Chuck Willis
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ITIL study quiz

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Chuck Willis
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ITIL Quiz 101-150

Question 1 of 50

1

There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of
processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below?
1. Progress
2. Effectiveness
3. Efficiency
4. ?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Cost

  • B. Conformance

  • C. Compliance

  • D. Capacity

Explanation

Question 2 of 50

1

Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The IT Executive

  • B. The ISO27001 Standard

  • C. The Business

  • D. The Service Level Manager

Explanation

Question 3 of 50

1

Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The Service Level Manager

  • B. The IT Service Continuity Manager

  • C. The Service Catalogue Manager

  • D. The Supplier Manager

Explanation

Question 4 of 50

1

Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release
and Deployment?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Early Life Support

  • B. Service Test Manager

  • C. Evaluation

  • D. Release Packaging and Build Manager

Explanation

Question 5 of 50

1

What does a service always deliver to customers?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Applications

  • B. Infrastructure

  • C. Value

  • D. Resources

Explanation

Question 6 of 50

1

Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Service Design

  • B. Service Transition

  • C. Service Strategy

  • D. Service Operation

Explanation

Question 7 of 50

1

Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Change Management

  • B. Service Transition

  • C. Service Strategy

  • D. Service Design

Explanation

Question 8 of 50

1

Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Capacity Management

  • B. Governance

  • C. Service Strategy

  • D. Service Level Management

Explanation

Question 9 of 50

1

Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

Select one of the following:

  • A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use

  • B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer

  • C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure

  • D. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service

Explanation

Question 10 of 50

1

Where should details of a Workaround always be documented?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The Service Level Agreement (SLA)

  • B. The Problem Record

  • C. The Availability Management Information System

  • D. The IT Service Continuity Plan

Explanation

Question 11 of 50

1

Why are public frameworks and standards (such as ITIL) attractive when compared to proprietary
knowledge?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented

  • B. Public standards are always cheaper to adopt

  • C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do

  • D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

Explanation

Question 12 of 50

1

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed

  • B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly

  • C. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust

  • D. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language

Explanation

Question 13 of 50

1

Which of the following statements about processes is CORRECT?

1. A process is always organized around a set of objectives
2. A process should be documented

Select one of the following:

  • A. 1 only

  • B. 2 only

  • C. Both of the above

  • D. Neither of the above

Explanation

Question 14 of 50

1

Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

Select one of the following:

  • A. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work

  • B. We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner

  • C. They deliver specific results

  • D. They respond to specific events

Explanation

Question 15 of 50

1

Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?

1. Architectures
2. Technology
3. Service Management processes
4. Metrics

Select one of the following:

  • A. 1 only

  • B. 2 and 3 only

  • C. 1, 2 and 4 only

  • D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 16 of 50

1

You are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service Design disciplines. Which statement would NOT be part of the value proposition?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Reduced Total Cost of Ownership

  • B. Improved quality of service

  • C. Improved Service alignment with business goals

  • D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services

Explanation

Question 17 of 50

1

Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: 'The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a service can be minimised if all aspects of the service, the processes and the technology are considered during development'?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Service Design

  • B. Service Strategy

  • C. Service Operation

  • D. Continual Service Improvement

Explanation

Question 18 of 50

1

Which statement about Service Level Agreements(SLAs) is CORRECT?

Select one of the following:

  • A. They must contain legal wording because of their importance

  • B. There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customer

  • C. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity

  • D. Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer

Explanation

Question 19 of 50

1

Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?

1. To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to the business
2. The successful release of services into the live environment

Select one of the following:

  • A. 1 only

  • B. 2 only

  • C. Both of the above

  • D. Neither of the above

Explanation

Question 20 of 50

1

Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Event?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT
    infrastructure

  • B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service

  • C. The unknown cause of one or more Incidents

  • D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an Incident or Problem

Explanation

Question 21 of 50

1

A Know Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Yes

  • B. No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created

  • C. No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented

  • D. No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problem

Explanation

Question 22 of 50

1

Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?

1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience

Select one of the following:

  • A. 1 only

  • B. 2 only

  • C. Both of the above

  • D. None of the above

Explanation

Question 23 of 50

1

Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management?

Select one of the following:

  • A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

  • B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services

  • C. To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happening

  • D. To detect security events and make sense of them

Explanation

Question 24 of 50

1

Which of the following is NOT a Service Desk type recognised in the Service Operation volume of ITIL?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Local

  • B. Centralised

  • C. Holistic

  • D. Virtual

Explanation

Question 25 of 50

1

Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralised Service Desk?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves

  • B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one place

  • C. The desk provides 24 hour global support

  • D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

Explanation

Question 26 of 50

1

Service Design emphasises the importance of the 'Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list of these 'Four Ps'?

