Diana Flores
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Diana Flores
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Pharm exam #3

Question 1 of 96

1

Which of the following is not safe during pregnancy?

Select one of the following:

  • ACEI

  • ARB

  • Aliskiren

  • None are safe during pregnancy

Explanation

Question 2 of 96

1

Which of the following metabolic changes is not seen with use of loop diuretics?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease in Ca

  • Decrease in K

  • Increase in Mg

  • Increase in Glucose

Explanation

Question 3 of 96

1

Which of the following is not a side effect of thiazides?

Select one of the following:

  • Hyponatremia

  • Metabolic alkalosis

  • Hypouricemia

  • Sexual dysfunction

Explanation

Question 4 of 96

1

Which of the following G IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists has a long half life and is irreversible?

Select one of the following:

  • ASA

  • Tirofiban

  • Abciximab

  • Eptifibatide

Explanation

Question 5 of 96

1

Which of the following is not a side effect of osmostic diuretics?

Select one of the following:

  • Electrolyte imbalance

  • Anuria

  • Local pain and venous irritation

  • Acute renal failure

Explanation

Question 6 of 96

1

Which of the following is a characteristic of LMWH?

Select one of the following:

  • Low bioavailability

  • Monitored with PTT

  • Inexpensive

  • Renally excreted

Explanation

Question 7 of 96

1

Which of the following is not a side effect of Aliskiren?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease in uric acid

  • Diarrhea

  • Abdominal pain

  • Angioedema

Explanation

Question 8 of 96

1

Which of the following is not correct regarding eplerenone?

Select one of the following:

  • It is more expensive than spironolactone

  • Less endocrine-related side effects than spironolactone

  • Lower chance of hyperkalemia

  • Higher affinity for aldosterone receptors

Explanation

Question 9 of 96

1

Which of the following is not a side effect of ACEI?

Select one of the following:

  • Cough

  • Hypotension

  • Gynecomastia

  • Hyperkalemia

Explanation

Question 10 of 96

1

Acetazolamide causes metabolic alkalosis because you excrete bicarbonate, and therefore it is best to administer this diuretic to metabolic acidic patients.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 11 of 96

1

Which of the following are better to avoid with use of potassium-sparing diuretics?

Select one of the following:

  • ACEI

  • Lithium

  • Eplerenone

  • Amiloride

Explanation

Question 12 of 96

1

Choose which of the following you would administer to a CKD patient

Select one or more of the following:

  • Thiazide

  • CCB

  • ACEI

  • ARB

Explanation

Question 13 of 96

1

Which of the following diuretics act on the distal convoluted tubule to block sodium reabsorption?

Select one of the following:

  • Aldosterone antagonists

  • Thiazides

  • Loop diuretics

  • CAIs

Explanation

Question 14 of 96

1

You always have drug interactions with NSAIDS with use of diurectics because they inhibit prostaglandins which antagonizes the action of diurectics

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 15 of 96

1

Which diuretic would you not want to use in a patient who has gout?

Select one of the following:

  • Loop diuretics

  • Sodium channel blockers

  • Aldosterone receptor antagonists

  • Thiazides

Explanation

Question 16 of 96

1

How does Conivaptan promote free water diuresis?

Select one of the following:

  • By stimulating cGMP resulting in vascular smooth muscle relaxation

  • By being excreted unchanged and causing water to be retained within the proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle due to the freely permeable water

  • By blocking the epithelial sodium channels on principal cells and cause sodium excretion

  • By antagonizing vasopressing

Explanation

Question 17 of 96

1

Lisinopril antagonizes the AT1 receptor

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 18 of 96

1

Which of the following metabolic changes would you see with the use of a thiazide?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase Mg

  • Increase Ca

  • Decrease glucose

  • Increase in potassium

Explanation

Question 19 of 96

1

Hydrochlorthiazide is used more than chlorthalidone because it is more potent and research has shown that it produces a greater reduction in systolic blood pressure.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 20 of 96

1

In which of the following conditions would not benefit from the use of vasopressin receptor antagonists?

Select one of the following:

  • Urinary frequency

  • CHF

  • cirrhosis

  • SIADH

Explanation

Question 21 of 96

1

Which of the following is a side effect Bosentan?

