MCQ EOS 2016 Formative

Question 1 of 80

1

In order for a child to have blood type AB:

Select one of the following:

both parents must be blood type O
both parents must be blood type AB
one parent can be type O, if the other is type AB
one parent must be blood type A and the other blood type B
one parent must be able to contribute an A-type and one parent a B-type allele

Explanation

Question 2 of 80

1

All of the following are thought to be risk factors for spina bifida, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Valproic acid and carbamazepine
Pregestational maternal diabetes
Inadequate maternal intake of folic acid
High maternal alcohol intake in the first trimester
Past history of affected pregnancy with the same partner

Explanation

Question 3 of 80

1

Hypertension is a risk factor for the following disease:

Select one of the following:

Spina bifida
Diverticulitis
Hyperlipidaemia
Colorectal cancer
Chronic kidney disease

Explanation

Question 4 of 80

1

In conditions associated with aneuploidy, the genetic defect:

Select one of the following:

may only involve a single gene
is caused by over replication of DNA during meiosis I
results in a phenotype incompatible with survival beyond childhood
results when one copy of a chromosome fails to separate from another
is found only in genotypes of individuals with additional copies of chromosomes

Explanation

Question 5 of 80

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 6 of 80

1

Cost benefit analysis has been used in some countries as a justification for withholding health resources from those with permanent incapacity or terminal illness. This approach to resource allocation is claimed to promote the most benefit to most people. Which ethical theory BEST describes this justification in the allocation of public health resources.

Select one of the following:

Utilitarianism
Deontology
Virtue Ethics
Principlism
Phenomenology

Explanation

Question 7 of 80

1

In gametogenesis, crossing over of chromosomes occurs:

Select one of the following:

before germ cells divide in meiosis I
as the result of cell division in meiosis II
via a process that favours replication of dominant alleles
in order to reduce the number of chromosomes from 2n to n
in such a way that non-homologous rearrangements never happen

Explanation

Question 8 of 80

1

A good screening test needs to have high:

Select one of the following:

sensitivity
specificity
diagnostic accuracy
positive predictive value
negative predictive value

Explanation

Question 9 of 80

1

A 38 year old mother presents to you at 11 weeks pregnant. Which of the following best fits the definition of a screening test for a Down syndrome fetus?

Select one of the following:

Amniocentesis
Nuchal translucency test
Second trimester foetal morphology ultrasound
Checking for a family history of Downs syndrome
A blood test for chromosome analysis of the mother

Explanation

Question 10 of 80

1

Streptococcus pneumoniae can reasonably be characterised by:

Select one of the following:

staining gram positive
being identified with Ziehl Neelsen stain
typically being transmitted via modes that involve contact with or contamination by faeces
successful treatment with drugs that are preferentially activated by the microbe and, once activated, inhibit DNA polymerase in the microbe
being the most common microbe in urinary tract infections and generally treatable with trimethoprim or a quinolone, such as ciprofloxacin

Explanation

Question 11 of 80

1

Herpes simplex can reasonably be characterised by:

Select one of the following:

staining gram positive
being identified with Ziehl Neelsen stain
typically being transmitted via modes that involve contact with or contamination by faeces
successful treatment with drugs that are preferentially activated by the microbe and, once activated, inhibit DNA polymerase in the microbe
being the most common microbe in urinary tract infections and generally treatable with trimethoprim or a quinolone, such as ciprofloxacin

Explanation

Question 12 of 80

1

Both Escherichia coli and Vibrio cholera can reasonably be characterised by:

Select one of the following:

staining gram positive
being identified with Ziehl Neelsen stain
typically being transmitted via modes that involve contact with or contamination by faeces
successful treatment with drugs that are preferentially activated by the microbe and, once activated, inhibit DNA polymerase in the microbe
being the most common microbe in urinary tract infections and generally treatable with trimethoprim or a quinolone, such as ciprofloxacin

