  • Act as a solvent for iron and transport it into the cells

  • Are a key component of cytochromes

  • Help maintain osmotic balance in seawater microbes

  • Develop when errors in membrane synthesis occur

Explanation

Question 18 of 90

1

The cardinal temperatures are the:

Select one of the following:

  • Minimum temperatures

  • Optimum temperatures

  • Maximum temperatures

  • Minimum, optimum, and maximum temperatures taken together

Explanation

Question 19 of 90

1

The CORRECT way to write this microbe’s name is

Select one of the following:

  • bacillus subtilis (italics)

  • Bacillus subtilis

  • Bacillus Subtilis (italics)

  • Bacillus subtilis (italics)

Explanation

Question 20 of 90

1

The signature sequence is used extensively in the:

Select one of the following:

  • Phylogenetic probe

  • Reclassification of misclassified organisms

  • Defining of a specific group within a domain

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 21 of 90

1

The size (as determined by the sedimentation factor) of the most useful RNA molecule for prokaryotic evolutionary studies is:

Select one of the following:

  • 5S

  • 16S

  • 18S

  • 23S

Explanation

Question 22 of 90

1

Which of the following is a macronutrient?

Select one of the following:

  • Manganese

  • Magnesium

  • Zinc

  • Cobalt

Explanation

Question 23 of 90

1

Which of the following is both a selective and a differential medium?

Select one of the following:

  • Nutrient broth.

  • MacConkey agar.

  • Blood agar.

  • Tryptic soya broth.

Explanation

Question 24 of 90

1

Which of the following forms of oxygen are generally toxic to living organisms?

Select one of the following:

  • Superoxide anion

  • Hydrogen peroxide

  • Hydroxyl radical

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 25 of 90

1

Which of these environmental factors influence microbial growth?

Select one of the following:

  • pH

  • Water potential

  • Oxygen

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 26 of 90

1

Which prokaryotes should be expected to be most strongly resistant to plasmolysis in hypertonic environments?

Select one of the following:

  • Extreme halophiles

  • Extreme thermophiles

  • Methanogens

  • Nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in root nodules

Explanation

Question 27 of 90

1

A Wild-type bacterial strain is:

Select one of the following:

  • A strain with a limited number of mutations

  • An arbitrarily chosen strain

  • A strain without plasmids

  • A strain which is sensitive to antibiotics

Explanation

Question 28 of 90

1

Bacterial genes:

Select one of the following:

  • Are stretches of double stranded RNA

  • Have introns

  • Are often organised into operons

  • Are always present in two copies

Explanation

Question 29 of 90

1

Bacterial Genomics is:

Select one of the following:

  • A study of the entire bacterial genome

  • Sequencing of the bacterial chromosome

  • A study of essential genes and genetic elements

  • Sequencing of DNA samples obtained from the environment

Explanation

Question 30 of 90

1

Genetic recombination is a:

Select one of the following:

  • Change of DNA structure caused by radiation

  • Amplification of DNA molecules followed by cell division

  • Physical exchange between DNA molecules

  • Process resulting in protein synthesis

Explanation

Question 31 of 90

1

Mutations are:

Select one of the following:

  • Chemical modifications of DNA or RNA molecules

  • Any changes of bacterial genome as compared with a wild type

  • Events resulting from genetic exchange between bacterial plasmids

  • Sequencing errors

Explanation

Question 32 of 90

1

Post-genomic techniques include:

Select one of the following:

  • Proteomics

  • Use of restriction enzymes

  • Gene sequencing

  • Studies of signal-transduction pathways

Explanation

Question 33 of 90

1

The bacterial genome is:

Select one of the following:

  • Mostly diploid but includes several haploid regions

  • A single circular DNA molecule

  • Mostly haploid

  • A double stranded RNA molecule

Explanation

Question 34 of 90

1

Which one of the following sentences correctly describes the science of Metagenomics?

Select one of the following:

  • Metagenomics is a genome level study of the whole microbial community

  • Metagenomics is a genomics of industrially and medically important bacteria

  • Metagenomics is a study of gene expression

  • Metagenomics is a comparative analysis of the sequenced microbial genomes

Explanation

Question 35 of 90

1

With regards to bacterial plasmids which statement is the correct one?

Select one of the following:

  • A plasmid is a regulatory gene

  • A plasmid is a short RNA molecule

  • A plasmid is an extra chromosomal DNA molecule

  • A plasmid is a non coding region found in some bacterial genomes

Explanation

Question 36 of 90

1

A culture of E. coli is diluted by a factor of 10-6 and, after plating out 100 μl on an agar plate, 63 colonies grew after incubation at 37oC overnight. The original culture therefore contained how many viable E coli cells per ml?

