1.1. The MEL (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
a. The aircraft manufacturer’s list
b. The aircraft State of Registry
c. The Operator.
d. The manufacturer.
1.2. The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
1.3. Which of these can be more restrictive:
a. MEL
b. MMEL
1.4. Reference shall be made to the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) for equipment found unserviceable at any time:
a. From engine start-up until the aircraft has come to a complete stop at the end of the flight.
b. prior to the aircraft take-off.
c. prior to the flight time stage.
d. during the flight
1.5. The purpose of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is to enable the …………………………………. to determine whether a flight may commence or continue from any intermediate stop, should ………………………………… become inoperative. Which of the following completes the statement:
a. Maintenance, Supervisor any system
b. Chief Steward, the galley equipment
c. Operator, any aircraft safety system
d. Commander, any instrumentation or system of equipment
1.6. The document taking account of the aeroplane types and variants operated including procedures to be followed is the:
c. Operations Manual
d. CDL
1.7. What kind of aircraft operation is considered a photography flight?
a. Aerial work
b. Operative Flight
c. Transportation Flight
d. Visual Flight
1.8. An aerodrome can always be used as an alternate if it has all the services and equipment to satisfy the performance of the aeroplane:
a. True
b. False
1.9. The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the center line of a runaway can see the runway Surface markings is called:
a. Visibility
b. Runway Visual Range
c. Ceiling
d. None of the above
2.1. Why are Operators required to establish a quality control system?
a) To give the travelling public reassurance that the operation is properly regulated.
b) So that they can display the EN ISO 9000 logo on their headed note paper.
c) To ensure safe operational practices and airworthy aeroplanes.
d) To ensure that EASA 145 is complied with regarding engineering maintenance.
2.2. Which of the following does a quality system require?
a) A quality manager.
b) An operations manual.
c) Non-conformance monitoring.
d) To be in accordance with the model quality system detailed by the Authority.
2.3. Passengers can be accommodated only in:
a) Areas of the aeroplane designed for the purpose
b) Areas in which cargo is not carried
c) Parts of the aeroplane in which dangerous cargo is not carried
d) Areas in which access is not permitted on the ground
2.4. No persons other than flight crew are allowed on the flight deck. Which of the following correctly identifies permitted exceptions?
a) Invited passengers; Cabin Crew members; EASA approved persons
b) Cabin Crew members; EASA approved persons; Personnel permitted by the Operations Manual
c) Cabin Crew members; Police Officers; Personnel permitted by the Operations Manual
d) Operators employees; Cabin Crew members; EASA approved persons
2.5. What must the Commander ensure that all those on the flight deck are familiar with?
a) Check lists
b) Standard operating procedures (SOPs)
c) Contents of the Operations Manual
d) Safety procedures
2.6. Which of the following are not to be operated on board aeroplanes?
a) Mobile phones
b) Electric razors
c) Electronic calculators
d) Hand-held electronic games
2.7. Who is responsible for ensuring that no person acts recklessly or negligently, so as to endanger an aeroplane or the persons on board, Orto permit an aeroplane to endanger persons or property?
a) The Operator
b) The Commander
c) The Authority of the State of Registration
d) The authority of the State of the Operator
2.8. Which combination of the following list of documents correctly identifies those that must be carried on each flight? 1. Certificate of Registration (CofR) 2. Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA) 3. Noise certificate 4. Air Operators Certificate (AOC) 5. Aircraft radio license 6. Third party liability insurance certificates 7. Crew licenses with appropriate ratings
