Craig Willey
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College C192 Databases Quiz on C192 Practice Test, created by Craig Willey on 27/06/2020.

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C192 Practice Test

Question 1 of 52

1

Which of the following is a benefit of using a DBMS?

Select one of the following:

  • They provide full security to data using private/public key encryption

  • They create automatic backups

  • They help create an environment for end users to have access to more data

  • They provide seamless Internet access to database data

Explanation

Question 2 of 52

1

The hierarchical database model is based on a ____.

Select one of the following:

  • tree structure

  • lack of a parent segment

  • lack of a child segment

  • matrix

Explanation

Question 3 of 52

1

Because an RDBMS hides the system's complexity from the user/designer, ____.

Select one of the following:

  • it does not exhibit data independence

  • it does not exhibit structural independence

  • data management is easier

  • data management is very difficult

Explanation

Question 4 of 52

1

The ERD is used to graphically represent the ____ database model.

Select one of the following:

  • condensed

  • physical

  • logical

  • conceptual

Explanation

Question 5 of 52

1

The property of ____ enables an entity subtype to inherit the attributes and relationships of the supertype.

Select one of the following:

  • subtype discriminator

  • inheritance

  • specialization hierarchy

  • entity supertype

Explanation

Question 6 of 52

1

At the implementation level, the supertype and its subtype(s) depicted in the specialization hierarchy maintain a ____ relationship.

Select one of the following:

  • none

  • 1:1

  • 1:M

  • M:N

Explanation

Question 7 of 52

1

Which command would be used to delete the table row where the P_Code = '2238/QPD'?

Select one of the following:

  • DELETE FROM PRODUCT
    WHERE P_CODE = '2238/QPD';

  • REMOVE FROM PRODUCT
    WHERE P_CODE = '2238/QPD';

  • ERASE FROM PRODUCT
    WHERE P_CODE = '2238/QPD';

  • ROLLBACK FROM PRODUCT
    WHERE P_CODE = '2238/QPD';

Explanation

Question 8 of 52

1

Which command is used to select partial table contents?

Select one of the following:

  • SELECT <column(s)>
    FROM <Table name>
    WHERE <Item>;

  • LIST <column(s)>
    FROM <Table name>
    WHERE <Conditions>;

  • SELECT <column(s)>
    FROM <Table name>
    WHERE <Conditions>;

  • LIST<column(s)>
    FROM <Table name>
    WHERE <Item>;

Explanation

Question 9 of 52

1

Which query will output the table contents when the value of V_CODE is equal to 21344?

Select one of the following:

  • SELECT P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, P_PRICE, V_CODE
    FROM PRODUCT
    WHERE V_CODE <> 21344;

  • SELECT P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, P_PRICE, V_CODE
    FROM PRODUCT
    WHERE V_CODE <= 21344;

  • SELECT P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, P_PRICE, V_CODE
    FROM PRODUCT
    WHERE V_CODE = 21344;

  • SELECT P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, P_PRICE, V_CODE
    FROM PRODUCT
    WHERE V_CODE => 21344;

Explanation

Question 10 of 52

1

What is the command used to list the P_CODE, P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, and P_PRICE fields from the Product table in ascending order by P_PRICE?

Select one of the following:

  • SELECT P_CODE, P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, P_PRICE
    FROM PRODUCT
    SEQUENCE BY P_PRICE;

  • SELECT P_CODE, P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, P_PRICE
    FROM PRODUCT
    LIST BY P_PRICE;

  • SELECT P_CODE, P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, P_PRICE
    FROM PRODUCT
    ORDER BY P_PRICE;

  • SELECT P_CODE, P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, P_PRICE
    FROM PRODUCT
    ASCENDING BY P_PRICE;

Explanation

Question 11 of 52

1

The basic SQL aggregate function that gives the total of all values for a selected attribute in a given column is ____.

Select one of the following:

  • COUNT

  • MIN

  • MAX

  • SUM

Explanation

Question 12 of 52

1

____ is used to tally the number of specific "values" of an attribute.

Select one of the following:

  • SUM

  • TOTAL

  • COUNT

  • ADD

Explanation

Question 13 of 52

1

UPDATE tablename
*****
[WHERE conditionlist];
What command replaces the ***** in the above statement?

Select one of the following:

  • SET columnname = expression

  • columnname = expression

  • expression = columnname

  • LET columnname = expression

Explanation

Question 14 of 52

1

When using a(n) ____ join, only rows that meet the given criteria are returned.

Select one of the following:

  • full

  • inner

  • outer

  • set

Explanation

Question 15 of 52

1

What is the syntax for a left outer join?

