MCQ EOS June 2018 Formative

Question 1 of 112

1

Drug X is said to be more potent than drug Y. Therefore, drug X produces a:

Select one of the following:

quicker effect than drug Y
longer lasting effect than drug Y
greater maximum effect than drug Y
similar effect at a lower EC50 than drug Y
greater area under the curve effect than drug Y

Explanation

Question 2 of 112

1

A 38 year old mother presents to you at 11 weeks pregnant. Which of the following best fits the definition of a screening test for a Down syndrome fetus?

Select one of the following:

Amniocentesis
Nuchal translucency test
Second trimester foetal morphology ultrasound
Checking for a family history of Downs syndrome
A blood test for chromosome analysis of the mother

Explanation

Question 3 of 112

1

A good screening test needs to have high:

Select one of the following:

sensitivity
specificity
diagnostic accuracy
positive predictive value
negative predictive value

Explanation

Question 4 of 112

1

In conditions associated with aneuploidy, which of the following describes the genetic defect? It:

Select one of the following:

may only involve a single gene
is caused by over replication of DNA during meiosis I
results in a phenotype incompatible with survival beyond childhood
results when one copy of a chromosome fails to separate from another
is found only in genotypes of individuals with additional copies of chromosomes

Explanation

Question 5 of 112

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 6 of 112

1

Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?

Select one of the following:

Mammography
An arthritis self-management Program
Immunisation for communicable disease
Foot care education for a diabetic patient
Community based smoking cessation programs

Explanation

Question 7 of 112

1

Which of the following is the reason individuals with AB-positive blood type are considered the universal recipients? It is because they:

Select one of the following:

are congenitally immunosuppressed
only make antibodies against type O antigens
have no antigens on the surface of their erythrocytes
have both A and B antigens on the surface of their erythrocytes
have unique antigens on the surface of their erythrocytes compared to individuals with other ABO blood types

Explanation

Question 8 of 112

1

One of the advantages of high risk population approaches to blood pressure control in comparison to population wide interventions is that high risk population approaches:

Select one of the following:

Don’t need to involve the medical system
Are not reliant on individual behaviour change
Have a greater benefit to risk ratio for each individual
Are not reliant on an arbitrary ‘cut off’ of blood pressure values
Tend to be more costly compared to population wide approaches

Explanation

Question 9 of 112

1

Hypertension is a risk factor for the following disease:

Select one of the following:

Spina bifida
Diverticulitis
Hyperlipidaemia
Colorectal cancer
Chronic kidney disease

Explanation

Question 10 of 112

1

Which of the following microbes is a common microbe in urinary tract infections?

Select one of the following:

Vibrio cholorae
Herpes simplex
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 11 of 112

1

Which of the following microbes secretes a toxin, which stimulates the same intracellular transduction mechanism (second messenger) in its target cells as adrenaline does in its target cells via β-adrenergic receptors?

Select one of the following:

Vibrio cholorae
Herpes simplex
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 12 of 112

1

Which of the following microbes reproduces by having its DNA replicated in infected cells?

Select one of the following:

Vibrio cholorae
Herpes simplex
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 13 of 112

1

Which of the following microbes has resistance to antibiotics that is partly due to the presence of lipids anchored in its cell wall?

Select one of the following:

Vibrio cholorae
Herpes simplex
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 14 of 112

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 15 of 112

1

Which of the following lifestyle change would MOST benefit a patient in terms of modifying hyperlipidaemia?

Select one of the following:

Restrict salt
Reduce stress
Increase monitoring of lipids
Decrease saturated fats in diet
Increase dietary sources of potassium

Explanation

Question 16 of 112

1

An antibiotic that has a narrow spectrum of activity indicates that the drug has which of the following properties?

Select one of the following:

low efficacy
low potency
a short half-life
a narrow margin of safety
a range of activity against a limited number of bacterial species

Explanation

Question 17 of 112

1

DHC not covered - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 18 of 112

1

Which of the following is likely to produce the greatest increase in INTRACELLULAR fluid volume when administered to a subject whose water intake remains constant during the infusion?