a) 1, 2,5and7
b) 1,2 and 7
c) 2,5 and 7
d) All of them
2.9. Is it necessary to carry the entire Operations Manual on each flight?
a) Yes
b) No, only the parts concerning crew duty
c) No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight
d) No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight and those concerning crew duty
2.10. Which of the following forms or information are NOT required to be carried on all flight? 1. The Operational Flight Plan (OFP) 2. Mass and balance Documentation 3. NOTAMS 4. The Technical Log 5. Maps and Charts 6. Passenger and cargo manifests
a) All except 1
b) All except 3
c) All except 6
d) All except 4
2.11. Certain documents are to be retained by the Operator on the ground. If it is not possible to leave the documents in safe custody such that in the event of their being required in the course of an accident investigation or for any reason given by the authority, they may be:
a) Be kept in the personal possession of the Commander
b) Carried on the aeroplane and stored in a document case in the cargo/luggage hay
c) Carried on the aeroplane providing they are stowed in a fire proof container
d) Posted by registered mail to the Operator, or taken by bonded courier
2.12. The Operator and the Commander are required to produce documents and records relating to a flight:
a) Within a reasonable period of time
b) Within 10 days
c) Within 7 days
d) Within 48 hours
2.13. What is a 'dry lease'?
a) Where the person leasing the aeroplane is responsible fuel etc...
b) Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person to whom it is leased
c) Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person from who it is leased
d) Where the leased aeroplane comes complete with flight crew
2.14. Where an aeroplane is Dry Leased Out to a non-EASA operator who is an operator certified by an ICAO contracting State, responsibility has to be assumed for the maintenance of the aeroplane. Who is responsible for assuming the responsibility?
a) The operator who is to operate the aeroplane
b) An EASA approved maintenance operator
c) The Authority of the State of the Operator who is receiving the aeroplane
d) ICAO
2.15. If an EASA operator is wet leasing out an aeroplane, who is the operator?
a) The EASA Operator
b) The Lessee
c) The EASA authority for the State of the Lessee
d) The EASA authority for the State of the Lessor
3.1. An Air Operators Certificate (AOC) is required by any operator operating aeroplanes for which of the following purposes?
a. Public transport of fare paying passengers only
b. Carriage of passengers and cargo for hire and reward with aeroplanes of max take off mass greater than 5700 kg
c. Commercial air transport
d. Public transport where more than 21 passengers are carried
3.2. An applicant for an AOC must permit the authority to examine which of the following?
a. All safety aspects of the operation
b. The administration, financial stability and the maintenance schedules of the operation
c. Any previous records of running an air transport operation
d. The medical records of all employees of the company involved directly with the operation of aeroplanes
3.3. In order to qualify for the issue of an AOC the operator must comply with certain requirements. Which combination of the following list of requirements satisfies what a prospective operator must demonstrate to the authority? 1. The operator must not already hold an AOC issued by another authority unless approved 2. The operator must only operate from the State of Registry 3. The operator must have a registered office in the State issuing the AOC 4. The operator must satisfy the Authority that he is able to conduct safe operations 5. The operator must only employ EASA qualified personnel
a. All the above
b. 1, 3 and 5 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 3 and 4 only
3.4. An AOC may be revoked, suspended or varied if the Authority deems it necessary. On what grounds can this action be taken?
a. If the profitability/financial stability of the operation gives cause for concern
b. If the operation is unable to comply with the safety requirements
c. If the Quality System is not EN/ISO 9000 approved
d. If the operator is found guilty of unfair trading practices
3.5. The terms of an AOC require the operator to maintain an organization capable of:
a. Exercising operational and administrative control
b. Exercising financial and administrative control
c. Exercising operational control and supervision
d. Exercising operational and quality control
3.6. With regard to the organization of the operation, the Authority is required to be satisfied that:
a. The organization is financially well managed
b. The organization has a management structure approved by EN/ISO 9000
c. The organization is staffed by JAR-145 personnel only
d. The organization details a progressive management structure for operations as well as maintenance personnel
3.7. The operator is required to staff certain employment areas. These are:
a. Flight operations, maintenance, crew training, administration, CDL
b. Flight operations, maintenance, crew training, ground operations, CDL
c. Flight operations, maintenance, personnel training, ground operations, CDL
d. Flight operations, crew training, administration, quality assurance
3.8. In order to be satisfied that the operator is worthy to be granted an AOC which of the following may be required of the operator?
