72 promocion
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Quiz on Operational Procedures 11-22, created by 72 promocion on 05/05/2020.

384
0
0
No tags specified
72 promocion
Created by 72 promocion over 4 years ago
Close

Operational Procedures 11-22

Question 1 of 93

1

11.1) When are we considered to be acclimatized?

Select one of the following:

  • a) Being in the 2-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of arrival

  • b) Being in the 1-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of arrival

  • c) Being in the 2-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of departure

  • d) Being in the 1-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of departure

Explanation

Question 2 of 93

1

11.2) What does disruptive schedule means?

Select one of the following:

  • a) Cannot rest 10 hours at least

  • b) Cannot rest 8 hours at least

  • c) Work in the middle of the night

  • d) Not having the optimal sleep window due to work

Explanation

Question 3 of 93

1

11.3) Flight duty period is related with the next concept

Select one of the following:

  • a) Schedule delays

  • b) Route, take-offs and landings

  • c) Flight without autopilot

  • d) All of the above

Explanation

Question 4 of 93

1

11.4) Total flight hours done by operating crew member shall be:

Select one of the following:

  • a) 100 hours in 30 days

  • b) 1000 hours in 24 months

  • c) 100 hours in 28 days

  • d) 900 hours in 13 months

Explanation

Question 5 of 93

1

11.5) Flight departure time is 0800z from Paris. Cabin crew members request more than an hour to prepare the cabin. Flight crew should send FDP time. Which time should send?

Select one of the following:

  • a) Adjust time to flight crew activity

  • b) Start flight duty period according with cabin crew member´s time

  • c) FDP will be from takeoff to landing time

  • d) Cabin crew members have no time restrictions

Explanation

Question 6 of 93

1

11.6) In case of unforeseen circumstances, maximum FDP can be modified by:

Select one of the following:

  • a) The State Authority

  • b) The operator

  • c) Pilot in Command

  • d) None of the above

Explanation

Question 7 of 93

1

11.7) If on the final sector of a flight, after takeoff an unforeseen circumstance occurs and the allowed increase time is exceeded:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Proceed to the departure or destination aerodrome, it does not matter

  • b) Fly back to the departure aerodrome

  • c) Continue to the planned destination/alternate aerodrome

  • d) Call The operator to be authorized

Explanation

Question 8 of 93

1

11.8) Which is the minimum rest period after a FDP?

Select one of the following:

  • a) 8 hours minimum but no more than 10 hours

  • b) 8 hours minimum

  • c) 10 hours

  • d) 12hours

Explanation

Question 9 of 93

1

12.1) An operational flight plan must specify the takeoff alternate aerodrome for use in the event of a flight emergency shortly after takeoff when:

Select one of the following:

  • a) The RVR and cloud ceiling at the departure aerodrome is below minima

  • b) The length of runway at the departure aerodrome is not long enough to allow the aircraft to roll to a standstill if the brakes fail

  • c) The aircraft is carrying dangerous goods and a full fuel load

  • d) There is insufficient time to jettison fuel to landing weight to use the departure aerodrome

Explanation

Question 10 of 93

1

12.2) Which of the following is valid criteria for a takeoff diversion aerodrome?

Select one of the following:

  • a) Not more than 2 hours flying distance for a twin engine aeroplane

  • b) Not less than 2 hours flying distance for 3 engine aeroplane with one engine out

  • c) Not more than 1 hour flying distance for any aeroplane with one engine out

  • d) 2 hours or less flying time at “one engine out” cruise speed for a 4 engine aeroplane

Explanation

Question 11 of 93

1

12.3) In deciding if an aerodrome is usable as takeoff diversion, which of the following is correct:

Select one of the following:

  • a) It must be capable CAT III A operations

  • b) The OCH must not be less than that of the aerodrome departure

  • c) The RVR cloud ceiling must be at or above the aerodrome minima at the time of takeoff

  • d) For IFR flights the aerodrome minima must be greater than that approved by the Operator or the State of Registration and no approach have is permitted to have a visual element (ie no circling approaches)

