CISCO 200 -120

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Question 1 of 294

Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. multicast
B. broadcast
C. allcast
D. podcast
E. anycast

Explanation

Question 2 of 294

The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. telnet access does not require a password
B. nat
C. no broadcast
D. change of destination address in the IPv6 header
E. change of source address in the IPv6 header
F. autoconfiguration

Explanation

Question 3 of 294

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing tables.
B. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
C. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
D. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
E. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
F. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables using automatic updates.
G. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.

Explanation

Question 4 of 294

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?

Select one of the following:

A. 8
B. 16
D. unlimited
E. 4

Explanation

Question 5 of 294

On which options are standard access lists based?

Select one of the following:

A. destination address and wildcard mask
B. destination address and subnet mask
C. source address and subnet mask
D. source address and wildcard mask

Explanation

Question 6 of 294

What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

Select one of the following:

A. 10.0.0.0/21
B. 10.0.0.0/22
C. 10.0.0.0/23
D. 10.0.0.0/24

Explanation

Question 7 of 294

Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. added security
B. dedicated bandwidth
C. provides segmentation
D. allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces
E. contains collisions

Explanation

Question 8 of 294

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?

Select one of the following:

A. ping address
B. tracert address
C. traceroute address
D. arp address

Explanation

Question 9 of 294

How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?

Select one of the following:

A. one
B. six
C. twelve
D. two

Explanation

Question 10 of 294

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

Explanation

Question 11 of 294

What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Explanation

Question 12 of 294

What can be determined about the router from the console output?

Select one of the following:

A. No configuration file was found in NVRAM.
B. No configuration file was found in flash.
C. No configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card.
D. Configuration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds.

Explanation

Question 13 of 294

An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface command immediately removes the effect of ACL 102?

Select one of the following:

A. no ip access-class 102 in
B. no ip access-class 102 out
C. no ip access-group 102 in
D. no ip access-group 102 out
E. no ip access-list 102 in

Explanation

Question 14 of 294

What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?

Select one of the following:

A. 0000.0C07.AC01
B. 0000.5E00.0110
C. 0007.B400.1203
D. 0000.C007.0201

Explanation

Question 15 of 294

In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?

Select one of the following:

A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.

Explanation

Question 16 of 294

Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server. Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?

Select one of the following:

A. The network has not fully converged.
B. IP routing is not enabled.
C. A static route is configured incorrectly.
D. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled
E. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.
F. The routing table on Coffee has not updated.

Explanation

Question 17 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

Explanation

Question 18 of 294

What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Flash
B. The logging buffer RAM
C. The console terminal
D. Other terminals
E. Syslog server

Explanation

Question 19 of 294

Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?

Select one of the following:

A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address
D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority
F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority

Explanation

Question 20 of 294

Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Message Integrity
B. Compression
C. Authentication
D. Encryption
E. Error Detection

Explanation

Question 21 of 294

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Router(config)#router ospf 1
B. Router(config)#router ospf 0
C. Router(config)#router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
E. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
F. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Explanation

Question 22 of 294

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers

Explanation

Question 23 of 294

Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. show interfaces trunk
B. show interfaces switchport
C. show ip interface brief
D. show interfaces vlan

Explanation

Question 24 of 294

When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use to verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL?

Select one of the following:

A. show ip access-lists
B. show access-lists
C. show interface
D. show ip interface
E. list ip interface

Explanation

Question 25 of 294

Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?

Select one of the following:

A. The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid
B. Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image.
C. Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.
D. In order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image in flash.

Explanation

Question 26 of 294

What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Network, Application & User Monitoring
B. Network Planning
C. Security Analysis
D. Accounting/Billing

Explanation

Question 27 of 294

What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?

Select one of the following:

A. show ip flow export
B. show ip flow top-talkers
C. show ip cache flow
D. show mls sampling
E. show mls netflow ip

Explanation

Question 28 of 294

Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?

Select one of the following:

A. traced address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address

Explanation

Question 29 of 294

In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?

Select one of the following:

A. after broken links are re-established
B. in an improperly implemented redundant topology
C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D. during high traffic periods
E. when a dual ring topology is in use

Explanation

Question 30 of 294

What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?

Select one of the following:

A. HMAC - MD5
B. HMAC -SHA
C. CBC-DES
D. Community Strings

Explanation

Question 31 of 294

Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device?

Select one of the following:

A. Netflow
B. WCCP
C. IP SLA
D. SNMP

Explanation

Question 32 of 294

Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?

Select one of the following:

A. VLANs have not been created yet.
B. An IP address must be configured for the port.
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E. The no shutdown command has not been entered for the port.

Explanation

Question 33 of 294

Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigning IP addresses by the DHCP server?

Select one of the following:

A. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.
B. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the hosts uses the same address at all times.
C. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time, at the end of the period, a new request for an address must be made.
D. Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the DHCP server to renew the lease.*

Explanation

Question 34 of 294

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

Select one of the following:

A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application

Explanation

Question 35 of 294

What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. MIB
B. agent
C. set
D. AES
E. supervisor
F. manager

Explanation

Question 36 of 294

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure
B. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains,thus increasing their size.
C. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic.
D. Port-based vlans increase switch-port use efficient,thanks to 802.1Q trunks
E. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure
F. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains,thus reducing their size.
G. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups,because the vlans all belong to the same broadcast domain.