a. A cash deposit of 10 000 euro be lodged with the EASA
b. One or more demonstration flights be conducted
c. The operation must be carried out for a period of six months without incident
d. 10000 passengers must be carried ion a period of 6 months
4.1. The MEL of an aircraft is found in the:
a. Operations Manual
b. Flight Record
c. Flight Manual
d. EASA Data Base
4.2. Who is responsible for approving an Operations Manual of an Operator?
a. EASA
b. The State of the Operator
c. The Operator
d. The State Authority of the Operator
4.3. Which of the following is correct?
a. The Ops Manual is a part of the Flight Manual
b. The Flight Manual is a part of the Ops. Manual
c. The Ops and the Flight Manual are two different documents that have nothing to do with each other
d. The Ops and the Flight Manual are the same document
4.4. Where can you find the flight procedures and limitations for a particular plane used by an Operator?
a. Ops Manual Part A
b. Ops Manual Part B
c. Ops Manual Part C
d. Ops Manual Part D
4.5. Where can you find the procedures and conditions used to perform or not a missed approach for a particular Operator?
4.6. Who shall establish and maintain a method of supervision of flight operations?
4.7. Which of the following are essential content of an operations manual? 1. The Operator's flight time limitation scheme 2. Aircraft checklists 3. Aircraft system details 4. Everyday operating procedures 5. Quality and Safety Program
a. All of the above
b. All except 5
c. All except 4
d. All except 4 and 5
4.8. Who is responsible for ensuring that all passengers are briefed before take-off?
a. The Operator
b. The Commander
c. The State of the Operator
d. The Senior Flight Attendant
4.9. Passengers are required to be briefed about the location and use of life jackets on what occasions?
a. When required by the Operator
b. When the Commander authorises the use of life jackets
c. If the carriage of life jackets in the aeroplane is required
d. Where flight over water (including lakes and rivers) is likely
4.10. Passengers are to be secured in their seats by seat belts or harnesses during take-off and landing, turbulence and an emergency. When also must they be secured?
a. During climb and descent
b. During a practice emergency
c. Whilst asleep with the seat fully reclined
d. Whenever the precaution is considered necessary
4.11. What instructions are to be given to passengers during an emergency in flight?
a. Instruction regarding the use of life jackets
b. Instructions concerning emergency actions that may be considered necessary
c. Emergency evacuation instructions
d. Instructions for the use of smoke hoods
5.1. Who is responsible for establishing aerodrome operating minima (AOM)?
a. ATC at the aerodrome
d. The Operator
5.2. Who is responsible for authorizing the method of calculation of AOM?
5.3. Which of the following is not considered when establishing AOM?
a. The frequency of meteorological reports
b. Adequacy and provision of ground aids
c. Dimensions and characteristics of runways
d. The competence and experience of flight crews
5.4. An Operational Flight Plan (OFP) must specify the take-off alternate ( diversion) aerodrome for use in the event of a flight emergency shortly after take-off when:
a. The RVR and cloud ceiling at the departure aerodrome is below minima
b. The length of runway at the departure aerodrome is not long enough to allow the aircraft to roll to a standstill if the brakes fail
c. The aircraft is carrying dangerous goods and a full fuel load
d. There is insufficient time to jettison fuel to landing weight to use the departure aerodrome