Explanation

Question 12 of 93

1

12.4) A destination alternative aerodrome must be specify for:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Any flight for public transport over 40 Km

  • b) Any IFR flight unless there is reasonable certainly That at ETA a visual approach can be made

  • c) A flight to a remote aerodrome where no local diversion exits

  • d) Any flight where a takeoff diversion has been planned

Explanation

Question 13 of 93

1

12.5) According to EU-OPS rules, the route of a twin-engined turbo propeller aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass exceeding 8.618 Kg and a maximum approved setting configuration of more than 19 passengers must be planned in such a way that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within:

Select one of the following:

  • a) 90 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative

  • b) 30 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative

  • c) 60 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative

  • d) 120 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative

Explanation

Question 14 of 93

1

12.6) According to EU-OPS 1, an operator must select two destinations alternates when the appropriate weather reports or forecast for destination, or any combination thereof, indicate that during a period commencing __ hour(s) before and ending __ hour(s) after the estimated, the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima.

Select one of the following:

  • a) 2; 2; time of arrival

  • b) 1; 1; time of arrival

  • c) 2; 2; time of departure

  • d) 1; 1; time of departure

Explanation

Question 15 of 93

1

12.7) For 3 and 4 engine aeroplanes, the takeoff alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:

Select one of the following:

  • a) 2 hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed

  • b) 2 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating

  • c) 1 hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed

  • d) 1 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating

Explanation

Question 16 of 93

1

12.8) According to EU-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT I approach available?

Select one of the following:

  • a) Non-precision minima (RVR and ceiling at or above minima)

  • b) Non-precision minima plus 200ft/1000m

  • c) RVR according to CAT I

  • d) Circling minima

Explanation

Question 17 of 93

1

12.9) According to EU-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT II approach available?

Select one of the following:

  • a) RVR according to CAT I

  • b) Circling minima

  • c) Non-precision minima plus 200ft/1000m

  • d) Non-precision minima

Explanation

Question 18 of 93

1

12.10) According to EU-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination aerodrome if it is equipped with a non-precision approach only?

Select one of the following:

  • a) Non-precision minima (RVR and ceiling at or above MDH) plus 200ft/1000m

  • b) RVR/ visibility specify in accordance with EU-OPS 1.225, and the ceiling at or above MDH

  • c) RVR/ visibility specify in accordance with EU-OPS 1.225

  • d) Circling minima

Explanation

Question 19 of 93

1

13-14.1) An aircraft flying at FL 370 on MNPS airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles etc), but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 45ºto the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated from its assigned route and climb:

Select one of the following:

  • a) or descent 1000ft or descend 500ft

  • b) or descent 1000ft

  • c) or descend 500ft

  • d) 500ft or descend 1000ft

Explanation

Question 20 of 93

1

13-14.2) If the whole flight is in MNSPA on the organized track system, what should be entered on the flight plan?

Select one of the following:

  • a) PTS + daily code

  • b) Position at every 10 deg latitude

  • c) NAT + daily code

  • d) OTS + daily code

Explanation

Question 21 of 93

1

13-14.3) The frecuency designated for VHF air to air comnunicationswhen out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:

Select one of the following:

  • a) 121.5 Mhz

  • b) 123.45 Mhz

  • c) 243 Mhz

  • d) 118.5 Mhz

Explanation

Question 22 of 93

1

13-14.4) An aircraft may operate in MNSPA along a number of special routes, if the aircraft is equipped with at least:

Select one of the following:

  • a) 1 inertial navigation system (INS)

  • b) 2 inertial systems (INS)

  • c) 2 independent long range navigation systems (LRNS)

  • d) 1 long range navigation system (LNRS)

Explanation

Question 23 of 93

1

13-14.5) A flight via SHANNON-GANDER great circle with no MNPS certification can be planned:

Select one of the following:

  • a) At FL 280 or less

  • b) outside schedules flight time

  • c) at mach number 0.7 or less

  • d) at a constant airspeed of 480 kts

Explanation

Question 24 of 93

1

13-14.6) What is the track message?