Select one of the following:

  • Epistaxis

  • Visual disturbances

  • Liver cirrhosis

  • Dyspepsia

Explanation

Question 22 of 96

1

Which of the following would require careful dosing in a renal failure patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Fondaparinux

  • Abciximab

  • Warfarin

  • Argatraban

Explanation

Question 23 of 96

1

Which of the following drug combinations would not be beneficial?

Select one of the following:

  • Metolazone and Bumetanide

  • HCTZ and ARB

  • ACEI and ARBs

  • Furosemide and Lisinopril

Explanation

Question 24 of 96

1

Liver toxicity is a side effect of tolvaptan?

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 25 of 96

1

Which of the following have short half-lives

Select one or more of the following:

  • UFH

  • Warfarin

  • ASA

  • Fondaparinux

  • Vorapaxar

  • Abciximab

  • Eptifibatide

  • Tirofiban

Explanation

Question 26 of 96

1

Why do we need to overlap warfarin and heparin or LMWH in a patient with a new VTE?

Select one of the following:

  • Because you want to deactivate antithrombin

  • It takes about 5 days to replace activated clotting factors with dysfunctional clotting factors

  • It takes about 5 days to replace Protein C and Protein S

  • You should never overlap warfarin with LMWH or UFH

Explanation

Question 27 of 96

1

Which of the following antiplatelets can cause dyspnea?

Select one of the following:

  • Prasugrel

  • Ticagrelor

  • Clopidogrel

  • Ticlopidine

Explanation

Question 28 of 96

1

Which of the following prostanoids can cause epistaxis?

Select one of the following:

  • Epoprosternol

  • Iloprost

  • Treprostinil (Remodulin)

  • Treprostinil (Tyvaso)

Explanation

Question 29 of 96

1

Which of the following is safe during lactation?

Select one of the following:

  • Dabigatran

  • Direct X inhibitors

  • Warfarin

  • Indirect X inhibitors

Explanation

Question 30 of 96

1

Which of the following antiplatelets can be used when a patient has had a cardiac event while taking clopidogrel?

Select one of the following:

  • Ticlopidine

  • Ticagrelor

  • Prasugrel

  • UFH

Explanation

Question 31 of 96

1

Which of the following antiplatelets is used with aspirin in post-ACS patients?

Select one of the following:

  • Ticagrelor

  • Ticlopidine

  • Prasugrel

  • Clopidogrel

Explanation

Question 32 of 96

1

Liver toxicity is a side effect of conivaptan

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 33 of 96

1

Which of the following antiplatelets is hardly used in clinical practice and can cause neutropenia?

Select one of the following:

  • Ticagrelor

  • Clopidogrel

  • Prasugrel

  • Ticlopidine

Explanation

Question 34 of 96

1

Which of the following antiplatelets is contraindicated for patients with a history of stroke/TIA?

Select one of the following:

  • Prasugrel

  • Ticagrelor

  • Clopidogrel

  • Ticlopidine

Explanation

Question 35 of 96

1

Ranolazine can be used ONLY in acute angina attacks

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 36 of 96

1

It is important to hold indirect factor X inhibitors for at least 48 hours

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 37 of 96

1

Why is it important to place a patient who develops HIT on another anticoagulant?

Select one of the following:

  • To decrease the platelet count.

  • To prevent a prothrombotic condition

  • To prevent bleeding.

  • To induce a prothrombotic condition

Explanation

Question 38 of 96

1

Which of the following is not part of the treatment for HIT?

Select one of the following:

  • Stop heparin products

  • Stop warfarin until platelet count is above 150,000

  • Use alternative anticoagulants

  • Give a high dose of warfarin when restarting

Explanation

Question 39 of 96

1

Which of the following drugs can cause serious cardiovascular and thromboemolic events if dose and hemoglobin range is not taken into account?

Select one of the following:

  • Calcitriol

  • ERAs

  • ESAs

  • Dopamine

Explanation

Question 40 of 96

1

Which of the following is not a characteristic of argatraban?

Select one of the following:

  • Monitored by PTT

  • Hepatic elimination

  • Decrease in INR

  • Can be used for treatment of HIT

Explanation

Question 41 of 96

1

Which of the following is absolutely not safe during pregnancy?