5.5. Which of the following is valid criteria for a take-off diversion aerodrome?
a. Not more than 2 hours flying distance for a twin-engined aeroplane
b. Not less than 2 hours flying distance for 3-engined aeroplane with one engine out
c. Not more than 1 hour flying distance for any aeroplane with one engine out
d. 2 hours or less flying time at 'one engine out' cruise speed for a 4-engined aeroplane
5.6. In deciding if an aerodrome is useable as a take-off diversion, which of the following is correct:
a. It must be capable of CATIIIA operations
b. The OCH must not be less than that of the aerodrome of departure
c. The RVR and cloud ceiling must be at or above the aerodrome minima at the time of take-off
d. For IFR flights the aerodrome minima must be greater than that approved by the operator or the State of Registration and no approach is permitted to have a visual element (i.e. no circling approaches)
5.7. A destination alterative aerodrome must be specified for:
a. Any flight for public transport over 40km
b. Any IFR flight unless there is reasonable certainty that at the ETA a visual approach can be made
c. A flight to a remote aerodrome where no local diversion exists
d. Any flight where a take-off diversion has been planned
5.8. A flight may be conducted under VFR only if:
a. VMC exists all along the route to be flown under VFR
b. An IFR flight plan has previously been filed and the flight conditions are VMC
c. A VFR flight plan has been filed and a clearance received
d. The maximum take-off mass does not exceed 4 700Kg
5.9. In order for a flight to be commenced under IFR:
a. IMC must be expected to exist all along the route
b. It must be reasonably expected that an instrument approach will be flown at the destination
c. A met report must indicate that IMC exists somewhere along the route
d. The met conditions must be equal to or better than the specified minima at the destination or destination alternate
5.10. If information indicates that landing at ETA at the destination or one of the destination alternates would not be possible within the established minima, then:
a. The flight may commence provided an en-route alternate (diversion) aerodrome will remain open throughout the duration of the flight
b. The flight may commence if the operator authorizes reduced minima
c. The flight may not commence
d. The flight may commence providing sufficient holding fuel (2 hours plus 15% of cruising fuel) is carried as a contingency load
5.11. If while en-route the last met report for the ETA is below the Destination Aerodrome Operating Minima:
a. The flight may continue to the destination
b. The flight may continue to the destination but will not commence the instrumental approach
c. The flight must not continue and the aeroplane should land whenever it is possible
d. The flight may continue if the Destination Alternate met report is above Aerodrome Operating Minima
5.12. A precision approach runaway CAT II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to:
a. a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
b. a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
c. a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
d. a RVR of 300 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
5.13. The appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate that during a period commencing ……………… hour before and ending ……………… hour after the ……………………………., the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima
a. two, two, ETA
b. one, one, ETA
c. two, two, ETD
d. one, one, ETD
5.14. For a Cat III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than:
a. 50 m
b. 150 m
c. 100 m
d. 75 m
5.15. Which of the following is as VFR Operating Minima?
a. 5000 ft AGL, 1500 mts vertically and 3000 mts horizontally from clouds
b. 5000 ft AGL, 1500 mts horizontally and 3000 mts vertically from clouds
c. 3000 ft AGL, 1500 mts horizontally and 5000 mts vertically from clouds
d. 1500 ft AGL, 3000 mts horizontally from clouds and 5000 mts vertically from clouds
6.1. An airplane with one passenger deck, equipped with 295 seats and effectively carrying 195 passengers must be equipped with:
a. 3 emergency medical kit.
b. 2 emergency medical kit.
c. 3 first aid kit.
d. 2 first aid kit.
6.2. In an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be at least:
a. 5% of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is greater.
b. 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is greater.
c. 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is greater.
d. 20% of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever is greater.
6.3. An airborne weather radar is mandatory on board, except for aeroplanes with:
a. A MTOM greater than 5700 kgs and a MOPSC greater than 9 if pressurized.
b. A MTOM greater than 5700 kgs and a MOPSC greater than 9 if non-pressurized.
c. A MTOM greater than 5700 kgs and a MOPSC greater than 19 if pressurized.
d. A MTOM greater than 5700 kgs and a MOPSC greater than 19 if non-pressurized.
6.4. Which statements about the Public Address System is not true:
a. It is mandatory for aeroplanes with an MOPSC of 19 or more.
b. It can be integrated into the interphone system used by the flight crew.
c. It must be accessible for immediate use from each flight crew station.
d. It must be audible at the lavatories.
6.5. A windshield wiper (or equivalent means of clearing water) is to be fitted in aeroplanes with MTOM greater than 5700 kgs:
a. To the commander station.
b. To the second-pilot station.
c. To both stations.
d. If rain conditions are expected during the flight.
6.6. An A320 departs from Barcelona to Madrid with 150 passengers on board and with a take-off mass of 70000 kgs. Which of the following is not required on board?:
a. Medical kits according to normative.
b. First aid kits according to normative.
c. An airborne weather radar.
d. PBE for crew members.
6.7. On a pressurized aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to:
a. provide passengers on board with oxygen following a cabin depressurization.
b. assist a passenger with breathing disorders.
c. provide selected passengers with oxygen.
d. to protect crew when fighting fires.
6.8. Following a decompression, the maximum pressure altitude at which each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty are able to fly with no supplemental oxygen with no flight time limitation is:
a. 15000 ft.
b. 13000 ft.
c. 10000 ft.
d. 8000 ft.