Select one of the following:

  • a) The publication of the preferred route message (PRM)

  • b) The ATC clearance given before the boundary window

  • c) The complete MNSP flight plan

  • d) The publication of organized track system (OTS)

Explanation

Question 25 of 93

1

13-14.7) In the area where MNSP is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL290 and FL410 inclusive is:

Select one of the following:

  • a) 2000 fts

  • b) 500 fts

  • c) 1000 fts

  • d) 1500 fts

Explanation

Question 26 of 93

1

13-14.8) RVSM in-flight procedure-cross checks of the primary altimeters shall be made at intervals of approximately one hour. This primary altimeters shall agree within:

Select one of the following:

  • a) 50fts

  • b) 100fts

  • c) 150fts

  • d) 200fts

Explanation

Question 27 of 93

1

13-14.9) In MNPA, the speed reference of a turbo-jet aircraft is the:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Indicated airspeed

  • b) Mach number

  • c) ground speed

  • d) true airspeed

Explanation

Question 28 of 93

1

13-14.10) MNPS is the abbreviation for:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Minimum Navigation Positioning System

  • b) Maximum North-Atlantic Precision System

  • c) Military Network Performance Structure

  • d) Minimum Performance Navigation Specification

Explanation

Question 29 of 93

1

13-14.11) How does one define the planned tracks north of 70ºN?

Select one of the following:

  • a) Latitude in degrees with meridians spaced at 10º

  • b) Latitude degrees with meridians spaced at 20º

  • c) longitude spaced at 5º intervals

  • d) latitude spaced at 5 intervals

Explanation

Question 30 of 93

1

13-14.12) In the NMPSA, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Notify air traffic control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time

  • b) request authorization from control to track another aircraft

  • c) set a different heading approximately 45º from the previous one

  • d) immediately climb or descent 1000fts

Explanation

Question 31 of 93

1

13-14.13) Contingency at FL410 necessitates diversion to an alternate against NAT traffic without ATC clearance but able to maintain altitude:

Select one of the following:

  • a) turn left or right and climb 1000fts/ descend 500fts

  • b) climb or descend 500fts

  • c) climb 500fts

  • d) descend 500fts

Explanation

Question 32 of 93

1

13-14.14) The validity period of a night time OTS in MNPSA is normally at 30ºW, between:

Select one of the following:

  • a) 0100 UTC to 0800UTC

  • b) 1030 UTC to 1900 UTC

  • c) 1130 UTC to 1800 UTC

  • d) 0000 UTC to 0800 UTC

Explanation

Question 33 of 93

1

13-14.15) The minimum time track is defined for:

Select one of the following:

  • a) a period of 12 hours

  • b) a given travel

  • c) a period of 24 hours

  • d) aircraft flying in MNPSA

Explanation

Question 34 of 93

1

15.1) Which of the following statements concerning the MEL is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • a) It draws attention to the possibility of furhter failures and their effects

  • b) The MEL is required by ICAO and must be approved by the State of Registration

  • c) The responsibility if acceptance of any unserviceability within the MEL rests ultimately over the Operator.

  • d) The MEL allows airplanes to be flown with unserviceabilities which would otherwise require immediate certification

Explanation

Question 35 of 93

1

15.2) The purpose of the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) is:

Select one of the following:

  • a) To permit the Authority to specify what equipment must be carried in an aircraft with mas take off mass greater than 5700 Kg

  • b) To permit one MEL to exist for the operator´s entire fleet

  • c) To permit the operator to change the content of the MEL Whilst keeping a master copy

  • d) Not to be used as an operator MEL

Explanation

Question 36 of 93

1

15.3) The purpose of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is to enable the ______ to determine whether a flight may commence or continue from any intermediate stop, should _____ become inoperative. Which of the following completes the statement?