Select one of the following:

renin
adrenaline
aldosterone
vasopressin (ADH)
hypertonic saline solution

Explanation

Question 19 of 112

1

DHC not covered yet - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 20 of 112

1

A patient presents with a suspected viral infection in the pharynx. Identification of which of the following is the main aim of taking a throat swab?

Select one of the following:

virus by culturing it
virus from its genetic material
body cells that the virus has invaded
virus by the type of antibodies present
sensitivity of the virus to specific antimicrobials

Explanation

Question 21 of 112

1

DHC not covered yet - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 22 of 112

1

Drug X is said to be a competitive antagonist of neurotransmitter Y. This necessarily means that:

Select one of the following:

X decreases the affinity between Y and its receptors.
X decreases the rate of the biosynthesis or biotransformation of Y.
X and Y activate different intracellular (second messenger) signaling systems.
In the presence of X, the concentration of Y has to be higher than it does in the absence of X to achieve the same effect.
In the presence of X, the maximum effect achievable by Y is decreased, but the concentration required for half-maximal effect remains the same.

Explanation

Question 23 of 112

1

DHC not covered yet - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 24 of 112

1

Which of the following describes the mechanism of secondary hypertension in a patient with a unilateral renal artery stenosis?

Select one of the following:

stimulation of nicotinic receptors
stimulation of angiotensin receptors
expansion of the intracellular volume
stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors
stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors

Explanation

Question 25 of 112

1

Which of the following would be expected in a patient who has been administered an intramuscular injection of adrenaline?

Select one of the following:

acceleration of heart action and pupillary constriction
stimulation of upper intestinal action and pupillary constriction
sweating, paling or flushing and stimulation of stomach activity
increased respiratory rate and constriction of blood vessels for muscles
constriction of blood vessels in the skin and dilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscle

Explanation

Question 26 of 112

1

Which of the following describes the microscopic appearance of streptococcal bacteria?

Select one of the following:

single rods
chains of rods
clusters of rods
d) chains of spheres
chains of spheres
clusters of spheres

Explanation

Question 27 of 112

1

A 50-year-old man has a previous history of tuberculosis and now has a firm lymph node in his neck. A fine needle aspiration of the lymph node is done. The presence of which of the following types of cell would suggest a diagnosis of tuberculosis?

Select one of the following:

eosinophils
epithelioid cells
lymphocytes
macrophages
neutrophils

Explanation

Question 28 of 112

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 29 of 112

1

Australia has been at the forefront of a unique approach to drug policy and practice known as ‘harm minimisation’. Which of the following BEST describes the strategy of ‘harm minimisation’?

Select one of the following:

A strategy aimed to address the harmful effects of drugs on the individual
A national public health strategy that addressed the environmental sources of drug use
A strategy aimed at the reduction in harm from drugs, supply of drugs and demand for drugs
A strategy built on community development programs to prevent the uptake of harmful drug use
A strategy that aims to address drug use, by conceptualising it as an interaction between the drug and environmental factors.

Explanation

Question 30 of 112

1

All germ cells and some cancer cells share which of the following characteristics?

Select one of the following:

active telomerase activity
constant replication
haploid number of chromosomes
loss of DNA repair genes
suppressed apoptotic activity

Explanation

Question 31 of 112

1

Everything else being equal, wWhich of the following individuals is MOST LIKELY to have a the LOWEST SODIUM [Na+] concentration, recorded in a sample of his/her blood?

Select one of the following:

A healthy individual who has been given the drug ouabain (inhibits Na+/K+ATPase)
an athlete who has just lost one litre of hypotonic (70 mmol/L) NaCl as sweat
a normally hydrated individual who has just received an infusion of one litre of isotonic (0.9%) saline in preparation for surgery
a patient with Conn’s syndrome (aldosterone-secreting tumour)
an ecstasy user with inappropriately elevated secretion of vasopressin (SIADH)

Explanation

Question 32 of 112

1

DHC not covered yet - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 33 of 112

1

Hypertension is a risk factor for the following disease:

Select one of the following:

Stroke
Spina bifida
Diverticulitis
Hyperlipidamia
Colorectal cancer

Explanation

Question 34 of 112

1

For an adult with ‘pre-diabetes’, which of the following is most likely to delay or prevent the onset of type 2 diabetes?