6.9. First aid oxygen carried on a pressurized aircraft is used for:
a. passengers following a decompression.
b. passengers or crew when required
c. crew only.
d. passengers notified as having medical condition
6.10. Doors and curtains between compartments must be secured:
a. during the whole fight.
b. while meal is being served.
c. for take-off and landing.
d. for turbulence.
6.11. If there is a passenger who requires oxygen due to pathological respiratory disorders, which of the following shall be used:
a. first aid oxygen
b. supplemental oxygen
c. not oxygen at all
d. aeroplane must descend below 13000 ft
6.12. 100% of the passengers in a non-pressurized aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight at pressure altitudes greater than:
b. 14000 ft.
c. 13000 ft.
d. 10000 ft.
6.13. 10% of the passengers in a non-pressurized aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:
a. 10000 ft but not exceeding 15000 ft.
b. 14000 ft but not exceeding 15000 ft.
c. 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.
d. 10000 ft but not exceeding 14000 ft.
7.1. If required, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aircraft must allow the transportation of the entire aircraft occupants:
a. plus a 10%
b. in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest capacity
c. plus 30%
d. in the case of a loss of two rafts
7.2. An aircraft with a MTOM of 50000 kgs and 150 passengers on board has a flight crew of 10 members. How many PBEs will be required for that flight?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 150
d. 160
7.3. An airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than:
a. 1.80 m
b. 1.83 m
c. 1.86 m
d. 1.89 m
7.4. Aeroplanes having a maximum approved seating capacity between 61-200 passengers will require the following number of megaphones on the passenger deck:
a. 0
b. 2
c. 1
d. 5
7.5. How must the colour of the Break-In Points be?:
a. White or yellow
b. Yellow or red
c. Red or white
d. It does not matter as far as they can be seen.
7.6. There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop aircraft. At a point along the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is at 1h 45m from an aerodrome suitable for emergency landing. The minimum equipment complying with regulations is:
a. 60 life jackets and three 30-seat life boats
b. 60 life jackets
c. one 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats
d. 60 life jackets and two 30-seat life boats
7.7. How is an evacuation slide inflated?
a. Using air from the air conditioning system
b. Using air from the aircraft’s pneumatic system
c. Using the engine bleed air
d. Using a pressurized gas cylinder which is combined with the slide itself
7.8. Which of the following statements about the location of the fire extinguishers on board is not correct:
a. one hand fire extinguisher must be located in the flight crew compartment
b. one hand fire extinguisher must be located in the main passenger compartment
c. one hand fire extinguisher must be located in each gallery between passenger compartment.
d. one hand fire extinguisher must be located in cargo compartment
7.9. An aircraft with a MTOM of 232000 kgs and certificated to carry 300 passengers requires: 1) one crash axe or crowbar on the flight crew compartment. 2) one crash axe or crossbar in the rear gallery area. 3) one crash axe or cross bar in the mid gallery area.
a. 2
b. 1
c. 1, 2
d. 1, 2, 3
7.10. A private jet with a MOPSC of 7 wants to flight from Paris to London, but its Emergency Lighting System works using the energy supply from the electrical system of the aircraft. Is it allowed to perform that flight?:
a. Yes, it has no limitations because its MOPSC is lower than 9.
b. No.
c. Yes, but only during daylight.
d. No, because it’s a requirement in order to get a AOC.
7.11. Which of the following is/are automatically activated in case of an accident?: 1. Automatic fixed (ELT(AF)) 2. Automatic portable (ELT(AP)) 3. Automatic deployable (ELT(AD)) 4. Survival ELT (ELT(S))
a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 2, 3.
c. 1, 2, 3, 4.
d. None
7.12. Which of the following is more likely to be carried in a life-raft?:
a. Automatic fixed (ELT(AF))
b. Automatic portable (ELT(AP))
c. Automatic deployable (ELT(AD))
d. Survival ELT (ELT(S))
7.13. Which of the following can be portable?: 1. Automatic fixed (ELT(AF)) 2. Automatic portable (ELT(AP)) 3. Automatic deployable (ELT(AD)) 4. Survival ELT (ELT(S)):
b. 2, 3.
c. 2, 3, 4.
d. 2, 4.