Explanation

Question 13 of 80

1

Mycobacterium tuberculosis can reasonably be characterised by:

Select one of the following:

staining gram positive
being identified with Ziehl Neelsen stain
typically being transmitted via modes that involve contact with or contamination by faeces
successful treatment with drugs that are preferentially activated by the microbe and, once activated, inhibit DNA polymerase in the microbe
being the most common microbe in urinary tract infections and generally treatable with trimethoprim or a quinolone, such as ciprofloxacin

Explanation

Question 14 of 80

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 15 of 80

1

The National Vision for primary health care has, as one of its MAIN priorities

Select one of the following:

Complex case management
Evidence based general practice
Improved access to hospital care
Increased focus on tertiary prevention
Reduced inequity in health outcomes for all

Explanation

Question 16 of 80

1

In the blastocyst, the:

Select one of the following:

trophoblast is destined to become the fetus
blastocoele is destined to become the fetus
trophoblast is destined to become the inner cell mass
trophoblast is destined to become the fetal portion of the placenta
blastocoele serves the functions of the digestive system, lungs, and kidneys for the fetus

Explanation

Question 17 of 80

1

You are considering working for the World Health Organisation in a socially and economically disadvantaged developing region where there is a tuberculosis epidemic. Your specific brief is to address the social determinants of health through tuberculosis control programs . Which of the following should you address as part of your brief?

Select one of the following:

Co-existing illnesses
Medication supplies
Crowded housing conditions
Evidence based medical care
Community health professional training

Explanation

Question 18 of 80

1

Drug X is said to be a competitive antagonist of neurotransmitter Y. This necessarily means that:

Select one of the following:

X decreases the affinity between Y and its receptors.
X decreases the rate of the biosynthesis or biotransformation of Y.
X and Y activate different intracellular (second messenger) signaling systems.
In the presence of X, the concentration of Y has to be higher than it does in the absence of X to achieve the same effect.
In the presence of X, the maximum effect achievable by Y is decreased, but the concentration required for half-maximal effect remains the same.

Explanation

Question 19 of 80

1

One of the advantages of high risk population approaches to blood pressure control in comparison to population wide interventions is that high risk population approaches:

Select one of the following:

Don’t need to involve the medical system
Are not reliant on individual behaviour change
Have a greater benefit to risk ratio for each individual
Are not reliant on an arbitrary ‘cut off’ of blood pressure values
Tend to be more costly compared to population wide approaches

Explanation

Question 20 of 80

1

Which of the following sets of blood gas data would be MOST LIKELY found in a patient whose lungs had fluid in them, compromising oxygen and carbon dioxide diffusion between the alveoli and the capillaries (relative to normal):

Select one of the following:

low CO2; high O2; low pH
high CO2; low O2; low pH
normal CO2; low O2; low pH
low CO2; low O2; normal pH
high CO2; normal O2; low pH

Explanation

Question 21 of 80

1

Which of the following lifestyle change would MOST benefit a patient in terms of modifying hyperlipidaemia?

Select one of the following:

Restrict salt
Reduce stress
Increase monitoring of lipids
Decrease saturated fats in diet
Increase dietary sources of potassium

Explanation

Question 22 of 80

1

The replication and persistence of Herpes simplex virus adhere to which of the following patterns?

Select one of the following:

The virus persists only in immunosuppressed individuals.
Infection usually involves sensory nerve ganglia throughout the whole body.
Reactivations cause progressive death of neurons, finally leading to muscle paralysis.
Replication occurs initially in the respiratory tract, with later dissemination to the eyes causing conjunctivitis.
Virus replication in the epidermis leads to cell damage and an inflammatory infiltrate, with the appearance of localized small vesicles.

Explanation

Question 23 of 80

1

Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?