Select one of the following:

Quitting smoking
Commencing insulin
Measuring blood sugar daily
Starting doing 15 minutes of exercise daily
Commencing a cholesterol-reducing medication

Explanation

Question 35 of 112

1

DHC not covered yet - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 36 of 112

1

The goal of immunization (vaccination) is to induce:

Select one of the following:

autoimmunity
active immunity
innate immunity
passive immunity
cell-mediated immunity

Explanation

Question 37 of 112

1

DHC not covered yet - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 38 of 112

1

Which of the following patients is MOST LIKELY to have a low respiration rate (breaths per minute)? A patient with:

Select one of the following:

angina and who is panicking
a heroin overdose and about to get naloxone
pneumonia and about to get an intravenous antibiotic
iron-deficiency anaemia and about to get a blood transfusion
type 1 diabetes mellitus and about to get insulin for the first time in three days

Explanation

Question 39 of 112

1

The tendency to accept a diagnosis due to ease in recalling a past similar event or case rather than probability or statistical prevalence is:

Select one of the following:

affect heuristic
anchoring heuristic
availability heuristic
confirmation heuristic
satisficing heuristic

Explanation

Question 40 of 112

1

In the image above, which letter indicates the lamina?

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 41 of 112

1

An example of primary prevention is:

Select one of the following:

Syphilis serology in pregnant women
Air quality guidelines and monitoring
Rehabilitation programme after stroke
The national breast screening programme
Benzanthine penicillin monthly following rheumatic fever

Explanation

Question 42 of 112

1

A feature that distinguishes screening tests from diagnostic tests is that screening tests are:

Select one of the following:

More affordable than diagnostic tests
Conducted on people who have symptoms
Likely to have a higher overall test accuracy
More likely to have a high false positive rate
More likely to have a high true negative rate

Explanation

Question 43 of 112

1

Optimum time for sexual intercourse that will result in pregnancy MOST LIKELY corresponds to which of the following?

Select one of the following:

2 days after peak estradiol concentrations during the menstrual cycle
2 days after peak progesterone concentrations during the menstrual cycle
2 days after the endometrium reaches its thinnest during the menstrual cycle
2 days before peak luteinising hormone concentrations during the menstrual cycle
2 days before peak follicle-stimulating hormone concentrations during the menstrual cycle

Explanation

Question 44 of 112

1

The National Vision for primary health care has, as one of its MAIN priorities

Select one of the following:

Complex case management
Evidence based general practice
Improved access to hospital care
Increased focus on tertiary prevention
Reduced inequity in health outcomes for all

Explanation

Question 45 of 112

1

Which of the following inhibit(s) thrombosis?

Select one of the following:

α-2 macroglobulin
conversion of factor X to factor Xa
endothelial damage
fibrin
oral cyclooxygenase inhibitors

Explanation

Question 46 of 112

1

You are considering working for the World Health Organisation in a socially and economically disadvantaged developing region where there is a tuberculosis epidemic. Your specific brief is to address the social determinants of health through tuberculosis control programs . Which of the following should you address as part of your brief?

Select one of the following:

Co-existing illnesses
Medication supplies
Crowded housing conditions
Evidence based medical care
Community health professional training

Explanation

Question 47 of 112

1

Which of the following drugs is MOST LIKELY to result in decreased postsynaptic activity at neuromuscular junctions?

Select one of the following:

botox, which blocks fusion of exocytotic vesicles with plasma membranes
carbachol, which acts like acetylcholine and is resistant to choline esterases
cocaine, which blocks uptake of catecholamines by presynaptic neurons
diazepam, which hyperpolarises neurons that have receptors for gamma-aminobutyric acid
propranolol, which competes with noradrenaline for binding at beta receptors

Explanation

Question 48 of 112

1

An example of secondary prevention is:

Select one of the following:

Advice to youth to abstain from sexual relationships
Provision of condom vending machines in public spaces
Annual chlamydia testing of men who have sex with men
HPV immunisation of girls who are not yet sexually active
Education to change community norms and gender relations

Explanation

Question 49 of 112

1

Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY finding in a tissue at early stage granulation?