Select one of the following:

  • Warfarin

  • Heparin/LMWH

  • Fondaparinux

  • IV DTIs

Explanation

Question 42 of 96

1

Which of the following is correct regarding warfarin?

Select one of the following:

  • It causes less GI bleeding than dabigatran

  • It causes more GI bleed than Rivaroxaban

  • It causes less GI bleeds than Apixaban

  • It causes less ICH in Direct Factor X inhibitors and Dabigatran

Explanation

Question 43 of 96

1

How long should one hold warfarin before major surgery

Select one of the following:

  • 24 hours

  • 48 hours

  • 6 hours

  • 5 days

Explanation

Question 44 of 96

1

Which of the following has no reversal agent or is irreversible?

Select one of the following:

  • LMHW

  • UFH

  • Warfarin

  • Rivaroxaban

Explanation

Question 45 of 96

1

Which of the following is not a side effect of Acetazolamide?

Select one of the following:

  • Metabolic acidosis

  • Kidney stones

  • Paresthesia

  • Hypernatremia

Explanation

Question 46 of 96

1

Which of the following is NOT a cause for concern of sodium nitroprusside-induce cyanide toxicity?

Select one of the following:

  • Renal dysfunction

  • Increasing dose during therapy

  • Post-MI

  • Increasing duration of therapy

Explanation

Question 47 of 96

1

Which of the following is true about SELECTIVE beta blockers? Choose all that apply:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Safe to use in COPD patients

  • Has a slightly better metabolic effect

  • Loses selectivity at lower doses

  • Has little effect in patients with reversible airway disease

Explanation

Question 48 of 96

1

Which of the following is a correct rationale as to why we would use a beta blocker to treat MI/angina peri-operatively? Choose all that apply:

Select one or more of the following:

  • To decrease production of aqueous humor

  • To decrease HR

  • To decrease contractility

  • To decrease portal hypertension

  • To inhibit vasodilatation or arteriolar spasms over the cortex

  • To decrease oxygen demand

Explanation

Question 49 of 96

1

Which of the following is not a characteristic of fondaparinux?

Select one of the following:

  • It directly affects factor X

  • It is renally excreted

  • It has a long half-life, so not good for bridging with warfarin

  • There is still risk of HIT

Explanation

Question 50 of 96

1

The benefit to using calcitriol over vitamin D analogs is that it can decrease the chance of hypercalcemia and hyperphosphetemia.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 51 of 96

1

Which of the following are nonselective beta blockers? Choose all that apply:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Atenolol

  • Carvedilol

  • Propranolol

  • Metoprolol

  • Nadolol

  • Timolol

  • Labetalol

  • Satelol

Explanation

Question 52 of 96

1

Which of the following diuretics is the most potent?

Select one of the following:

  • Thiazides

  • Potassium-sparing diuretics

  • Loop diuretics

  • Sodium channel blockers

Explanation

Question 53 of 96

1

Which of the following is correct regarding warfarin reversal agents?

Select one of the following:

  • PCC are more efficient than FFP

  • PCC is usually given in a large volume

  • FFP and PCC are given with Vitamin K

  • FFP has larger risk of thrombosis

Explanation

Question 54 of 96

1

Which of the following is a side effect of hydralazine ONLY?

Select one of the following:

  • Sodium and water retention

  • Hypertrichosis

  • Precipitation of angina

  • Induced MI

Explanation

Question 55 of 96

1

Which of the following would you never want to give with nitrates due to their drug interaction?

Select one of the following:

  • Prostanoids

  • ERAs

  • Hydralazine

  • PDE-5 drugs

Explanation

Question 56 of 96

1

Which of the following prostanoids can cause sepsis?

Select one of the following:

  • Epoprostenol

  • Treprostinil (Remodulin)

  • Iloprost

  • Trerostinil (Tyvaso)

Explanation

Question 57 of 96

1

Which of the following prostanoids can cause severe hypotension?

Select one of the following:

  • Epoprostenol

  • Treprostinil (Remodulin)

  • Treprostinil (Tyvaso)

  • Ilioprost

Explanation

Question 58 of 96

1

Treprostinil (Tyvaso) is an inhaled prostenoid

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 59 of 96

1

Which of the following are NOT safe to use during pregnancy? Choose all that apply:

Select one or more of the following:

  • PDE-5 drugs

  • Sodium nitroprusside

  • ERAs

  • Prostenoids

  • Riociguat

Explanation

Question 60 of 96

1

Which of the following antiplatelets works by inhibiting ADP receptor?