Select one of the following:

Mammography
An arthritis self-management Program
Immunisation for communicable disease
Foot care education for a diabetic patient
Community based smoking cessation programs

Explanation

Question 24 of 80

1

Of the following, the most common microbe in urinary tract infections, which is generally treatable with trimethoprim or a quinolone, such as ciprofloxacin is:

Select one of the following:

Vibrio cholorae
Herpes simplex
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 25 of 80

1

Of the following, the microbe that secretes a toxin, which activates the same intracellular (second messenger) in its target cells as adrenaline does in its target cells via β-adrenergic stimulation is:

Select one of the following:

Vibrio cholorae
Herpes simplex
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 26 of 80

1

Of the following, the microbe that reproduces by having its DNA replicated in infected cells is:

Select one of the following:

Vibrio cholorae
Herpes simplex
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 27 of 80

1

Of the following, the microbe whose resistance to antibiotics is partly due to the presence of lipids anchored in its cell wall is:

Select one of the following:

Vibrio cholorae
Herpes simplex
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 28 of 80

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 29 of 80

1

The MOST important reason for initiating quarantining activities is to:

Select one of the following:

ensure the patient is given specialised care, if needed
apply public health measures to prevent further spread
collect data for national communicable disease surveillance systems
gather detailed histories about the clinical signs and symptoms of rare communicable diseases
enable a safe and systematic collection of information about contacts and recent travel history

Explanation

Question 30 of 80

1

In an abscess, necrosis develops due to the effects of:

Select one of the following:

low pH
ischaemia
cytotoxic killer cells
lysosomal enzymes
increased intracellular sodium

Explanation

Question 31 of 80

1

Secondary hypertension in a patient with a tumour in her adrenal medulla MOST LIKELY involves:

Select one of the following:

expansion of the blood volume
stimulation of nicotinic receptors
stimulation of glucocorticoid receptors
stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors
stimulation of mineralocorticoid receptors

Explanation

Question 32 of 80

1

Sandra, 29, presents to you following a recent visit to Thailand. She is complaining of severe diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, nausea and bloating. She says that it commenced shortly after arriving home. When taking a travel history from Sandra, it is MOST important that you ask Sandra about:

Select one of the following:

Sudden weight loss
Usual sexual practices
Foods consumed whilst away
Alcohol intake whilst travelling
Medications taken during travels

Explanation

Question 33 of 80

1

Which of the following human diseases is covered by the Quarantine Act and are therefore subject to quarantine laws in Australia?

Select one of the following:

Smallpox
Diphtheria
Q fever disease
Listeria
Rotavirus

Explanation

Question 34 of 80

1

The results of a screening test for adolescent depression are compared to depression designated by the DSM 4 criteria (the ‘gold standard’ in this example).

What proportion of people with depression does the screening test correctly identify?

Select one of the following:

90/100
90/360
10/400
390/660
480/760

Explanation

Question 35 of 80

1

Which of the following diseases is vaccine preventable?

Select one of the following:

Whooping cough
Hepatitis C
HIV
Orolabial herpes
Glandular fever

Explanation

Question 36 of 80

1

According to the Frank-Starling law of the heart, the primary determinant of ventricular output is:

Select one of the following:

heart rate
arterial pressure
ventricular preload
coronary blood flow
AV node conduction

Explanation

Question 37 of 80

1

Australia has been at the forefront of a unique approach to drug policy and practice known as ‘harm minimisation’. Which of the following BEST describes the strategy of ‘harm minimisation’?

Select one of the following:

A strategy aimed to address the harmful effects of drugs on the individual
A national public health strategy that addressed the environmental sources of drug use
A strategy aimed at the reduction in harm from drugs, supply of drugs and demand for drugs
A strategy built on community development programs to prevent the uptake of harmful drug use
the drug and environmental factors.