Select one of the following:

scar tissue
collagen formation
proliferation of fibroblasts
recruitment of inflammatory cells
scattered formation of blood vessels

Explanation

Question 50 of 112

1

A process of "mental matching" to diagnose conditions with characteristic presentations that may predispose to a lack of differential diagnosis is best described by the term:

Select one of the following:

affect
anchoring
availability
confirmation
representative

Explanation

Question 51 of 112

1

Which of the following tests is used to detect antibodies to viral infections?

Select one of the following:

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
erythrocyte sedimentation rate
immunoprecipitation
plasmaphoresis
serum protein electrophoresis

Explanation

Question 52 of 112

1

Which of the following is a characteristic of a drug that would dissolve a thrombus in a patient’s coronary artery?

Select one of the following:

activates vitamin K
activates fibrinogen
activates plasminogen
increases activity of antithrombin III
decreases international normalised ratio (INR)

Explanation

Question 53 of 112

1

Which of the following is a characteristic of a drug you might use to keep the patient from developing thrombi after you successfully dissolved the thrombus in his coronary artery?

Select one of the following:

activates vitamin K
activates fibrinogen
activates plasminogen
increases activity of antithrombin III
decreases international normalised ratio (INR)

Explanation

Question 54 of 112

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 55 of 112

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 56 of 112

1

A 50-year-old patient presents with haemorrhages and exudates (cotton wool spots) in the retinas of his eyes. He is also MOST LIKELY to:

Select one of the following:

be taking heroin
benefit from treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
have central cyanosis
require anticoagulant therapy
suffer from an allergic reaction

Explanation

Question 57 of 112

1

A 26-year-old triathlete has been trying unsuccessfully to conceive and you suspect that she may have a relatively common problem among female athletes, which is the failure to ovulate. You draw a single blood sample on the day that she comes for her initial consultation with you. Which of the following results is the MOST CONVINCING that she has indeed ovulated?

Select one of the following:

estradiol - high normal
progesterone - high normal
luteinising hormone (LH) - low normal
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) - low normal
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) – undetectable

Explanation

Question 58 of 112

1

Which of the following pairs of organ systems is ectodermally-derived?

Select one of the following:

muscular and skeletal systems
integumentary and nervous systems
integumentary and muscular systems
circulatory system and skeletal system
lining of the gut and the nervous system

Explanation

Question 59 of 112

1

A man with a previous history of tuberculosis and now has a firm lymph node in his neck. A fine needle aspiration of the lymph node is done. The presence of which of the following types of cell would suggest a diagnosis of tuberculosis?

Select one of the following:

lymphocytes
macrophages
neutrophils
epithelioid cells
eosinophils

Explanation

Question 60 of 112

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 61 of 112

1

In the blastocyst, the:

Select one of the following:

blastocoele serves the functions of the digestive system, lungs, and kidneys for the fetus
blastocoele is destined to become the fetus
trophoblast is destined to become the fetal portion of the placenta
trophoblast is destined to become the fetus
trophoblast is destined to become the inner cell mass

Explanation

Question 62 of 112

1

Which of the following is the enzyme responsible for the formation of angiotensin I (Ang I)?

Select one of the following:

renin
angiotensinase
angiotensinogen
angiotensin synthase
angiotensin-converting enzyme

Explanation

Question 63 of 112

1

Everything else being equal, Which of the following individuals is LIKELY to have a the HIGHEST POTASSIUM [K+] concentration, recorded in a sample of his/her blood?