Select one of the following:

  • SELECT column-list
    FROM table1 OUTER JOIN table2 LEFT
    WHERE join-condition

  • SELECT column-list
    FROM table1 LEFT [OUTER] JOIN table2
    ON join-condition

  • SELECT column-list
    WHERE LEFT table1 = table 2

  • SELECT column-list
    FROM table1 LEFT table2 [JOIN]
    WHERE join-condition

Explanation

Question 16 of 52

1

In subquery terminology, the first query in the SQL statement is known as the ____ query.

Select one of the following:

  • outer

  • left

  • inner

  • base

Explanation

Question 17 of 52

1

In a subquery, which query is executed first?

Select one of the following:

  • Leftmost

  • Rightmost

  • Innermost

  • Outermost

Explanation

Question 18 of 52

1

Creating the conceptual design, selecting DBMS software, creating the logical design, and creating the physical design are part of the ____ phase.

Select one of the following:

  • database initial study

  • database design

  • implementation and loading

  • testing and evaluation

Explanation

Question 19 of 52

1

Which of the conceptual design steps defines entities, attributes, and relationships?

Select one of the following:

  • Database analysis and requirements

  • Entity relationship modeling and normalization

  • Data model verification

  • Distributed database design

Explanation

Question 20 of 52

1

What is the primary objective of database design?

Select one of the following:

  • To create the most efficient database possible

  • To create complete, normalized, non-redundant, and fully integrated conceptual, logical, and physical database models

  • To create the fastest queries

  • To be able to add data quickly

Explanation

Question 21 of 52

1

The most common algorithms for concurrency control are locks, ____ stamping, and optimistic methods.

Select one of the following:

  • date

  • time

  • hour

  • minute

Explanation

Question 22 of 52

1

____ requires that all operations of a transaction be completed.

Select one of the following:

  • Specificity

  • Atomicity

  • Durability

  • Time stamping

Explanation

Question 23 of 52

1

The ____ establishes the order in which the operations within concurrent transactions are executed.

Select one of the following:

  • transaction log

  • timer

  • lock manager

  • scheduler

Explanation

Question 24 of 52

1

When is the implicit beginning of a transaction?

Select one of the following:

  • When the database is started

  • When a table is accessed for the first time

  • When the first SQL statement is encountered

  • When the COMMIT command is issued

Explanation

Question 25 of 52

1

A(n) ____ phase in a two-phase lock is when a transaction releases all locks and cannot obtain any new lock.

Select one of the following:

  • growing

  • shrinking

  • locking

  • unlocking

Explanation

Question 26 of 52

1

What is a consistent database?

Select one of the following:

  • One in which all tables have foreign keys

  • One in which all data integrity constraints are satisfied

  • One in which all tables are normalized

  • One in which all SQL statements only update one table at a time

Explanation

Question 27 of 52

1

A transaction acquires a ____ prior to data access.

Select one of the following:

  • grain

  • timestamp

  • lock

  • key

Explanation

Question 28 of 52

1

Changes are permanently applied to the database during the ____ phase of a transaction.

Select one of the following:

  • commit

  • write

  • input

  • output

Explanation

Question 29 of 52

1

The phenomenon of ____ occurs when two transactions, T1 and T2, are executed concurrently and the first transaction (T1) is rolled back after the second transaction (T2) has already accessed the uncommitted data—thus violating the isolation property of transactions.

Select one of the following:

  • lost updates

  • uncommitted data

  • transaction failure

  • inconsistent retrieval

Explanation

Question 30 of 52

1

____ occur when a transaction calculates some summary (aggregate) functions over a set of data while other transactions are updating the data.

Select one of the following:

  • Lost updates

  • Uncommitted data

  • Transaction failures

  • Inconsistent retrievals

Explanation

Question 31 of 52

1

The scheduler facilitates data ____ to ensure that two transactions do not update the same data element at the same time.

Select one of the following:

  • durability

  • isolation

  • atomicity

  • serializability

Explanation

Question 32 of 52

1

Which is not a DML statement?

Select one of the following:

  • CREATE TABLE

  • SELECT

  • INSERT

  • DELETE

Explanation

Question 33 of 52

1

What feature is a DDBMS disadvantage?

Select one of the following:

  • Data is located near the “greatest demand” site

  • Growth facilitation

  • Reduced operating cost

  • Lack of standards

Explanation

Question 34 of 52

1

What feature is a DDBMS advantage?