Explanation

Question 38 of 80

1

Everything else being equal, the lowest respiration rate (breaths per minute) would MOST LIKELY be found in a patient who has:

Select one of the following:

angina and who is panicking
heroin overdose and about to get naloxone
pneumonia and about to get an intravenous antibiotic
iron-deficiency anaemia and about to get a blood transfusion
type 1 diabetes mellitus and about to get insulin for the first time in three days

Explanation

Question 39 of 80

1

Everything else being equal, the slowest heart rate (beats per minute) would MOST LIKELY be found in a patient who has:

Select one of the following:

been taking excessive glyceryl trinitrate for chest pain
iron-deficiency anaemia and about to get a blood transfusion
carbon monoxide poisoning and about to get 100% oxygen to inhale
extracellular fluid volume loss and who is about to get intravenous saline
been poisoned with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and is about to get atropine

Explanation

Question 40 of 80

1

Which of the following proteins is secreted by plasma cells?

Select one of the following:

IgD
IgE
CD4
CD8
erythropoietin

Explanation

Question 41 of 80

1

Which one of the following diseases currently contributes to the burden of illness in Australia, and is classified as a National Health Priority area?

Select one of the following:

Diabetes
Hyperlipidaemia
Childhood Influenza
Mild cognitive impairment
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Explanation

Question 42 of 80

1

An example of tertiary prevention is:

Select one of the following:

Vector control
Tax on tobacco products
Fluoridation of drinking water
HEEADSSS assessment for adolescents
Cardiac rehabilitation post-myocardial infarction

Explanation

Question 43 of 80

1

Optimum time for sexual intercourse that will result in pregnancy MOST LIKELY corresponds to:

Select one of the following:

2 days after peak estradiol concentrations during the menstrual cycle
2 days after peak progesterone concentrations during the menstrual cycle
2 days after the endometrium reaches its thinnest during the menstrual cycle
2 days before peak luteinising hormone concentrations during the menstrual cycle
2 days before peak follicle-stimulating hormone concentrations during the menstrual cycle

Explanation

Question 44 of 80

1

An example of primary prevention is:

Select one of the following:

Syphilis serology in pregnant women
Air quality guidelines and monitoring
Rehabilitation programme after stroke
The national breast screening programme
Benzanthine penicillin monthly following rheumatic fever

Explanation

Question 45 of 80

1

Which of the following processes is MOST LIKELY to predispose a patient with a history of acid reflux to the development of adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus?

Select one of the following:

atypia
apoptosis
neoplasia
metaplasia
hyperplasia

Explanation

Question 46 of 80

1

Marie, aged 30, attends your general practice with a cold, and you note that she smokes. She has never thought about quitting, and is keen to leave. You have just one minute to prompt discussion around smoking with a question. Which of the following questions is the most appropriate ‘brief intervention’?

Select one of the following:

Do you know much about e-cigarettes?
Has anyone in your family had lung cancer?
Would you prefer a patch or tablet to help you quit?
Have you considered switching to low tar cigarettes?
Can you see any benefits, if you were to quit smoking?

Explanation

Question 47 of 80

1

clinical reasoning
Which of the following is the definition of a representative heuristic in diagnostic clinical pattern recognition?

Select one of the following:

the tendency to seek out data to confirm one’s original idea
the tendency to stay with an original diagnosis despite evidence to the contrary
the tendency to use mental matching to diagnose conditions with characteristic presentation
the tendency to be biased by previous diagnoses or factors that lead to framing in the wrong context
the tendency to narrow the choice of diagnostic possibilities too early in the diagnostic process

Explanation

Question 48 of 80

1

Which of the following organisms has been commonly linked to cruise ship outbreaks?

Select one of the following:

Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Norovirus
Human herpes virus 6
Bordetella pertussis
Streptococcus pyogenes

Explanation

Question 49 of 80

1

45% 0.04
The MOST LIKELY finding in a tissue at early stage granulation is:

Select one of the following:

scar tissue
collagen formation
proliferation of fibroblasts
recruitment of inflammatory cells
scattered formation of blood vessels

Explanation

Question 50 of 80

1

Questions 50 to 51 (2 questions) are based on the following clinical scenario: A pleasant 45 year-old woman presents to the clinic with shortness of breath, chest pain and a mild fever (38.2o C). She is diagnosed and treated as a case of upper respiratory tract infection. Two days later, she returns to the clinic, worried, with no improvement. She is again sent home, with a course of antibiotics. On the following day, she is admitted to hospital and dies of pulmonary embolism.