Select one of the following:

  • GP IIb/IIIA inhibitors

  • Vorapaxar

  • P2Y12 inhibitors

  • ASA

Explanation

Question 61 of 96

1

Why are endothelin receptor antagonists used as a cardiac drug?

Select one of the following:

  • It's ability to block ETB receptor

  • Because of its vasoconstricting effects

  • Because of its ability to release NO to cause vasodilation

  • It's ability to block ETA receptor

Explanation

Question 62 of 96

1

Which of the following causes an increase in INR?

Select one of the following:

  • Dabigatran

  • Hypothyroidism

  • Bactrim with use of warfarin

  • Short gut syndrome

Explanation

Question 63 of 96

1

Nitrate tolerance can be fixed by having a nitrate-free period lasting from 4-8 hours

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 64 of 96

1

How do calcium-channel blockers cause decrease in contractility, SA node rate, and AV node conduction velocity?

Select one of the following:

  • By blocking sodium influx, causing calcium overload through the sodium/calcium exchanger

  • Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in arterial smooth muscle leading to decrease in afterload

  • Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in venous smooth muscle leading to decrease in afterload

  • Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in venous smooth muscle leading to decrease in preload

Explanation

Question 65 of 96

1

When using dihydropyridines, one must be careful when using it with digoxin and beta blockers, as this may cause additive negative effects on cardiac conduction

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 66 of 96

1

Which of the following is correct regarding nitrates and their mechanism of action?

Select one of the following:

  • They cause arterial dilation

  • They are denitrated to NO, increasing cGMP and causing increase in dilation

  • They are denitrated to NO, decreasing cGMP and causing increase in dilation

  • Releases NO from the drug itself, causing vasodilation

Explanation

Question 67 of 96

1

Which of the following is a reason for loss of response to ESA therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Hypertension

  • Benign process

  • Iron deficiency

  • Pure white cell aplasia

Explanation

Question 68 of 96

1

Which of the following adrenergic agonists can cause a decrease in renal blood flow as an adverse effect?

Select one of the following:

  • Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

  • Dobutamine and Epinephrine

  • Norepinephrine and Dopamine

  • Phenylephrine and Dobutamine

Explanation

Question 69 of 96

1

Which of the following adrenergic agonists can cause reflex bradycardia?

Select one of the following:

  • Dobutamine

  • Epinephrine

  • Phenylephrine

  • Dopamine

Explanation

Question 70 of 96

1

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of alpha-1 adrenergic blockers?

Select one of the following:

  • Floppy Iris Syndrome

  • Prolonged QT interval

  • Bradycardia

  • Orthostatic hypertension

Explanation

Question 71 of 96

1

ARBs are not used as first line therapy despite the less occurrence of side effects.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 72 of 96

1

Which of the following is not a side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics?

Select one of the following:

  • GI symptoms

  • Ototoxicity

  • Metabolic acidosis

  • Hyperkalemia

Explanation

Question 73 of 96

1

Which of the following IV iron products can alter magnetic resonance imaging studies?

Select one of the following:

  • Iron dextran

  • Ferric gluconate

  • Ferumoxytol

  • Ferric carboxymaltose

Explanation

Question 74 of 96

1

Which of the following IV iron products can cause an anaphylactic reaction?

Select one of the following:

  • Iron dextran

  • Ferric gluconate

  • Ferumoxytol

  • Ferric carboxymaltose

Explanation

Question 75 of 96

1

Iron sucrose is given in divided doses, about 10 dialysis sessions

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 76 of 96

1

Which of the following is not a side effect of loop diuretics?

Select one of the following:

  • Hypomagnesemia

  • Hypocalcemia

  • Hypernatremia

  • Ototoxicity

Explanation

Question 77 of 96

1

Which of following phosphate binders can cause metabolic acidosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Calcium carbonate

  • Calcium acetate

  • Renagel

  • Renvela

Explanation

Question 78 of 96

1

Aliskiren inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 79 of 96

1

Ranolazine inhibits myocardial cell sodium/calcium exchanger, preventing ischemia-induced contractile dysfunction and delaying the onset of angina

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 80 of 96

1

Which of the following a Class I drug?