Select one of the following:

  • Greater difficulty in managing the data environment

  • Less danger of a single-point failure

  • Increased training cost

  • Complexity of management and control

Explanation

Question 35 of 52

1

____ distributed database systems integrate different types of centralized DBMSs over a network.

Select one of the following:

  • Homogeneous

  • Heterogeneous

  • Fully homogeneous

  • Fully heterogeneous

Explanation

Question 36 of 52

1

____ transparency allows a transaction to update data at several network sites.

Select one of the following:

  • Transaction

  • Distribution

  • Failure

  • Performance

Explanation

Question 37 of 52

1

____ transparency ensures that the system will continue to operate in the event of a node failure.

Select one of the following:

  • Transaction

  • Distribution

  • Failure

  • Performance

Explanation

Question 38 of 52

1

The ____ contains the description of the entire database as seen by the database administrator.

Select one of the following:

  • distributed global dictionary

  • distributed data dictionary

  • distributed global schema

  • distributed data schema

Explanation

Question 39 of 52

1

____ query optimization means that the DDBMS finds the most cost-effective access path without user intervention.

Select one of the following:

  • Static

  • Dynamic

  • Automatic

  • Commit

Explanation

Question 40 of 52

1

____ query optimization takes place at execution time.

Select one of the following:

  • Automatic

  • Static

  • Manual

  • Dynamic

Explanation

Question 41 of 52

1

A ____ based query optimization algorithm uses statistical information about the database.

Select one of the following:

  • statistically

  • dynamic

  • rule

  • manual

Explanation

Question 42 of 52

1

Data ____ refers to the storage of data copies at multiple sites served by a computer network.

Select one of the following:

  • replication

  • fragmentation

  • persistence

  • optimization

Explanation

Question 43 of 52

1

To provide better performance, some OLAP systems merge the data warehouse and data mart approaches by storing small extracts of the data warehouse at end user ____.

Select one of the following:

  • workstations

  • queries

  • schemas

  • servers

Explanation

Question 44 of 52

1

____ makes a copy of a table and places it in a different location, to improve access time.

Select one of the following:

  • Periodicity

  • Aggregation

  • Partitioning

  • Replication

Explanation

Question 45 of 52

1

The ____ schema creates the near equivalent of a multidimensional database schema from the existing relational database.

Select one of the following:

  • star

  • square

  • OLAP

  • ROLAP

Explanation

Question 46 of 52

1

Using multidimensional jargon, the ability to focus on slices of the cube to perform a more detailed analysis is known as ____.

Select one of the following:

  • star cuts

  • slice and dice

  • microscoping

  • TPL processing

Explanation

Question 47 of 52

1

A ____ is a uniquely identifiable object that allows a given person to log on to the database.

Select one of the following:

  • user

  • role

  • profile

  • manager

Explanation

Question 48 of 52

1

Which DDL statement should be used to enforce referential integrity?

Select one of the following:

  • CREATE TRIGGER AFTER GRANT

  • CREATE TRIGGER BEFORE UPDATE

  • CREATE TRIGGER BEFORE DROP

  • CREATE TRIGGER AFTER SELECT

Explanation

Question 49 of 52

1

Use the given code to answer the following question:

SELECT branchNo, COUNT(staffNo) AS myCount, SUM (salary) AS mySum
FROM staff,
GROUP BY branchNo
ORDER By branchNo;

What does this code do?

Select one of the following:

  • Orders the staff table by the ascending order of branchNo

  • Orders the staff by ascending order of salary

  • Finds the number of staff and the sum of their salaries in each branch

  • Finds the total number of branches

Explanation

Question 50 of 52

1

Use the give DDL statement to answer the following question:
CREATE ASSERTION PhysicianNotOverbooked
CHECK (NOT EXISTS (SELECT physician_number
FROM scheduled_exams
GROUP By physician_number
HAVING COUNT (*) > 20));

Which action is this statement performing?

Select one of the following:

  • Creating a trigger

  • Creating a stored procedure

  • Creating an index

  • Creating a constraint

Explanation

Question 51 of 52

1

Which DCL Command gives Manager the privilege to SELECT on column AccountBalance of the table Customer?

Select one of the following:

  • GRANT SELECT (Customer) ON AccountBalance TO Manager;

  • GRANT SELECT (AccountBalance) ON Customer TO Manager;

  • PERMIT Manager SELECT ON Customer (AccountBalance);

  • ALLOW Manager SELECT AccountBalance FROM Customer;

Explanation

Question 52 of 52

1

Which statement produces a PL/SQL stored procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • INSERT OR SET PROCEDURE ProcessReport AS
    BEGIN SELECT * FROM sales END

  • CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE ProcessReport AS
    BEGIN SELECT * FROM sales END

  • ADD OR UPDATE PROCEDURE ProcessReport AS
    BEGIN SELECT * FROM sales END

  • INSERT OR UPDATE PROCEDURE ProcessReport AS
    BEGIN SELECT * FROM sales END

Explanation