Select one of the following:

a healthy individual who has been given the drug flucloxacillin
a patient with Conn’s syndrome (aldosterone secreting tumour)
a normally hydrated individual whose blood sample haemolysed (cells burst) on the way to the lab
a cancer patient who is nauseated by medication and has been unable to eat anything in three days
a patient with heart failure who is using frusemide, a drug that inhibits resorption of sodium, potassium and chloride in the loop of henle of the kidney

Explanation

Question 64 of 112

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 65 of 112

1

An example of tertiary prevention is:

Select one of the following:

Vector control
Tax on tobacco products
Fluoridation of drinking water
HEEADSSS assessment for adolescents
Cardiac rehabilitation post-myocardial infarction

Explanation

Question 66 of 112

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 67 of 112

1

Alfred, aged 56, attends your general practice for an unrelated condition and you note his blood pressure is somewhat high, at 155/90. The most usual next step would be:

Select one of the following:

Order an echocardiogram
Examine Alfred to rule out a stroke
Commence an antihypertensive medication
Recheck his BP preferably on a separate occasion
Ensure Alfred rests more over the next few days until you can repeat his BP

Explanation

Question 68 of 112

1

DHC not covered yet - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 69 of 112

1

For which of the following sets of three (3) diseases is hypertension a risk factor?

Select one of the following:

Chronic kidney disease, Osteoarthritis, Diabetes
Coronary heart disease, Chronic kidney disease, Heart failure
Heart failure, Muscle dystrophy, Stroke
Peripheral vascular disease, Blindness, Osteoarthritis
Stroke, Cataract, Osteoporosis

Explanation

Question 70 of 112

1

You are writing an article on the social determination of health in your local community newspaper. Which of the following is NOT a social determinant of health?

Select one of the following:

median income
percentage of unemployment
ratio of private to public housing
number of breast cancer survivors
availability of public spaces suitable for exercise

Explanation

Question 71 of 112

1

A woman and man present for pre-pregnancy advice. The family history includes Huntington’s disease, an autosomal dominant condition, on the man’s side. The man is heterozygous for the gene product huntingtin and the woman is unaffected. Which of the following describes the probability of inheritance of Huntington’s disease?

Select one of the following:

0% in male and 0% in female children
25% in male and 0% in female children
25% in male and 25% in female children
50% in male and 25% in female children
50% in male and 50% in female children

Explanation

Question 72 of 112

1

Which of the following statements about suicide in Australia is correct?

Select one of the following:

Around 55% of all suicides are male.
There are around 10,500 suicides per year.
Women have the highest age standardised suicide rate.
The highest age specific rate is for males aged 85 years and over.
Men are more likely than women to access services for mental health issues.

Explanation

Question 73 of 112

1

The incidence rate of lung cancer among smokers divided by the incidence rate of lung cancer among non-smokers in a population is called the _________:

Select one of the following:

relative risk
hazard ratio
distal population risk
population prevalence
population attributable risk

Explanation

Question 74 of 112

1

An unconscious patient with pinpoint pupils, slow breathing and a normal heart rate will MOST LIKELY benefit from treatment with a drug that blocks which of the following receptors?

Select one of the following:

alpha adrenergic
beta adrenergic
mu opioid
muscarinic
nicotinic

Explanation

Question 75 of 112

1

You read an article about the role of social and environmental factors on rates of tuberculosis in a refugee community. The authors report descriptive statistics of the association of family size according to age groups. ‘Age grouping’ is an example of a(n):

Select one of the following:

continuous variable
dependent variable
dichotomous variable
nominal variable
ordinal variable

Explanation

Question 76 of 112

1

A normal subject loses 1 litre of sweat containing 60 mOsm (milliosmoles) of NaCl. In terms of changes to extracellular fluid volume (ECF), intracellular fluid volume (ICF) and osmolarity, which of the following is correct?

Select one of the following:

only ICF will contract
only ECF will contract
plasma osmolarity will decrease
ECF and ICF will both contract, but ICF will contract more than ECF
ECF and ICF will both contract, but ECF will contract more than ICF

Explanation

Question 77 of 112

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 78 of 112

1

The results of a screening test for adolescent depression are compared to depression designated by the DSM 4 criteria (the ‘gold standard’ in this example).

What proportion of people with depression does the screening test correctly identify?