The most significant contribution to this diagnostic error was LIKELY:

Select one of the following:

affect error
framing error
confirmation bias
anchoring heuristic
availability heuristic

Explanation

Question 51 of 80

1

Questions 50 to 51 (2 questions) are based on the following clinical scenario: A pleasant 45 year-old woman presents to the clinic with shortness of breath, chest pain and a mild fever (38.2o C). She is diagnosed and treated as a case of upper respiratory tract infection. Two days later, she returns to the clinic, worried, with no improvement. She is again sent home, with a course of antibiotics. On the following day, she is admitted to hospital and dies of pulmonary embolism.

Clinical Reasoning
If this case occurred during a winter influenza epidemic, the decision to consider pulmonary embolism would have been complicated by the addition of which of the following?

Select one of the following:

affect error
framing error
confirmation bias
anchoring heuristic
availability heuristic

Explanation

Question 52 of 80

1

Which of the following drugs would you use to dissolve a thrombus blocking a patient’s left anterior descending coronary artery? One that:

Select one of the following:

activates vitamin K
activates fibrinogen
activates plasminogen
increases activity of antithrombin III
decreases international normalised ratio (INR)

Explanation

Question 53 of 80

1

Which of the following drugs could you use to keep the patient from developing thrombi after you successfully dissolved the thrombus in his coronary artery? One that:

Select one of the following:

activates vitamin K
activates fibrinogen
activates plasminogen
increases activity of antithrombin III
e) decreases international normalised ratio (INR)

Explanation

Question 54 of 80

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 55 of 80

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 56 of 80

1

In a normal, healthy subject, which of the following single actions is LIKELY to result in the biggest decrease in the volume of intracellular fluid?

Select one of the following:

intramuscular injection of insulin
loss of 300 ml isotonic stool as diarrhoea
production of 300 ml urine (600 mOsm/L)
oral ingestion of 300 ml sea water (3.5% NaCl)
intravenous infusion of 300 ml sterile isotonic (0.9%) saline

Explanation

Question 57 of 80

1

The normal physiological response to a perceived decrease in arterial pressure at the arterial baroreceptors includes DECREASED:

Select one of the following:

osmolarity of urine
vascular resistance
renal sodium reabsorption
hydrostatic pressure in capillaries
activity of the sympathetic nervous system

Explanation

Question 58 of 80

1

When an individual expands her extracellular fluid volume by increasing her intake of sodium, the homeostatic response mechanisms by which the excess sodium is excreted includes:

Select one of the following:

decreased afferent neuronal signaling from baroreceptors
decreased plasma osmolarity inhibiting secretion of ADH (vasopressin)
increased plasma sodium concentration stimulating secretion of aldosterone
increased extracellular fluid volume generating a physiological error signal that diminishes as sodium is excreted
increased intracellular sodium concentration leading to increased diffusion down a concentration gradient into tubule fluid in the kidney

Explanation

Question 59 of 80

1

The type of inflammation MOST LIKELY to occur in burns of the skin is:

Select one of the following:

serous
purulent
fibrinous
suppurate
granulomatous

Explanation

Question 60 of 80

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 61 of 80

1

Multiple small tumour deposits on the inferior surface of the liver in a patient with high-grade serous carcinoma of the ovary MOST LIKELY got there via:

Select one of the following:

direct spread
lymphatic spread
perineural invasion
transcoelomic spread
haematogenous spread

Explanation

Question 62 of 80

1

All germ cells and some cancer cells share which of the following characteristics?