Select one of the following:

  • A. People, Products, Partners, Profit

  • B. People, Process, Products, Partners

  • C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit

  • D. People, Potential, Products, Performance

Explanation

Question 27 of 50

1

Service Design emphasises the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four P's" include Partners,
People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Profit

  • B. Preparation

  • C. Products

  • D. Potential

Explanation

Question 28 of 50

1

Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?:
1. The services
2. The architectures
3. The configuration items
4. The processes

Select one of the following:

  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only

  • B. 1, 3 and 4 only

  • C. 2,3 and 4 only

  • D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 29 of 50

1

Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages

1. Monitor, Measure and Review
2. Continual Improvement
3. Implement Initiatives
4. Plan for Improvement

Select one of the following:

  • A. 1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Act

  • B. 3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act

  • C. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act

  • D. 2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act

Explanation

Question 30 of 50

1

In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?' is underpinned by which set of activities?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Baseline assessments

  • B. Service and process improvements

  • C. Taking measurements and recording metrics

  • D. Setting measurement targets

Explanation

Question 31 of 50

1

Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST described as
'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Where are we now?

  • B. Where do we want to be?

  • C. How do we get there?

  • D. Did we get there?

Explanation

Question 32 of 50

1

Which of the following activities are responsibilities of a Supplier Manager?
1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts
2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database
3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts
4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers

Select one of the following:

  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only

  • B. 1, 3 and 4 only

  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only

  • D. None of the above

Explanation

Question 33 of 50

1

Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?

Select one of the following:

  • A. An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database

  • B. A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item

  • C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management

  • D. Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported

Explanation

Question 34 of 50

1

Which of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management?

Select one of the following:

  • A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes

  • B. To ensure all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS)

  • C. To ensure that overall business risk of Change is optimized

  • D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders

Explanation

Question 35 of 50

1

What are the categories of event described in the ITIL Service Operation book?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Informational, Scheduled, Normal

  • B. Scheduled, Unscheduled, Emergency

  • C. Informational, Warning, Exception

  • D. Warning, Reactive, Proactive

Explanation

Question 36 of 50

1

Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?
1. Known Error Data
2. Change Schedules
3. Service Knowledge Management System
4. The output from monitoring tools

Select one of the following:

  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only

  • B. 1, 2 and 4 only

  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only

  • D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 37 of 50

1

Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur

  • B. Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costs

  • C. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users

  • D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities

Explanation

Question 38 of 50

1

Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance

  • B. The Service Support book

  • C. Pocket Guides

  • D. The Service Strategy book

Explanation

Question 39 of 50

1

Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The Service Level Manager

  • B. The Configuration Manager

  • C. The Change Manager

  • D. The Information Security Manager

Explanation

Question 40 of 50

1

Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Demand Management

  • B. Supplier Management

  • C. Service Desk

  • D. Request Fulfilment

Explanation

Question 41 of 50

1

Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high volumes of what?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Service level requests

  • B. Changes and Releases

  • C. Password resets

  • D. Incidents and Problems

Explanation

Question 42 of 50

1

Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of
compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value through which part of the service lifecycle?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Service Transition

  • B. Risk Management

  • C. IT Service Continuity Management

  • D. Availability Management

Explanation

Question 43 of 50

1

Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and
processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Continual Service Improvement

  • B. Service Transition

  • C. Service Design

  • D. Service Operation

Explanation

Question 44 of 50

1

In terms of adding value to the business, which of the following describes Service Operation's
contribution?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated

  • B. Measures for optimization are identified

  • C. Service value is modelled

  • D. Service value is actually seen by customers

Explanation

Question 45 of 50

1

Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Service Operation

  • B. Service Transition

  • C. Continual Service Improvement

  • D. Service Strategy

Explanation

Question 46 of 50

1

Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability

Select one of the following:

  • A. All of the above

  • B. 1 and 2 only

  • C. 1 and 3 only

  • D. 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Question 47 of 50

1

Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The value of a service

  • B. Customer satisfaction

  • C. Total cost of ownership

  • D. Key performance indicators

Explanation

Question 48 of 50

1

The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to as what?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The utility of a service

  • B. The warranty of a service

  • C. The economic value of a service

  • D. Return on investment

Explanation

Question 49 of 50

1

A consultant has made two recommendations to you in a report:

1. To include legal terminology in your Service Level Agreements(SLAs)
2. It is not necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA
Which of the recommendations conform to Service Level Management good practice?

Select one of the following:

  • A. 1 only

  • B. 2 only

  • C. Both of the above

  • D. Neither of the above

Explanation

Question 50 of 50

1

Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement(SLA)?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service

  • B. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use

  • C. An SLA that covers all customers for all services

  • D. An SLA for a service with no customers

Explanation

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