Chuck Willis
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

ITIL study quiz

155
4
0
Chuck Willis
Created by Chuck Willis over 9 years ago
Close

ITIL QUIZ 151-190

ITIL QUIZ 151-190

Question 1 of 40

1

Which is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi level Service Level Agreement(SLA)?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Technology, Customer, User

  • B. Corporate, Customer, Service

  • C. Corporate, Customer, Technology

  • D. Service, User, IT

Explanation

Question 2 of 40

1

What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Measurements that match the customer's perception of the service

  • B. Clear, concise, unambiguous wording in the Service Level Agreements(SLAs)

  • C. Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectively measured

  • D. Involving customers in drafting Service Level Requirements

Explanation

Question 3 of 40

1

In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)

  • B. Capacity Plan

  • C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)

  • D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)

Explanation

Question 4 of 40

1

Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is unsuccessful?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Remediation Planning

  • B. Categorization

  • C. Prioritization

  • D. Review and Close

Explanation

Question 5 of 40

1

Which statement about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is CORRECT?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The ECAB considers every high priority Request for Change

  • B. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes

  • C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB

  • D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director

Explanation

Question 6 of 40

1

Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Service Level Management

  • B. Change Management

  • C. Incident Management

  • D. Service Asset and Configuration Management

Explanation

Question 7 of 40

1

What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Configuration Baseline

  • B. Project Baseline

  • C. Change Baseline

  • D. Asset Baseline

Explanation

Question 8 of 40

1

Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT?
1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability and the right level of control

Select one of the following:

  • A. 1 only

  • B. 2 only

  • C. Both of the above

  • D. Neither of the above

Explanation

Question 9 of 40

1

Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration
Management?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Describes the topography of the hardware

  • B. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services

  • C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware

  • D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release

Explanation

Question 10 of 40

1

What is the name of the area where the definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration
Items(CIs) are stored and protected?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Definitive Media Library

  • B. Definitive Software Store

  • C. Service Knowledge Management System

  • D. Software Secure Library

Explanation

Question 11 of 40

1

Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Incident Model

  • B. Problem Model

  • C. Configuration Model

  • D. Change Model

Explanation

Question 12 of 40

1

Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

Select one of the following:

  • A. A Service Level Agreement(SLA)

  • B. A Request for Change(RFC)

  • C. The Service Portfolio

  • D. A Service Description

Explanation

Question 13 of 40

1

Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available

  • B. Only incidents reported to the Service Desk can be logged

  • C. All incidents must be fully logged

  • D. The Service Desk decide which incidents to log

Explanation

Question 14 of 40

1

Which of the following would a Major Problem Review examine?

1. Things that were done correctly
2. Those things that were done incorrectly
3. How to prevent recurrence
4. What could be done better in the future

Select one of the following:

  • A. 1 only

  • B. 2 and 3 only

  • C. 1, 2 and 4 only

  • D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 15 of 40

1

Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Categorization

  • B. Logging

  • C. Prioritization

  • D. Closure

Explanation

Question 16 of 40

1

Which of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Definitive Media Library (DML)

  • B. Configuration Management System (CMS)

  • C. Statement of Requirements (SOR)

  • D. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

Explanation

Question 17 of 40

1

Identify the input to the Problem Management process

Select one of the following:

  • A. Request for Change

  • B. Problem Resolution

  • C. Incident Records

  • D. New Known Errors

Explanation

Question 18 of 40

1

What are the two major processes in Problem Management?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Technical and Service

  • B. Resource and Proactive

  • C. Reactive and Technical

  • D. Proactive and Reactive

Explanation

Question 19 of 40

1

Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Service Level Management

  • B. Problem Management

  • C. Change Management

  • D. Event Management

Explanation

Question 20 of 40

1

With which process is Problem Management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Incident Management

  • B. Service Asset and Configuration Management

  • C. Capacity Management

  • D. IT Service Continuity

Explanation

Question 21 of 40

1

Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernable trends?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Service Level Management

  • B. Problem Management

  • C. Change Management

  • D. Event Management

Explanation

Question 22 of 40

1

Which process is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Availability Management

  • B. Demand Management

  • C. Financial Management

  • D. Service Level Management

Explanation

Question 23 of 40

1

As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of
the following service provider types?

1. An internal service provider embedded within a business unit
2. An internal service provider that provides shared IT services
3. An external service provider

Select one of the following:

  • A. All of the above

  • B. 1 and 2 only

  • C. 1 and 3 only

  • D. 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Question 24 of 40

1

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Select one of the following:

  • A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management has been established

  • B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management

  • C. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established at the same time

  • D. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party provider

Explanation

Question 25 of 40

1

Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The Asset Register

  • B. The Service Knowledge Management System

  • C. The Known Error Database

  • D. The Information Management System

Explanation

Question 26 of 40

1

Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Review and analyse Service Level Achievement results

  • B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes

  • C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction

  • D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users

Explanation

Question 27 of 40

1

Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?

1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability

Select one of the following:

  • A. All of the above

  • B. 1 and 2 only

  • C. 1 and 3 only

  • D. 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Question 28 of 40

1

Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The value of a service

  • B. Customer satisfaction

  • C. Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)

  • D. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

Explanation

Question 29 of 40

1

What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Rapid, one-off improvement

  • B. Return on investment within 12 months

  • C. Quick wins

  • D. Steady, ongoing improvement

Explanation

Question 30 of 40

1

"Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose of
which part of the Service Lifecycle?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Service Operation

  • B. Service Strategy

  • C. Service Transition

  • D. Continual Service Improvement

Explanation

Question 31 of 40

1

Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Service Strategy

  • B. Continual Service Improvement

  • C. Service Operation

  • D. Service Design

Explanation

Question 32 of 40

1

The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service Lifecycle?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Continual Service Improvement

  • B. Service Strategy

  • C. Service Design

  • D. Service Transition

Explanation

Question 33 of 40

1

Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Do

  • B. Perform

  • C. Implement

  • D. Measure

Explanation

Question 34 of 40

1

Undertaking a gap analysis is a key activity within which part of the Deming Cycle for improving services and service management processes?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Plan

  • B. Do

  • C. Check

  • D. Act

Explanation

Question 35 of 40

1

Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue

  • B. The design of new or changed services

  • C. The design of Market Spaces

  • D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems

Explanation

Question 36 of 40

1

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

Select one of the following:

  • A. It is measurable

  • B. Delivers specific results

  • C. Responds to specific events

  • D. A method of structuring an organization

Explanation

Question 37 of 40

1

Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Knowledge

  • B. Information

  • C. Wisdom

  • D. Data

Explanation

Question 38 of 40

1

There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of
processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below?
1. Progress
2. Effectiveness
3. Efficiency
4. ?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Cost

  • B. Conformance

  • C. Compliance

  • D. Capacity

Explanation

Question 39 of 40

1

Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The Service Level Manager

  • B. The IT Service Continuity Manager

  • C. The Service Catalogue Manager

  • D. The Supplier Manager

Explanation

Question 40 of 40

1

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Select one of the following:

  • A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management has been established

  • B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management

  • C. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established at the same time

  • D. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party provider

Explanation

Previous
Next