Select one of the following:

constant replication
loss of DNA repair genes
active telomerase activity
suppressed apoptotic activity
haploid number of chromosomes

Explanation

Question 63 of 80

1

A systemic, sympathetic, ‘fight or flight’ response MOST LIKELY includes:

Select one of the following:

sweating, paling or flushing and stimulation of stomach activity
increased respiratory rate and constriction of blood vessels for skeletal muscles
increased plasma glucose and relaxation of smooth muscle in the urinary bladder
increased autonomic efferent activity in sacral nerves and increased cardiac contractility
increased adenylate cyclase activity in all adrenergic target cells and decreased plasma renin activity

Explanation

Question 64 of 80

1

Which of the following drugs is MOST LIKELY to result in increased postsynaptic activity at neuromuscular junctions?

Select one of the following:

verapamil, which blocks calcium channels
lignocaine, which blocks sodium channels
neostigmine, which is a competitive inhibitor of acetylcholine esterase
botox, which blocks fusion of exocytotic vesicles with plasma membranes
diazepam, which hyperpolarises neurons that have receptors for gamma-aminobutyric acid

Explanation

Question 65 of 80

1

The enzyme responsible for the formation of angiotensin I (Ang I) is:

Select one of the following:

renin
angiotensinase
angiotensinogen
angiotensin synthase
angiotensin-converting enzyme

Explanation

Question 66 of 80

1

Which of the following is a clinical feature of haemolytic anaemia?

Select one of the following:

normal levels of serum bilirubin
increased serum conjugated bilirubin
decreased serum conjugated bilirubin
increased serum unconjugated bilirubin
decreased serum unconjugated bilirubin

Explanation

Question 67 of 80

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 68 of 80

1

A feature that distinguishes screening tests from diagnostic tests is that screening tests are:

Select one of the following:

More affordable than diagnostic tests
Conducted on people who have symptoms
Likely to have a higher overall test accuracy
More likely to have a high false positive rate
More likely to have a high true negative rate

Explanation

Question 69 of 80

1

A 26 year old triathlete has been trying unsuccessfully to conceive and you suspect that she may have a relatively common problem among female athletes, which is the failure to ovulate. Which of the following findings would be MOST CONSISTENT with her having ovulated in the last three days?

Select one of the following:

her endometrium is thinner than it was seven days ago
her body temperature is lower than it was seven days ago
the concentration of progesterone in her plasma is lower than it was seven days ago
her cervical mucus is less abundant and thicker and stickier than it was seven days ago
the concentration of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in her plasma is higher than it was seven days ago

Explanation

Question 70 of 80

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 71 of 80

1

Which of the following diseases is subject to quarantine under the Australian Notifiable Diseases Surveillance system?

Select one of the following:

Cholera
Hepatitis C
Legionnaires disease
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Glandular fever

Explanation

Question 72 of 80

1

A common feature between fasting/starvation and poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus is:

Select one of the following:

increased glycogen formation by the liver
the use of ketoacids as metabolic fuel for cells
decreased function of pancreatic α- (or A-) cells
an elevated concentration of glucose in the plasma
excess production of oxaloacetic acid in the Krebs (TCA) cycle

Explanation

Question 73 of 80

1

Alfred, aged 56, attends your general practice for an unrelated condition and you note his blood pressure is somewhat high, at 155/90. The most usual next step would be:

Select one of the following:

Recheck his BP preferably on a separate occasion
Commence an antihypertensive medication
Order an echocardiogram
Examine Alfred to rule out a stroke
Ensure Alfred rests more over the next few days until you can repeat his BP

Explanation

Question 74 of 80

1

The best place to assist with notifiable diseases is the nearest:

Select one of the following:

emergency department
police station
public health unit
hospital
laboratory

Explanation

Question 75 of 80

1

A woman and man present for pre-pregnancy advice. The family history includes Huntington’s disease, an autosomal dominant condition, on the man’s side. The man is heterozygous for the gene product huntingtin and the woman is unaffected. The probability of inheritance of Huntington’s disease is:

Select one of the following:

0% in male and 0% in female children
25% in male and 0% in female children
25% in male and 25% in female children
50% in male and 25% in female children
50% in male and 50% in female children

Explanation

Question 76 of 80

1

Australia is a signatory to many of the international documents, such as the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) that enshrine a recognised right to health. Which one of the following responses accurately represents an action that can be taken against Australia should Australia be found to have breached the right to health:

Select one of the following:

Australia can be made to adopt a National Strategy to prevent any further breaches.
The Australian government can be forced to pay a fine.
Australia’s actions can be condemned by the United Nations.
Australia can be made to build more hospitals.
Nothing because Australia is part of the Commonwealth.

Explanation

Question 77 of 80

1

An unconscious patient with pinpoint pupils, slow breathing and a normal heart rate will MOST LIKELY benefit from treatment with:

Select one of the following:

insulin
atropine
naloxone
adrenaline
a blood transfusion

Explanation

Question 78 of 80

1

An unconscious patient with urticaria, swollen lips, very difficult breathing due to bronchoconstriction and a rapid heart rate will MOST LIKELY benefit from treatment with:

Select one of the following:

insulin
atropine
naloxone
adrenaline
a blood transfusion

Explanation

Question 79 of 80

1

A normal subject loses 1 litre of sweat containing 60 mOsm (milliosmoles) of NaCl. In terms of changes to extracellular fluid volume (ECF), intracellular fluid volume (ICF) and osmolarity:

Select one of the following:

only ICF will contract
only ECF will contract
plasma osmolarity will decrease
ECF and ICF will both contract, but ICF will contract more than ECF
ECF and ICF will both contract, but ECF will contract more than ICF

Explanation

Question 80 of 80

1

An untreated patient with which one of the following conditions is MOST LIKELY to present with (relative to a healthy individual) normal to high arterial partial pressure of oxygen, low arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide and increased arterial pH?

Select one of the following:

diabetic ketoacidosis
carbon monoxide poisoning
a patient in anaphylactic shock
severe iron-deficiency anaemia
a panic attack and who is hyperventilating

	Created by James Wilson about 4 years ago

MCQ EOS 2016 Formative - File is named 2017 ISM Formative MCQ

MCQ EOS 2016 Formative

MCQ EOS 2016 Formative

Question 1 of 80

In order for a child to have blood type AB:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 80

All of the following are thought to be risk factors for spina bifida, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 80

Hypertension is a risk factor for the following disease:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 80

In conditions associated with aneuploidy, the genetic defect:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 80

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 80

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 80

In gametogenesis, crossing over of chromosomes occurs:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 80

A good screening test needs to have high:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 80

A 38 year old mother presents to you at 11 weeks pregnant. Which of the following best fits the definition of a screening test for a Down syndrome fetus?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 80

Streptococcus pneumoniae can reasonably be characterised by:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 80

Herpes simplex can reasonably be characterised by:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 80

Both Escherichia coli and Vibrio cholera can reasonably be characterised by:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 80

Mycobacterium tuberculosis can reasonably be characterised by:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 80

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 80

The National Vision for primary health care has, as one of its MAIN priorities

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 80

In the blastocyst, the:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 80

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 80

Drug X is said to be a competitive antagonist of neurotransmitter Y. This necessarily means that:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 80

One of the advantages of high risk population approaches to blood pressure control in comparison to population wide interventions is that high risk population approaches:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 80

Which of the following sets of blood gas data would be MOST LIKELY found in a patient whose lungs had fluid in them, compromising oxygen and carbon dioxide diffusion between the alveoli and the capillaries (relative to normal):

Select one of the following:

The results of a screening test for adolescent depression are compared to depression designated by the DSM 4 criteria (the ‘gold standard’ in this example).

What proportion of people with depression does the screening test correctly identify?