7.14. An aircraft with a MTOM of 70000 kgs and carrying 150 passengers, departures from Madrid destination Mallorca. Which of the following is required?: 1) at least 160 life jackets 2) at least 6 life-rafts of 30 people each 3) at least one ELT (AF) 4) at least one axe 5) at least two first aid kits 6) at least one medical kit 7) a flight crew interphone system
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7.
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7.
d. 1, 3, 4, 5, 7.
8.1. An audio selector panel operable from each flight crew member station is needed:
a. In every flight
b. In VFR flights
c. In IFR flights
d. If required by the State of the Operator
8.2. Where minimum navigation performance (MNPS) is prescribed by a Regional Air Navigation Agreement (RNAV) the aeroplane shall be fitted with equipment which:
a. Has been authorized by the State of the Operator
b. Has been authorized by the Operator
c. Has been authorized by the regional ATCU
d. Performs within specified longitudinal accuracy
8.3. Aircraft are to be fitted with navigation equipment which will enable it to proceed:
a. In accordance with the Operational Flight Plan
b. Along the prescribed RNP routes
c. Between two reporting points on an airway
d. In accordance with any ATC clearance received
8.4. At least two independent radio communication systems are necessary when: 1. IFR flights. 2. VFR flights. 3. VFR flights when not-based on visual marks.
a. 1,2
b. 1,3
c. 1,2,3
d. 2,3
8.5. An aeroplane departs from Barcelona destination Madrid performing a VOR based navigation according to its Flight Plan. Once in Madrid it will perform an ILS approach to the runway in service. Which of the following are mandatory: 1. one VOR. 2. one ADF 3. one DME 4. one ILS 5. an area navigation system 6. a second DME 7. a second VOR 8. a second ADF
a. all of the above
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 4, 7
d. 1, 3, 4, 6, 7
9.1. What is it necessary for an organization to take care of the maintenance of the aeroplanes of an EASA certified Operator?:
a. To have its own working place
b. To have an EASA-145 certification
c. To have an AOC
d. To be a part of the Operator owning the aeroplanes
9.2. For the approval of an AOC by the State authorities, an Operator must present a Maintenance System and show itself capable of maintaining its own aeroplanes:
9.3. The Maintenance System is part of the:
a. AOC
b. Operations Manual
d. MEL
9.4. If an operator´s aeroplane maintenance is contracted out to an external maintenance organization. Which of the following must be included in the Maintenance System so it can be approved?
a. The contract and its technical specifications
b. The procedure to be followed to ensure maintenance management
c. The Maintenance Quality System
d. The number of workers in charge of the maintenance
9.5. Is monitoring needed when maintenance has been contracted out?
a. Yes
b. No
9.6. What is the Maintenance Management Exposition?
a. A document that exposes the maintenance programs performed by a organization.
b. A document with the procedures to follow during the maintenance operations.
c. A document describing the structure of the maintenance organization.
d. A document to be presented to the State Authorities in order to perform maintenance operations.
9.7. Which of the following must be approved by the State Authorities?
a. The Maintenance System.
b. The Maintenance Quality System.
c. Aeroplane Maintenance Programme.
d. A,b and c.
9.8. Where can you find the procedures to execute any maintenance operation?
a. In the Maintenance System.
b. In the Maintenance Quality System.
c. In the Aeroplane Maintenance Programme.
9.9. Can an operator introduce alternative procedures to those prescribed in its Maintenance System?
a. No, it has to include them before performing them.
b. No, in any case.
c. Yes, as far as they are secure.
d. Yes, as far as an equivalent safety case has first been legally approved and supported by EASA.
9.10. Who is responsible to ensure the continued validity of the Maintenance Programme so it will not be revoked in a future?
a. The Operator.
b. The State Authorities.
c. The Maintenance Organization.
d. None of the above.