Select one of the following:

  • 6.3 x 10(7)

  • 6.3 x 10(8)

  • 6.3 x 10(6)

  • 6.3 x 10(5)

Explanation

Question 37 of 90

1

Bacterial flagella bring about cell motion by which mechanism?

Select one of the following:

  • Wave-like movement of the flagellum

  • Rotation of the cell

  • Rotation of the flagellum in one direction only

  • Rotation of the flagellum that is reversible

Explanation

Question 38 of 90

1

Koch’s postulates most CORRECTLY relate to which one of the following statements?

Select one of the following:

  • The isolation of a bacterium in culture from an infection alone indicates that it caused the disease

  • Isolation and cultivation of a microorganism from a diseased animal, then inoculation into another healthy animal to cause the same disease, followed by re-isolation of the same microorganism, indicates that it is the cause of the disease

  • The observation of virus particles in tissue from a human with disease indicates that it has caused the disease

  • Inoculation of a bacterium into an animal and observation of disease alone indicates that it is the cause of the disease observed

Explanation

Question 39 of 90

1

Pasteur is attributed with which one of the following discoveries?

Select one of the following:

  • Was the first to see microorganisms under a microscope

  • First to discover and use agar

  • That there could be life without air

  • The first chemical antibiotics

Explanation

Question 40 of 90

1

The length of a typical E. coli cell is approximately?

Select one of the following:

  • 20 μm

  • 2 μm

  • 200 nm

  • 20nm

Explanation

Question 41 of 90

1

With regard to the differences between bacterial and eukaryotic cells which statement is the correct one?

Select one of the following:

  • Bacterial cells do not contain mitochondria

  • Bacterial cells are usually larger than eukaryote cells

  • Bacteria do not contain a chromosome

  • Bacterial cells are not sensitive to β-lactam antibiotics

Explanation

Question 42 of 90

1

With respect to differences between members of the archaeal and bacterial domains/kingdoms, which is the CORRECT statement?

Select one of the following:

  • Both have peptidoglycan in their cell walls

  • Only some Archaea are capable of methanogenesis

  • Archaea are sensitive to β-lactam antibiotics

  • Bacteria have similar RNA polymerase to that of Archaea

Explanation

Question 43 of 90

1

Which statement is correct with respect to the E.coli chromosome?

Select one of the following:

  • It is negatively supercoiled

  • It is positively supercoiled

  • There are typically several origins of replication

  • It consists of over 50 million base pairs

Explanation

Question 44 of 90

1

Which statement is correct with respect to Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)?

Select one of the following:

  • LPS is found in Gram positive cells

  • LPS is found in Gram negative cells in the cytoplasmic membrane

  • LPS is found in the outer-membrane of Gram negative cells

  • LPS is associated with all bacterial cells

Explanation

Question 45 of 90

1

Which statement is correct with respect to peptidoglycan?

Select one of the following:

  • There are multiple molecules of peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls

  • Only Gram positive cells possess peptidoglycan

  • There is only a single molecule of peptidoglycan in a bacterial cell wall

  • Peptidoglycan is only found in Gram negative cell walls

Explanation

Question 46 of 90

1

Anthrophilic dermatophytes (fungi causing cutaneous infections of humans) are primarily associated with:

Select one of the following:

  • Soil

  • Animals

  • Plants

  • Humans

Explanation

Question 47 of 90

1

Asexual reproduction in the Mastigomycotina (e.g. Phytophthora spp.) results in the formation of:

Select one of the following:

  • Sporangia

  • Oospores

  • Zygospores

  • Conidia

Explanation

Question 48 of 90

1

Black sigatoka is a:

Select one of the following:

  • Fungal root disease of bananas

  • Fungal foliar disease of bananas

  • Fungal fruit disease of apples

  • Fungal foliar disease of potatoes

Explanation

Question 49 of 90

1

Fungal growth and cell division is NOT normally accompanied by:

Select one of the following:

  • Biomass acquisition

  • Reduced vitality

  • Nucleic-acid replication

  • Enhanced ability to compete with other microbial species

Explanation

Question 50 of 90

1

Fungi primarily contribute to soil and plant health by:

Select one of the following:

  • Degrading sand particles to release Si

  • Facilitating desiccation of water-logged soils

  • Degrading organic matter and releasing nutrients

  • Preventing bacterial growth

Explanation

Question 51 of 90

1

Fungi tend to live at interfaces. Which of these statements is untrue:

Select one of the following:

  • This can be where nutrients are most concentrated

  • Solid surfaces may provide anchorage

  • Other microbes, that leak useful metabolites, may inhabit such niches

  • There is typically less water on physical surfaces and fungi avoid water

Explanation

Question 52 of 90

1

In the Earth’s biosphere most fungal biomass and diversity is found:

Select one of the following:

  • In the oceans

  • In soils

  • Under glaciers

  • In the atmosphere

Explanation

Question 53 of 90

1

One factor that is NOT used to prevent or reduce fungal spoilage of processed foods is:

Select one of the following:

  • Addition of benzene

  • Low water-activity

  • Refrigeration

  • Heat-sterilization

Explanation

Question 54 of 90

1

Organisms belonging to the genus Phytophthora are:

Select one of the following:

  • True fungi

  • Fungus-like organisms

  • Slime moulds

  • Rusts

Explanation

Question 55 of 90

1

Phytophthora infestans is a fungus-like organism which:

Select one of the following:

  • Causes disease of a wide range of woody hosts

  • Causes potato blight

  • Causes ringworm

  • Causes black sigatoka disease of banana

Explanation

Question 56 of 90

1

Phytophthora ramorum is the causal pathogen of:

Select one of the following:

  • Potato blight

  • Sudden Oak Death

  • Coffee rust

  • Ash dieback

Explanation

Question 57 of 90

1

‘Necrosis’ is a symptom of infection of a plant with a pathogenic organism. Necrosis is:

Select one of the following:

  • Yellowing of infected or surrounding tissue

  • Uncontrolled cell division resulting in the formation of a gall

  • Death of infected or surrounding cells

  • Premature leaf fall

Explanation

Question 58 of 90

1

Saprophytic activity is essential for the health of the biosphere because:

Select one of the following:

  • It facilitates nutrient cycling and waste degradation

  • It kills host organisms and thereby averts overpopulation

  • It facilitates species evolution via endosymbiosis

  • It involves mineralization of inorganic rocks in the lithosphere

Explanation

Question 59 of 90

1

Secondary symptoms of infections of plants by pathogens:

Select one of the following:

  • Occur at some distance from the point of infection

  • Normally occur close to the site of active infection

  • Are an ideal place to isolate the causal organism

  • Never occur at the same time as primary symptoms

Explanation

Question 60 of 90

1

Systems biology approaches to the study of fungal cells do NOT necessarily involve:

Select one of the following:

  • Generation of data from biological experiments

  • Mathematical quantification of changes in cell components

  • Creation of a model of the cellular system in silico

  • Creation of a conceptual model based on philosophical techniques

Explanation

Question 61 of 90

1

The symptom ‘chlorosis’ which develops when some fungi infect plants is due to:

Select one of the following:

  • Cell death

  • Nutrient imbalance

  • Impaired photosynthesis

  • Excess plant hormones

Explanation

Question 62 of 90

1

The symptom ‘hyperplasia’ in plants caused by a fungal infection is due to:

Select one of the following:

  • Abnormal cell enlargement

  • Downward growth of petioles

  • Uncontrolled cell division

  • Restriction of water transport

Explanation

Question 63 of 90

1

Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about true fungi

Select one of the following:

  • True fungi are eukaryotic

  • All true fungi are multi-cellular

  • True fungi are heterotrophic

  • Most true fungi have chitin cell walls

Explanation

Question 64 of 90

1

Which of the following is NOT an alternative name for cutaneous fungal infections of humans:

Select one of the following:

  • Superficial mycoses

  • Dermatophytes

  • Mycetoma

  • Ringworms

Explanation

Question 65 of 90

1

Which of the following is NOT part of the plant disease triangle:

Select one of the following:

  • Susceptible host

  • Climate change

  • Active pathogen

  • Suitable environment

Explanation

Question 66 of 90

1

Which of the following organisms is NOT a true fungus (i.e. it is classified in the Kingdom Protoctista):

Select one of the following:

  • Phytophthora infestans

  • Botrytis cinerea

  • Agaricus bisporus

  • Taphrina deformans

Explanation

Question 67 of 90

1

Which of the following statements is NOT true about rust fungi?

Select one of the following:

  • They are obligate pathogens

  • They are host specific pathogens

  • They have an active saprophytic phase

  • They form basidiospores as part of their life cycle

Explanation

Question 68 of 90

1

Which of these statements is untrue?