Select one of the following:

90/100
90/360
10/400
390/660
480/760

Explanation

Question 79 of 112

1

DHC - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 80 of 112

1

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 81 of 112

1

Which one of the following combinations are components of mechanisms that can act to DECREASE extracellular fluid volume?

Select one of the following:

increased capillary oncotic pressure and decreased lymphatic drainage
increased plasma potassium concentration and decreased arterial pressure
increased intestinal chloride excretion and decreased renal sodium reabsorption
increased aldosterone secretion and decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion
increased constriction of the afferent arteriole and decreased constriction of the efferent arteriole

Explanation

Question 82 of 112

1

DHC - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 83 of 112

1

DHC - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 84 of 112

1

DHC - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 85 of 112

1

DHC - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 86 of 112

1

A finding of decreased arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):

Select one of the following:

impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Explanation

Question 87 of 112

1

A finding of facial pallor in a patient with a 10% decrease in cardiac output due to a problem within the heart MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):

Select one of the following:

impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Explanation

Question 88 of 112

1

A finding of increased renal sodium reabsorption in a patient who lost 1 litre of blood (20% of blood volume) MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):

Select one of the following:

impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Explanation

Question 89 of 112

1

A finding of increased blood flow in the fingers and lower arms of a patient playing the piano vigorously (Flight of the Bumblebee by Rimsky-Korsakov) MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):

Select one of the following:

impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Explanation

Question 90 of 112

1

A finding of constant heart rate in a patient rising out of bed after reclining supine for two days MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):

Select one of the following:

impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Explanation

Question 91 of 112

1

A finding of increased ventilation in a patient as s/he is doing a cardiac stress (exercise) test MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):

Select one of the following:

impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Explanation

Question 92 of 112

1

A finding of decreased water excretion rate in a patient who has not had anything to drink in 16 hours MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):

Select one of the following:

impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Explanation

Question 93 of 112

1

Bazza, Dazza, Gazza, Shazza and Wazza are all 35-year-old male patients at a local Emergency department. On the basis of history and physical examination:
• one has been tentatively diagnosed with a respiratory infection for 48 hours, likely to be Streptococcus pneumoniae;
• one with Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism) of several months duration;
• one with an incompetent mitral valve that has not shut properly during systole for several months;
• one with diabetic ketoacidosis; and
• one with an overdose of heroin over the last hour.
The results of their vital signs are summarized in the Table below:

Which of the patients is MOST LIKELY to have elevated hydrostatic pressure in his pulmonary capillaries?

Select one of the following:

Bazza
Dazza
Gazza
Shazza
Wazza

Explanation

Question 94 of 112

1

Bazza, Dazza, Gazza, Shazza and Wazza are all 35-year-old male patients at a local Emergency department. On the basis of history and physical examination:
• one has been tentatively diagnosed with a respiratory infection for 48 hours, likely to be Streptococcus pneumoniae;
• one with Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism) of several months duration;
• one with an incompetent mitral valve that has not shut properly during systole for several months;
• one with diabetic ketoacidosis; and
• one with an overdose of heroin over the last hour.
The results of their vital signs are summarized in the Table below:

Which of the following pairs of the patients are MOST LIKELY to have hypokalaemia?

Select one of the following:

Dazza and Shazza
Dazza and Wazza
Shazza and Wazza
Gazza and Dazza
Gazza and Shazza

Explanation

Question 95 of 112

1

Bazza, Dazza, Gazza, Shazza and Wazza are all 35-year-old male patients at a local Emergency department. On the basis of history and physical examination:
• one has been tentatively diagnosed with a respiratory infection for 48 hours, likely to be Streptococcus pneumoniae;
• one with Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism) of several months duration;
• one with an incompetent mitral valve that has not shut properly during systole for several months;
• one with diabetic ketoacidosis; and
• one with an overdose of heroin over the last hour.
The results of their vital signs are summarized in the Table below:

Which of the patients is MOST LIKELY to have a decreased plasma renin activity?