Select one of the following:

  • a) Maintenance supervisor / any system

  • b) Chief Steward / the galley equipment

  • c) Operator / any aircraft safety system

  • d) Commander / any instrumentation or system of equipment

Explanation

Question 37 of 93

1

15.4) The MEL of an aircraft is found in the:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Operations manual

  • b) Flight record

  • c) Flight manual

  • d) EU-OPS

Explanation

Question 38 of 93

1

15.5) The MMEL is drawn up by :

Select one of the following:

  • a) The operator

  • b) The manufacturer/the type certificate holder

  • c) The aircraft manufacturer list

  • d) The aircraft state of registry

Explanation

Question 39 of 93

1

15.6) The MEL is drawn up by:

Select one of the following:

  • a) The aircraft manufacturer´s list

  • b) The aircraft State of registry

  • c) The operator

  • d) The manufacturer

Explanation

Question 40 of 93

1

15.7) Which of the following statements is NOT true:

Select one of the following:

  • a) The most favorable temperatures for icing are between 5ºC and -5ºC

  • b) The most favorable temperatures for icing are between 0ºC and -10ºC

  • c) Icing becomes rare at -18ºC

  • d) While flying, we must avoid icing conditions

Explanation

Question 41 of 93

1

15.8) In icing conditions, if you have exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is:

Select one of the following:

  • a) De-ice again the aircraft, then apply anti-icing fluid

  • b) Apply directly anti-icing fluid without conducting previous de-icing procedures

  • c) Operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing systems

  • d) De-ice the aircraft

Explanation

Question 42 of 93

1

15.9) When taking off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:
1. An increase in the T/O distance
2. A decrease of the T/O run
3. An increase in the stalling speed
4. A decrease of the stalling speed
5. A decrease of the climb gradient

Select one of the following:

  • a) 1,3,5

  • b) 2,4,5

  • c) 1,2,3

  • d) 2,3,5

Explanation

Question 43 of 93

1

15.10) During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The crew notice a slight glistening ice deposit on top of the wings or blades which appears translucent. Under these conditions:

Select one of the following:

  • a) The T/O performance of the aircraft will not be affected

  • b) There is no risk of ice accretion

  • c) The aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing fluid of the correct type

  • d) A longer start procedure will be necessary to warm up the aircraft

Explanation

Question 44 of 93

1

16.1) The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Above 5000ft

  • b) Below 2500ft

  • c) Between 2500ft and 3500ft

  • d) Between 3500ft and 5000ft

Explanation

Question 45 of 93

1

16.2) Whenever a potential bird hazard is observed, the commander shall:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Immediately inform the local ATS unit

  • b) Inform immediately the bird control unit (BCU) directly by radio

  • c) Submit a written hazard bird strike upon arrival and within 48 hours

  • d) Inform other aircraft in the vicinity by radio

Explanation

Question 46 of 93

1

16.3) The ICAO procedure designed to collect and disseminate information on bird strikes to aircraft is called:

Select one of the following:

  • a) IBHA (ICAO Bird Hazard Annex)

  • b) IBSA (ICAO Bird Safety Alert)

  • c) IBIS (ICAO Bird Strike Information System)

  • d) IBSR (ICAO Bird Strike Report)

Explanation

Question 47 of 93

1

16.4) When can the required noise abatement procedure be disregarded?

Select one of the following:

  • a) At PIC´s discretion where safety is an issue

  • b) If there is work in progress on the aerodrome

  • c) If the RVR is less than 1500 m

  • d) Never, it must always be complied with

Explanation

Question 48 of 93

1

16.5) When using ICAO noise abatement procedure (NADP 1) the flap retraction is commenced at:

Select one of the following:

  • a) 1000ft

  • b) 2000ft

  • c) 1500ft

  • d) 3000ft

Explanation

Question 49 of 93

1

16.6) According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is not to be initiated at less than:

Select one of the following:

  • a) 1500ft above aerodrome elevation

  • b) 1000ft above aerodrome elevation

  • c) 800ft above aerodrome elevation

  • d) 2000ft above aerodrome elevation

Explanation

Question 50 of 93

1

17-18.1) Who is responsible to provide emergency and abnormal procedures?