Select one of the following:

  • Some species of yeasts are highly tolerant to ethanol stress

  • Some species of fungi are extremely xerophilic

  • Many fungi are more tolerant to water stress than any bacterial species

  • Fungi can grow over the entire pH range from 0 to 14

Explanation

Question 69 of 90

1

Zoophilic dermatophytes are:

Select one of the following:

  • normally associated with animals and humans

  • normally only associated with humans

  • mainly associated with the soil

  • mainly associated with contaminated water

Explanation

Question 70 of 90

1

Modification of RNA polymerase confers bacterial resistance to:

Select one of the following:

  • Beta-lactam antibiotics

  • Rifampicin

  • Quinolone antibiotics

  • Metronidazole

Explanation

Question 71 of 90

1

The Bacille-Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is:

Select one of the following:

  • Heat-killed Mycobacterium tuberculosis

  • Attenuated live Mycobacterium tuberculosis

  • Mycobacterium bovis

  • Attenuated live Mycobacterium bovis

Explanation

Question 72 of 90

1

The antibiotic rifampicin interferes with which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Peptidoglycan synthesis

  • DNA gyrase

  • Lipid synthesis

  • RNA polymerase

Explanation

Question 73 of 90

1

Which one of the following infectious diseases has been eradicated from the human population?

Select one of the following:

  • Plague

  • Leprosy

  • Small pox

  • Polio

Explanation

Question 74 of 90

1

Which of the following is a bacterial infection?

Select one of the following:

  • Whooping cough

  • Polio

  • Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

  • Malaria

Explanation

Question 75 of 90

1

Which of the following is a host component important in specific immune recognition of extracellular microbes?

Select one of the following:

  • Antigen

  • Antibody

  • Phagocyte

  • Lipopolysaccharide

Explanation

Question 76 of 90

1

Which of the following is NOT an acquired mechanism of antibiotic resistance in bacteria?

Select one of the following:

  • Beta-lactamase production

  • Efflux pump antibiotic export

  • Lack of peptidoglycan

  • RNA polymerase single nucleotide change

Explanation

Question 77 of 90

1

Which of the following is only transmitted by direct person-to-person contact?

Select one of the following:

  • Malaria

  • Plague

  • Gonorrhoea

  • Tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 78 of 90

1

Which of the following is transmitted via the faecal-oral-route?

Select one of the following:

  • Malaria

  • Typhoid

  • Plague

  • Meningitis

Explanation

Question 79 of 90

1

Which of the following is primarily a respiratory pathogen?

Select one of the following:

  • Vibrio cholera

  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

  • Salmonella typhi

  • Mycobacterium leprae

Explanation

Question 80 of 90

1

Which of the following is transmitted to humans by arthropods?

Select one of the following:

  • Tuberculosis

  • Malaria

  • Cholera

  • Typhoid

Explanation

Question 81 of 90

1

Which one of the following diseases is NOT caused by an infectious agent?

Select one of the following:

  • Stomach ulcer

  • Cystic fibrosis

  • Cervical cancer

  • Liver cancer

Explanation

Question 82 of 90

1

All viruses:

Select one of the following:

  • Enter cells by receptor-mediated endocytosis

  • Replicate their genomes in the nucleus of the cell

  • Replicate their genomes in the cytoplasm of the cell

  • Surround their progeny genomes with capsid proteins inside infected cells

Explanation

Question 83 of 90

1

Mature virus particles (Virions) ALWAYS contain:

Select one of the following:

  • non-structural proteins

  • a protease enzyme

  • a DNA or RNA genome

  • a reverse transcriptase

Explanation

Question 84 of 90

1

Poliovirus:

Select one of the following:

  • Has a double-stranded DNA genome

  • Has a capsid that is composed of 240 copies of a single protein

  • Replicates primarily in the upper respiratory tract

  • Belongs to the enterovirus genus of the picornavirus family

Explanation

Question 85 of 90

1

The genome of measles virus is composed of :

Select one of the following:

  • Double stranded DNA

  • Single stranded DNA

  • Single stranded RNA

  • DNA and RNA

Explanation

Question 86 of 90

1

The poliovirus mature virus particle:

Select one of the following:

  • Contains 240 copies of a single protein

  • Contains 60 copies of four proteins

  • Has a dsDNA genome

  • Has a single stranded negative–sense genome

Explanation

Question 87 of 90

1

Tobacco mosaic virus has:

Select one of the following:

  • An icosahedral capsid

  • A helical capsid

  • Multiple copies of each of four proteins making up the capsid

  • Multiple copies of two proteins making up the capsid

Explanation

Question 88 of 90

1

Underline the TRUE statement below:

Select one of the following:

  • Viruses do not infect microorganisms

  • All viruses are enveloped

  • All viruses cause disease

  • All viruses are parasites

Explanation

Question 89 of 90

1

Viruses may encode their genomes as

Select one of the following:

  • DNA

  • RNA

  • negative strand RNA

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 90 of 90

1

Virus particles:

Select one of the following:

  • Are always smaller than bacterial cells

  • Can replicate independently of a host cell if provided with a nutrient medium

  • Can use some of the enzymes expressed in the host cell to aid their replication

  • Are always eliminated by the host immune system

Explanation

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