Select one of the following:

Bazza
Dazza
Gazza
Shazza
Wazza

Explanation

Question 96 of 112

1

Bazza, Dazza, Gazza, Shazza and Wazza are all 35-year-old male patients at a local Emergency department. On the basis of history and physical examination:
• one has been tentatively diagnosed with a respiratory infection for 48 hours, likely to be Streptococcus pneumoniae;
• one with Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism) of several months duration;
• one with an incompetent mitral valve that has not shut properly during systole for several months;
• one with diabetic ketoacidosis; and
• one with an overdose of heroin over the last hour.
The results of their vital signs are summarized in the Table below:

Which of the patients is MOST LIKELY to have the lowest arterial carbon dioxide pressure?

Select one of the following:

Bazza
Dazza
Gazza
Shazza
Wazza

Explanation

Question 97 of 112

1

Bazza, Dazza, Gazza, Shazza and Wazza are all 35-year-old male patients at a local Emergency department. On the basis of history and physical examination:
• one has been tentatively diagnosed with a respiratory infection for 48 hours, likely to be Streptococcus pneumoniae;
• one with Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism) of several months duration;
• one with an incompetent mitral valve that has not shut properly during systole for several months;
• one with diabetic ketoacidosis; and
• one with an overdose of heroin over the last hour.
The results of their vital signs are summarized in the Table below:

Which patient’s X-ray is MOST LIKELY to show opacity in one lung?

Select one of the following:

Bazza
Dazza
Gazza
Shazza
Wazza

Explanation

Question 98 of 112

1

Note that the third question is of the type: all of the following…EXCEPT
Bate Ho-Van, an 18-year old musician, is suffering from anxiety prior to his first public performance. At his local clinic, Bate complains of palpitations and sweating during his anxiety attacks and, on examination by his doctor, he is found to have tachycardia. After taking a medication prescribed by his doctor, he feels much better and goes on to perform splendidly on stage.

The medication that Bate’s doctor would have prescribed for his anxiety would MOST LIKELY have been an antagonist of:

Select one of the following:

α1 adrenergic receptors
α2 adrenergic receptors
β1 adrenergic receptors
β2 adrenergic receptors
β3 adrenergic receptors

Explanation

Question 99 of 112

1

Note that the third question is of the type: all of the following…EXCEPT
Bate Ho-Van, an 18-year old musician, is suffering from anxiety prior to his first public performance. At his local clinic, Bate complains of palpitations and sweating during his anxiety attacks and, on examination by his doctor, he is found to have tachycardia. After taking a medication prescribed by his doctor, he feels much better and goes on to perform splendidly on stage.

Which of the following pairs correctly matches the autonomic nervous system involved and the neurotransmitter released by its postganglionic fibres to result in increased (generalised secretion type) sweating?

Select one of the following:

sympathetic nervous system --- acetylcholine
sympathetic nervous system --- noradrenaline
parasympathetic nervous system --- adrenaline
parasympathetic nervous system --- acetylcholine
parasympathetic nervous system --- noradrenaline

Explanation

Question 100 of 112

1

Note that the third question is of the type: all of the following…EXCEPT
Bate Ho-Van, an 18-year old musician, is suffering from anxiety prior to his first public performance. At his local clinic, Bate complains of palpitations and sweating during his anxiety attacks and, on examination by his doctor, he is found to have tachycardia. After taking a medication prescribed by his doctor, he feels much better and goes on to perform splendidly on stage.

In addition to tachycardia and sweating, all of the following physiological effects are LIKELY to occur in Bate during his anxiety attack EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

dilation of pupils
increase in metabolic rate
increase in blood pressure
contraction of the urinary bladder
vasoconstriction of blood vessels to the skin

Explanation

Question 101 of 112

1

DHC not covered yet - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 102 of 112

1

Exertional dyspnoea (shortness of breath on exertion) would be expected in all of the following patients EXCEPT which one of the following?

