Aldo Gomez
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Quiz on Veeam Test 3, created by Aldo Gomez on 14/09/2020.

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Aldo Gomez
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Veeam Test 3

Question 1 of 25

1

- Complete Visibility - Provides Monitoring and Alerting tools so that you can discover and be alerted to issues and potential problems in your Infrastructure.

- Data Loss Avoidance - Avoids data loss by enabling low recovery point objectives (RPOs) of <15 minutes

- Verified Recoverability - Ensures that files, applications and virtual servers can be reliably restored when needed.

- High Speed Recovery - Enables low RTO of <15 minutes. Enables rapid recovery of data.

- Leveraged Data - Eliminates the risks associated with application deployment, configuration changes and other testing scenarios.

Determine whether the given solution is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Correct

  • Incorrect

Explanation

Question 2 of 25

1

For VMware VMs with hardware version __ or later, Veeam employs VMware vSphere Change Block tracking:

Select one of the following:

  • 6 or later

  • 5 or later

  • 4 or later

  • 7 or later

Explanation

Question 3 of 25

1

Guest OS interaction is not performed is if you enable:

Select one of the following:

  • Guest file system indexing

  • Exclusion Processing settings

  • Application-Aware processing

  • Transaction Logs processing

Explanation

Question 4 of 25

1

How is the ping test performed?

Select one of the following:

  • Veeam Backup and Replication tests the VMkernel network with the vmkping command

  • Veeam Backup and Replication checks if the VM in the virtual job responds to ping requests

  • The backup administrator needs to run a CMD ping command

  • Veeam Backup and Replication runs a user provided ping script to check if the VM responds to ping requests

  • Veeam Backup and Replication checks the network to confirm any new activity

Explanation

Question 5 of 25

1

Which Backup Mode forces deleted VMs to be purged from Backup Repository, when (deleted) VM Retention policy is active?
(select two)

Select one or more of the following:

  • All Forward Incremental

  • Forward Incremental - Synthetic Full with transform

  • Forward Incremental - Active full

  • Reverse Incremental

  • Forward Incremental - Synthetic Full without transform

Explanation

Question 6 of 25

1

Veeam Backup & Replication in-line deduplication is most helpful when:
(Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • VMware vSphere Changed Block Tracking is disabled

  • VMs that need to be backed up have a lot of free space on their disks

  • VMs are created from the same template and Per-VM Backup Files are disabled

  • VMs that need to be backed up are highly transactional

Explanation

Question 7 of 25

1

Why is it recommended to install Veeam ONE before Veeam Backup & Replication?

Select one of the following:

  • VeeamONE can verify the server you’re going to install Veeam Backup and Replication on meets all system requirements

  • Veeam ONE is a prerequisite for Veeam Backup & Replication installation

  • Veeam ONE can access the infrastructure for potential issues prior to performing backup

  • It is recommended to add all of the servers involved in the backup process to Veeam ONE first, and then import the configuration to Veeam Backup & Replication

Explanation

Question 8 of 25

1

Which repository does not support Data mover services

Select one of the following:

  • Deduplication storage

  • Windows Server

  • CIFS

  • Linux

Explanation

Question 9 of 25

1

Settings for a VEEAM Zip cannot be modified on Veeam Plugin. The setting will need to be modified on Enterprise Manager or the Backup Management.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 10 of 25

1

For Hyper-V VMs that use 2012 and below, Veeam backup and replication uses Resilient Changed Tracking (RCT)

Select one of the following:

  • False

  • True

Explanation

Question 11 of 25

1

Which of the following applications should be backed up using pre-freeze and post-thaw scripts to ensure transactional consistency?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lotus Domino

  • Microsoft SQL Server

  • Microsoft Exchange

  • Microsoft Active Directory

  • MySQL

Explanation

Question 12 of 25

1

What advantage would be served by using Backup from Storage Snapshots on NetApp SnapMirror or SnapVault?

Select one of the following:

  • To minimize the load on the backup storage during the backup process

  • To maximize deduplication

  • To minimize the load on the production storage during the backup process

  • To minimize the space that the resulting backup chain occupies on the backup storage

Explanation

Question 13 of 25

1

Can Universal Application-Item Recovery (U-AIR) be performed in the absence of a Virtual Lab?

Select one of the following:

  • Yes, if the proper infrastructure is configured.

  • No, a Virtual Lab is always required.