Select one of the following:

  • a) The Operator

  • b) The Flight Engineer

  • c) Commander

  • d) The Authority

Explanation

Question 51 of 93

1

17-18.2) What must the commander ensure that all those on the flight deck are familiar with?

Select one of the following:

  • a) Check list

  • b) Standard operating procedures (SOPs)

  • c) Contents of the Operations manual

  • d) Safety procedures

Explanation

Question 52 of 93

1

17-18.3) Which statement is most correct with regard to the use of fire extinguishers?

Select one of the following:

  • a) CO2 is best used in a cargo airplane on cargo fires

  • b) Water is the best used on small fires

  • c) Halon is the best used on fires within the passenger compartment

  • d) Dry powder is the best used on cockpit fires

Explanation

Question 53 of 93

1

17-18.4) In case of an engine exhaust pipe (tailpipe) fire while on the ground, you should abort the starting procedure and:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Put the fire shut off handle and trigger the engine fire extinguishers

  • b) Fight the nozzle fire with a water fire extinguisher

  • c) Carry out a dry cranking

  • d) Carry out a dump cranking

Explanation

Question 54 of 93

1

17-18.5) A hand water fire extinguisher should be used on a fire of:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Paper, fabric, carpet

  • b) Metals

  • c) Flammable gases

  • d) Flammable liquids

Explanation

Question 55 of 93

1

17-18.6) Apart from fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is tipically located on board

Select one of the following:

  • a) Crash axes or crowbars

  • b) Water and all type of beverage

  • c) A hydraulic winch and a big box of tools

  • d) A big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets

Explanation

Question 56 of 93

1

17-18.7) What items for use in firefighting would you expect to see close to a fire extinguisher?

Select one of the following:

  • a) Axe

  • b) Gloves

  • c) Breathing equipment

  • d) All of the above

Explanation

Question 57 of 93

1

17-18.8) If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the initial action to be taken by the flight deck crew is to:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Determine the origin of the smoke

  • b) Start an emergency descend

  • c) Put on the oxygen masks and goggles

  • d) Cut off all air conditioning units

Explanation

Question 58 of 93

1

19.1) Due to risk of tire explosion, after landing, when the breaks are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear

Select one of the following:

  • a) From any direction

  • b) Sidewards

  • c) Either from the front or the rear

  • d) From the inboard side

Explanation

Question 59 of 93

1

19.2) Following a heavy mass landing on a short RWY, you should check:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Temperature of the hydraulic fluid

  • b) Pressure of the hydraulic fluid

  • c) Pressure of the pneumatic tires

  • d) Temperature of the breaks

Explanation

Question 60 of 93

1

19.3) In the case of overheating of the breaks following the landing, the appropriate acton at the parking position is:
1) Set parking brake on
2) Set parking break off, with chokes in position
3) Spray water on the breaks
4) Ventilate the breaks

Select one of the following:

  • a) 2, 4

  • b) 2, 3

  • c) 1, 3

  • d) 1, 4

Explanation

Question 61 of 93

1

19.4) A warning device alerts the crew in case if excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude

Select one of the following:

  • a) 10.000fts

  • b) 14.000fts

  • c) 8.000fts

  • d) 12.000fts

Explanation

Question 62 of 93

1

19.5) Following an explosive decompression at FL370, your first action will be:

Select one of the following:

  • a) To put on the oxygen mask

  • b) To set the transponder to 7700

  • c) To warn the ATC

  • d) To comfort your passengers

Explanation

Question 63 of 93

1

19.6) A rapid decompression may be caused by:
1) A leak in a door seal during normal pressurized flight
2) Loss of cabin compartment window
3) Malfunction of all pressurization systems
4) Loss of a cargo-hold door

Select one of the following:

  • a) 1, 3

  • b) 1, 2, 3, 4

  • c) 2, 4

  • d) 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Question 64 of 93

1

19.7) Gradual decompression is caused by:
1) Window leak
2) Door leak
3) Window blown
4) Emergency escape hatch open

Select one of the following:

  • a) 1, 2

  • b) 1, 2, 3, 4

  • c) 3, 4

  • d) 2, 3

Explanation

Question 65 of 93

1

19.8) What would be evident during a rapid decompression?
1) Violent rush of gas from lungs
2) Expansion of body gases
3) Blast of air to the exterior
4) Mist in the cabin

Select one of the following:

  • a) 1, 2, 3, 4

  • b) 1, 2, 4

  • c) 2, 3, 4

  • d) 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Question 66 of 93

1

20.1) The Windshear is:

Select one of the following:

  • a) A vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance

  • b) A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance

  • c) A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction variation over a short distance

  • d) A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction variation over a large distance

Explanation

Question 67 of 93

1

20.2) To counter the effects of windshear, the amount of control action that is required is:

Select one of the following:

  • a) medium

  • b) small

  • c) substantial

  • d) none

Explanation

Question 68 of 93

1

20.3) What do you do in a microburst?
1) Apply engine power
2) Retract speed breaks
3) Retract flaps and gear
4) Retract all drag devices
5) Pitch up to steak shaker

Select one of the following:

  • a) 1, 3, 5

  • b) 1, 4, 5

  • c) 1, 2, 5

  • d) 2, 3, 5

Explanation

Question 69 of 93

1

20.4) In the “worst case” scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in coordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Reduce speed to V2 and hold

  • b) Climb away at Vat+20

  • c) Increase the pitch angle until the steak shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angle

  • d) Slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb

Explanation

Question 70 of 93

1

20.5) While approaching the outer marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a microburst. You will expect to encounter:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Windshear (vertical and horizontal)

  • b) Wake turbulence

  • c) Supercooled water

  • d) Convention motion of air mass

Explanation

Question 71 of 93

1

20.6) Wake turbulence is created by:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Behind high buildings less than 300 m from the RWY

  • b) The wingtips of heavy aircraft during the T/O and landing

  • c) Cumulonimbus clouds

  • d) Wind forces greater than 50 Kts

Explanation

Question 72 of 93

1

20.7) When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar time minimum approach separation is shall be:

Select one of the following:

  • a) 1 minute

  • b) 2 minute

  • c) 3 minute

  • d) 4 minute

Explanation

Question 73 of 93

1

20.8) What is the weight range for medium category aircraft?

Select one of the following:

  • a) 5.700kg to 100.000kg

  • b) 7.000 kg to 136.000kg

  • c) 5.700kg to 136.000kg

  • d) 7.001kg to 135.999kg

Explanation

Question 74 of 93

1

20.9) The wake turbulence:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices

  • b) Starts as soon as the airplane is running for T/O and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing

  • c) Starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing

  • d) Starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplanes wheels touch the ground

Explanation

Question 75 of 93

1

20.10) To avoid the wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Below and downwind from the larger aircraft

  • b) Above and downwind from the larger aircraft

  • c) Above and upwind the larger aircraft

  • d) Below and upwind the larger aircraft

Explanation

Question 76 of 93

1

21.1) If installed, the flight crew compartment door of all aircraft operated for the purpose of carrying passengers shall be capable of being:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment

  • b) Locked from within the compartment

  • c) Directly locked from outside the compartment

  • d) Remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment

Explanation

Question 77 of 93

1

21.2) What transponder code should be used by the commander of an aircraft to provide recognition that the aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference (hijack)

Select one of the following:

  • a) Code 7700

  • b) Code 7600

  • c) Code 7500

  • d) Code 2000

Explanation

Question 78 of 93

1

21.3) In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board pressurized aircraft and disregarding fuel considerations:

Select one of the following:

  • a) You descend to the FL corresponding the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.

  • b) You carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude

  • c) You limb to the maximum flight level which does not need to the use of pressurization

  • d) You go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in clean configuration until the final approach

Explanation

Question 79 of 93

1

21.4) What is the evacuation time for an airplane with 149 seats?