Select one of the following:

aortic stenosis (narrowing of the aortic valve or aorta itself)
bacterial pneumonia
iron-deficiency anaemia
hypertension 167/110 mmHg
a patent foramen ovale (left to right intracardiac shut)

Explanation

Question 103 of 112

1

DHC not covered yet - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 104 of 112

1

DHC not covered yet - Choose A

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 105 of 112

1

All of the following is considered a management strategy for hypertension EXCEPT

Select one of the following:

Weight reduction
Reduced salt intake
Increased dietary fibre
Increased physical activity
Reduction in alcohol intake

Explanation

Question 106 of 112

1

All of the following factors contribute to the virulence of mycobacteria, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

inhibition of granuloma formation
inhibition of lysosome acidification
interference with antigen presentation
inhibition of lysosome-phagosome fusion
resistance to toxic compounds within macrophages

Explanation

Question 107 of 112

1

Which of the following chemical mediators is NOT released during tissue injury to stimulate nociceptors to produce pain?

Select one of the following:

histamine
bradykinin
endorphin
serotonin
adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Explanation

Question 108 of 112

1

All of the following are continuous variables EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

age
height
blood group
temperature
survival time

Explanation

Question 109 of 112

1

All of the following statements regarding penicillin are correct, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Penicillin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.
Penicillin hypersensitivity (allergy) can result in potentially fatal angioneurotic oedema.
Carbapenams (e.g. imipenem) may be used with caution in penicillin hypersensitivity.
Cephalosporins such as cefotaxime may be safely used in penicillin hypersensitivity.
Macrolides such as erythromycin may be safely used in penicillin hypersensitivity.

Explanation

Question 110 of 112

1

All of the following statements regarding the role of chemical mediators released by mast cells are correct, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Histamine induces vasodilatation.
Cytokines initiate the adaptive immune response.
Chemotactic factors attract neutrophils and eosinophils to the site of inflammation.
Leukotrienes induce B-cell proliferation.
Prostaglandins induce pain.

Explanation

Question 111 of 112

1

All of the following are signs of poisoning with an organophosphate compound (long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor), EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

miosis (constricted pupils)
tachycardia
profuse sweating
excessive salivation
increased lacrimation (tearing)

Explanation

Question 112 of 112

1

All of the following statements regarding dysplasia are true, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Mild to moderate dysplasia may be reversible.
Dysplasia is usually encountered in epithelia.
The proliferation of cells may breach the basement membrane in severe dysplasia.
Carcinoma-in-situ is a form of dysplasia.
Dysplasia may not necessarily progress to carcinoma.

	Created by James Wilson over 4 years ago

MCQ EOS June 2018 Formative DLEPP no information available

MCQ EOS June 2018 Formative

MCQ EOS June 2018 Formative

Question 1 of 112

Drug X is said to be more potent than drug Y. Therefore, drug X produces a:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 112

A 38 year old mother presents to you at 11 weeks pregnant. Which of the following best fits the definition of a screening test for a Down syndrome fetus?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 112

A good screening test needs to have high:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 112

In conditions associated with aneuploidy, which of the following describes the genetic defect? It:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 112

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 112

Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 112

Which of the following is the reason individuals with AB-positive blood type are considered the universal recipients? It is because they:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 112

One of the advantages of high risk population approaches to blood pressure control in comparison to population wide interventions is that high risk population approaches:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 112

Hypertension is a risk factor for the following disease:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 112

Which of the following microbes is a common microbe in urinary tract infections?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 112

Which of the following microbes secretes a toxin, which stimulates the same intracellular transduction mechanism (second messenger) in its target cells as adrenaline does in its target cells via β-adrenergic receptors?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 112

Which of the following microbes reproduces by having its DNA replicated in infected cells?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 112

Which of the following microbes has resistance to antibiotics that is partly due to the presence of lipids anchored in its cell wall?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 112

DLEPP - Choose A

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 112

Which of the following lifestyle change would MOST benefit a patient in terms of modifying hyperlipidaemia?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 112

An antibiotic that has a narrow spectrum of activity indicates that the drug has which of the following properties?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 112

DHC not covered - Choose A

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 112

Which of the following is likely to produce the greatest increase in INTRACELLULAR fluid volume when administered to a subject whose water intake remains constant during the infusion?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 112

DHC not covered yet - Choose A

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 112