Select one of the following:

  • Propafenone

  • Propranolol

  • Amiodarone

  • Diltiazem

Explanation

Question 81 of 96

1

Dronedarone is a

Select one of the following:

  • beta-blocker

  • potassium channel blocker

  • sodium channel blocker

  • calcium channel blocker

Explanation

Question 82 of 96

1

Lidocaine is

Select one of the following:

  • for atrial arrhythmias

  • the strongest among the sodium channel blockers

  • used as a local anesthetic

  • a class IC drug

Explanation

Question 83 of 96

1

Which is the best drug for use in patients with CHF or structural heart disease?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Flecainide

  • Propafenone

  • Amiodarone

  • Verapamil

  • Dofetilide

Explanation

Question 84 of 96

1

Choose all that would be used for cardioversion of atrial fibrillation.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Dofetilide

  • Ibutilide

  • Verapamil

  • Procainamide

  • Lidocaine

  • Digoxin

Explanation

Question 85 of 96

1

Which of the following is a side effects of Amiodarone?

Select one of the following:

  • Pulmonary fibrosis

  • Increase in iodine

  • Photosensitivity

  • These are all side effects of Amiodarone

Explanation

Question 86 of 96

1

Which of the following has beta-blocking activity?

Select one of the following:

  • Propafenone

  • Flecainide

  • Ibutilide

  • Procainamide

Explanation

Question 87 of 96

1

Which of the following does NOT rely on renal function for elimination

Select one of the following:

  • Sotalol

  • Dofetilide

  • Digoxin

  • Amiodarone

Explanation

Question 88 of 96

1

How does adenosine function in stress testing?

Select one of the following:

  • Causes vasodilation in healthy arteries, revealing the diseased coronary arteries

  • Causes vasoconstriction in healthy arteries, revealing the diseased coronary arteries

  • Causes vasodilation in diseased arteries, revealing the healthy coronary arteries

  • Causes vasoconstriction in diseased arteries, revealing healthy coronary arteries

Explanation

Question 89 of 96

1

Which of the following is correct regarding digoxin?

Select one of the following:

  • Inhibits potassium channels, decreasing intracellular potassium

  • Inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase, increasing sodium concentration thereby increasing calcium concentration

  • Causes negative inotropic effects

  • Causes positive dromotropic/chronotropic effects

Explanation

Question 90 of 96

1

Choose which of the following is true for Amiodarone

Select one or more of the following:

  • Shorter half life than dronedarone

  • Slightly more effective than dronedarone in Afib patients

  • High risk of side effects

  • More GI side effects

  • I2 in structure and effects thyroid

  • Does not have negative inotropic effects

  • Cannot be used for CHF

Explanation

Question 91 of 96

1

How do calcium channel blockers work as antiarrhythmics?

Select one of the following:

  • They dilate arterial smooth muscle

  • Mostly effects the sodium channels in atrial and ventricular tissues and Purkinjie fibers

  • Acts on the SA and AV node

  • Blocks sodium channels

Explanation

Question 92 of 96

1

Which of the following is correct regarding the use of beta blockers perioperatively?

Select one of the following:

  • Should be continued in patients who are already on a beta blocker

  • Use of them perioperatively in any situation is standard of practice

  • Perioperative beta blockage started within one day or less before noncardiac surgery decreases risk of stroke, death, hypotension, and bradycardia

  • It is not a clinical contreversy

Explanation

Question 93 of 96

1

Which of the following drugs should you be cautious due to chance of developing QT prolongation?

Select one of the following:

  • Dronedarone

  • Beta-blockers

  • Felcainide

  • Digoxin

Explanation

Question 94 of 96

1

Which of the following drug classes could cause Torsades de Pointes?

Select one of the following:

  • Beta blockers

  • Class IA drugs

  • Class IB drugs

  • Calcium channel blockers

Explanation

Question 95 of 96

1

Which of the following drugs can be used for ventricular arrhythmias?

Select one of the following:

  • Propafenone

  • Digoxin

  • Dofetilide

  • Ibutilide

Explanation

Question 96 of 96

1

Which of the following CANNOT be used for cardioversion?

Select one of the following:

  • Dofetilide

  • Ibutilide

  • Propafenone

  • Verapamil

Explanation

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