10.1) Flight crew to include a qualified flight engineer?
b) No, providing the flight engineer´s duty can be performed by another flight crew member without detriment to his/her primary duty
c) No, if the planned flight duration (including flight time required to divert to the further alternate) is less than 3 hours
d) No, if the airplane is certified to carry more than 31 passengers and less than 30 onboard
10.2) When are all flight crew members required to be at their duty stations?
a) In an emergency
b) In IMC
c) During an instrument approach where RVR is at minima
d) For a routine take offs and landings
10.3) When flight crew members are at their duty station they must:
a) Fully fasten the safety harness
b) Wear a communication headset
c) Fully raise the seat
d) Keep the seats belts fastened
10.4) Who is responsible for completing the journey log and or the general declaration?
a) The operator
b) The Pilot in command
c) The purser
d) The flight engineer
10.5) Before any flight is commenced, forms have to be completed certifying that the airplane is airworthy. Who has to be satisfied that the airplane is airworthy?
a) The commander
b) The operator
c) The maintenance supervisor
d) A JAA authorized person
10.6) Which of the following is NOT required to be certified for the pilot before a flight commences?
a) The load is distributed and secured properly
b) A full fuel load is on board
c) The mass and center of gravity are within limits
d) a maintenance released has been issued for the airplane
10.7) When is a Flight navigator required as part of the Flight crew?
a) When the pilots are not considered capable (in the opinion of the Authority of the State of the operator) of the safe navigation of the airplane
b) if the MEL indicates that the necessary navigational system is inoperative
c) When flying over remote areas
d) When precise navigational procedures
10.8) What requirement must be fulfilled before a pilot is appointed Pilot In Command by the operator?
a) He must have flown a total of no less than 3000 hours on type
b) he must have made at least 3 take-offs and landings in the same type in the preceding 90 days
c) he must have held a First Officer´s position on type for 13 months
d) He must have flown a total of not less than 1000 hours on type and have held a First Officer´s position on type with the current operator for 3 months
10.9) An operator shall ensure that all cabin crew members comply with requirements of Subpart O and any other safety requirement applicable to cabin crew. Define the "cabin crew"
a) Any crew member, who performs, in the interest of safety of passengers, duties assigned to him by the operator in the cabin of an airplane
b) Any crew member, other than a flight crew member, who performs, in the interest of safety of passengers, duties assigned to him by the operator or the commander in the cabin of an airplane
c) Any crew member assigned by the operator, who performs duties in the cabin of the aircraft during the flight, in the interest of safety of passengers
d) Any person assigned by the operator to perform specific duties in the cabin of an aircraft during the flight - for example a security staff
10.10) The minimum crew for all turbo propeller airplanes is 2 when:
a) There are 9 or more passengers carried
b) The sitting configuration is more than 9
c) The sitting configuration is more than 19
d) There are more than 19 passengers carried
10.11) When the presence of cabin crew member(s) on a passenger carrying flight is required by regulations, the minimum number of cabin crew members on board generally is:
a) 1 cabin crew member for every 25, or fraction of 25, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the airplane.
b) 1 cabin crew member for every 50, or fraction of 50, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the airplane
c) 1 cabin crew member for every 75, or fraction of 75, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the airplane
d) 1 cabin crew member for every 90, or fraction of 90, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the airplane
10.12) When are the flight crew members allowed to leave their stations?
a) In the performance of their duties
b) At any time specify by the operations manual
c) When having lunch
d) only when the captain allows it
10.13) An operator shall not appoint a person to the post senior cabin crew member unless that person has at least ____ experience as an operating cabin crew member and has completed an appropriate courses
a) 6 months
b) 9 months
c) 12 months
d) 24 months
10.14) According to EU-OPS, an operator shall ensure that each cabin crew member is at least:
a) 20 years of age
b) 17 years of age
c) 21 years of age
d) 18 years of age
10.15) A transport category airplane equipped with 188 passenger seats is performing a flight from Paris to Madrid. The home-based of the airplane is Paris. In Madrid one of the cabin crew members becomes sick and has to be taken to the hospital. A total of 150 passengers are on board. Can the flight continue back to Paris as scheduled?
a) No, a total of 4 cabin crew members are always required
b) Yes, provided a special permit is obtained from the authority
c) Yes, provided that a report is submitted to the authority after completion of the flight
d) Yes, provided that 1 passenger is off-loaded and a report is submitted to the authority after completion of the flight