Select one of the following:

  • a) 60 sec

  • b) 90 sec

  • c) 120 sec

  • d) 132 sec

Explanation

Question 80 of 93

1

21.5) The ICAO rules governing flight over water for a single engine airplane engaged in the public transport of passengers:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Limits such flights to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails

  • b) Does not permit such flight in any circumstances

  • c) Limits flight to up to 10 min flying time to the nearest shore

  • d) Limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore

Explanation

Question 81 of 93

1

21.6) Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will:
1) Remain on the RWY
2) Clear the RWY using the first available taxiway
3) Keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical supply on
4) Turn off all the systems

Select one of the following:

  • a) 2, 3

  • b) 1, 3

  • c) 1, 4

  • d) 2, 4

Explanation

Question 82 of 93

1

21.7) The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

Select one of the following:

  • a) An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonable expect no injuries on board

  • b) A landing on land or sea from which is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants

  • c) A voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants

  • d) An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonable expect no injuries on board or on the surface

Explanation

Question 83 of 93

1

22.1) In what period of time must a jettisoning fuel system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the specified approach and landing climb performance requirements?

Select one of the following:

  • a) 15 min

  • b) 30 min

  • c) 60 min

  • d) 90 min

Explanation

Question 84 of 93

1

22.2) If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Under FL50

  • b) In a holding stack, after control clearance

  • c) In a straight line at a relatively high level

  • d) During final phase of approach

Explanation

Question 85 of 93

1

22.3) During the certification flight teat regarding fuel jettisoning must be shown that:
1) Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard
2) The fuel discharges clear from any part of the airplane
3) Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the airplane
4) Fuel jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability f the airplane

Select one of the following:

  • a) 1, 3, 4

  • b) 1, 2, 3, 4

  • c) 1, 4

  • d) 2, 3

Explanation

Question 86 of 93

1

22.4) The regulation for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in:

Select one of the following:

  • a) ICAO Annex 8

  • b) ICAO Annex 18

  • c) The Washington convention

  • d) ICAO Annex 17

Explanation

Question 87 of 93

1

22.5) As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damage during its loading, you:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Accept it after visual inspection

  • b) Mention it on the notification to captain

  • c) Ensure the arrangements are made for its removal

  • d) Mention it on the shipper´s declaration

Explanation

Question 88 of 93

1

22.6) Which of the following items, required to be on board an aircraft for operating reasons in accordance with the relevant OPS regulations, are classified as dangerous goods?
1) Fire extinguishers
2) Self-initiating life jackets
3) Portable oxygen supplies
4) First-aid kits

Select one of the following:

  • a) 1, 2, 3, 4

  • b) 1, 3, 4

  • c) 1, 3

  • d) 2, 4

Explanation

Question 89 of 93

1

22.7) Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of the state, which language must be used on transport documentin addition to any other language?

Select one of the following:

  • a) Spanish

  • b) French

  • c) English

  • d) English, Spanish, French, Russian, Chinese

Explanation

Question 90 of 93

1

22.8) What are Class 6 dangerous goods?

Select one of the following:

  • a) Explosives

  • b) Toxic

  • c) Radioactive

  • d) Flammable liquids

Explanation

Question 91 of 93

1

22.9) In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Increase your approach speed and land firmly and immediately land the nose gear

  • b) Increase your approach speed and land softly and keep up the nose gear

  • c) Decrease your approach speed and land firmly and immediately land the nose gear

  • d) Decrease your approach speed and land softly and keep up the nose gear

Explanation

Question 92 of 93

1

22.10) A RWY is considered damp when:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give a shiny appearance

  • b) Surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance

  • c) It is covered with a film of water of less than 3mm

  • d) It is covered with a film of water of less than 1mm

Explanation

Question 93 of 93

1

22.11) When there is a risk of hydroplaning, the pilot:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Should make a positive landing, apply maximum reverse thrust and start braking as soon as possible

  • b) Should use maximum reverse thrust, however should start braking below the hydroplaning speed

  • c) Should use normal landing, braking and reverse technique

  • d) Must wait for landing until the risk for hydroplaning is no longer exists.

Explanation

Previous
Check answer
Next