  • Yes, but only with a configured application group.

Explanation

Question 14 of 25

1

Which of the following refers to the situation when the retention is breached on a forever forward incremental backup?

Select one of the following:

  • Veeam Backup & Replication immediately deletes the earliest increment, no transform operation is involved.

  • Veeam Backup & Replication deletesthe oldest full backup file with the following chain of increments.

  • A transform operation re-builds the oldest full backup file in the chain to include changes of the incremental backup following the full backup.

  • A new .vib file is created, no transform operation is involved.

Explanation

Question 15 of 25

1

What is the name of the process Veeam creates for each remote console session?

Select one of the following:

  • Transport

  • Gateway

  • Satellite

  • Data Mover

Explanation

Question 16 of 25

1

Which of the following statements are true when considering the Forever Forward Incremental backup method, on a NTFS-based backup repository?
(Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • The merge process can cause a heavy I/Q load on the repository

  • Even when retention is breached, only sequential writes to the backup repository are performed

  • The most recent restore point in the backup chain is always a full backup

  • In between job run, the storage always contains the number of restore points indicated in the backup job settings

Explanation

Question 17 of 25

1

During SureBackup verification, a backed up VMware vSphere VM image remains in a read-only state. All changes that take place while the VM is running are written to redo log files that are stored ______.

When the recovery verification process is complete, the redo logs are removed.

Select one or more of the following:

  • On the Backup Repository, storing the backed up VM image.

  • On a datastore in the production environment, specified in Virtual Lab settings.

  • In the vPower NFS folder, specified for the Backup Repository storing the backed up VM image

  • On the same datastore in the production environment as the production VM

Explanation

Question 18 of 25

1

Which of the following can be added as Backup Repositories?
(select three)

Select one or more of the following:

  • NFS

  • CIFS

  • SMBv3

  • Linux Server

  • Microsoft Windows Server

Explanation

Question 19 of 25

1

Which is the best definition for production checkpoints:

Select one of the following:

  • Production checkpoints are segments of a backup in progress.

  • Production checkpoints are another name for replica

  • Production checkpoints are incremental backups in a chain

  • Production checkpoints are point in time images of VMs

Explanation

Question 20 of 25

1

Which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs can be set up to support GFS retention?
(Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Backup Copy

  • Replication

  • Configuration Backup

  • Backup to tape

  • Backup

Explanation

Question 21 of 25

1

Match the entities:

- Application Group: Started together with VMs on which the VM depends on

- Virtual Lab: Isolated Virtual environment

- SureBackup job: Task to run the recovery verification

Determine whether the given solution is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Correct

  • Incorrect

Explanation

Question 22 of 25

1

Which of the following statements about Oracle Transaction Log Backup are true?
(Choose the 3 appropriate options.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • The database must have ARCHIVELOG mode enabled to support restore to selected point in time

  • Oracle Express Databases are supported both on Linux and Microsoft Windows servers

  • Automatic Storage Management (ASM) is supported for Oracle 11g and later

  • The database must have ARCHIVELOG mode disabled to support restore to selected point in time

  • Oracle Express Databases are supported if running on Microsoft Windows machines only

  • Automatic Storage Management (ASM) is supported for Oracle 12c and later

Explanation

Question 23 of 25

1

A Backup Administrator is looking to achieve minimal RPO. Which of the following setups is most appropriate?

Select one of the following:

  • Backup jobs are performed on a regular basis

  • Each backup job serves as a source for an appropriate replication job

  • Backup jobs run continuously

  • Backup jobs can be started manually at any time

Explanation

Question 24 of 25

1

Which statement best describes Virtual Lab Manager?

Select one of the following:

  • A special tool used to manage Virtual Lab requests that can also run on client workstations

  • A free tool offered by Veeam to the community for automating deployment of a home lab setup, including VMware vSphere ESXi and VMware vCenter Server

  • A special tool used to perform Multi-OS File-Level Recovery in a Virtual Lab

  • A special tool used to check Virtual Lab performance

Explanation

Question 25 of 25

1

A scale-out backup repository is configured with data locality policy. How is an extent selected during an active full backup?
(Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Always the same extent as the previous full backup

  • An extent determined based on load control settings and free space

  • A different extent from the previous chain to avoid single point of failure, if possible on free space

  • It tries the same location as the previous full if using a deduplication appliance

Explanation

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