Explanation

Question 37 of 294

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

Select one or more of the following:

A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost

Explanation

Question 38 of 294

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command interface configuration mode?

Select one of the following:

A. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
B. The command is rejected.
C. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

Explanation

Question 39 of 294

Which WAN protocol is being used?

Select one of the following:

A. ATM
B. HDLC
C. Frame Relay
D. PPP

Explanation

Question 40 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.

Explanation

Question 41 of 294

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

Select one of the following:

A. data link
B. network
C. physical
D. transport

Explanation

Question 42 of 294

Refer to the exhibit:All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

Select one of the following:

A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN
C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.
D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

Explanation

Question 43 of 294

What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?

Select one of the following:

A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.

Explanation

Question 44 of 294

What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. reduced cost
B. better throughput
C. broadband incompatibility
D. increased security
E. scalability
F. reduced latency

Explanation

Question 45 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem?

Select one of the following:

A. SW1’s Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down.
B. There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interfaces.
C. There is an MTU mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interfaces.
D. There is a speed mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interfaces.

Explanation

Question 46 of 294

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each non-root switch in a spanning-tree topology?

Select one of the following:

A. lowest port MAC address
B. port priority number and MAC address.
C. VTP revision number
D. highest port priority number.
E. path cost

Explanation

Question 47 of 294

Which statement is true?

Select one of the following:

A. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.

Explanation

Question 48 of 294

Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. reduces routing table entries
B. auto-negotiation of media rates
C. efficient utilization of MAC addresses
D. dedicated communications between devices
E. ease of management and troubleshooting

Explanation

Question 49 of 294

If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1

Explanation

Question 50 of 294

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconvening time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Explanation

Question 51 of 294

What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow?

Select one or more of the following:

A. IP address
B. Interface name
C. Port numbers
D. L3 protocol type
E. MAC address

Explanation

Question 52 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup-config running-config on the router. The network administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. When the router starts, it enter the system configuration dialog as shown. What is the cause of the problem?

Select one of the following:

A. The network administrator failed to save the configuration.
B. The configuration register is set to 0×2100.
C. The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration.
D. The configuration register is set to 0×2102.
E. The router is configured with the boot system startup command.

Explanation

Question 53 of 294

A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
B. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
D. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
E. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
F. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0

Explanation

Question 54 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?

Select one of the following:

A. 10.0.0.0 /22 is subnetted, 1 subnet
10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
B. 10.0.0.0 /28 is subnetted, 1 subnet
10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
C. 10.0.0.0 /30 is subnetted, 1 subnet
10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
D. 10.0.0.0 /22 is subnetted, 1 subnet
10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
E. 10.0.0.0 /28 is subnetted, 1 subnet
10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
F. 10.0.0.0 /30 is subnetted, 1 subnet
10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1

Explanation

Question 55 of 294

A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?

Select one of the following:

A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut

Explanation

Question 56 of 294

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

Select one of the following:

A. More collision domains will be created.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Explanation

Question 57 of 294

Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?

Select one of the following:

A. ipsec
B. rsa
C. pptp
d.l2tp

Explanation

Question 58 of 294

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

Explanation

Question 59 of 294

What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?

Select one of the following:

A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that foils to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.

Explanation

Question 60 of 294

Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?

Select one of the following:

A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
B. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
C. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
D. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
E. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.

Explanation

Question 61 of 294

Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?

Select one of the following:

A. Q933-A Annex A
B. IETF
C. ANSI Annex D
D. HDLC

Explanation

Question 62 of 294

What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?

Select one of the following:

A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D. network all-interfaces area 0

Explanation

Question 63 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?

Select one of the following:

A. 172.16.0.0/16
B. 172.16.0.0/20
C. 172.16.0.0/24
D. 172.32.0.0/16
E. 172.32.0.0/17
F. 72.64.0.0/16

Explanation

Question 64 of 294

What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?

Select one of the following:

A. response
B. get
C. trap
D. capture

Explanation

Question 65 of 294

Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. They are always present in the NAT table.
B. They allow connection to be initiated from the outside.
C. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside.
D. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.

Explanation

Question 66 of 294

What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?

Select one of the following:

A. source MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source switch port
D. destination IP address
E. destination port address
F. destination MAC address

Explanation

Question 67 of 294

A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. host A IP address: 192.168.1.79
B. host A IP address: 192.168.1.64
C. host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78
D. host B IP address: 192.168.1.128
E. host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
F. host B IP address: 192.168.1.190

Explanation

Question 68 of 294

In the Frame Relay network, which IP addresses whould be assigned to the interfaces with point-to-point PVCs?

Select one of the following:

A. DLCI 16 192.168.10.1/24
DLCI 17 192.168.10.1/24
DLCI 99 192.168.10.2/24
DLCI 28 192.168.10.3/24
B. DLCI 16 192.168.10.1 /24
DLCI 17 192.168.11.1/24
DLCI 99 192.168.12.1/24
DLCI 28 192.168.13.1/24
C. DLCI 16 192.168.10.1/24
DLCI 17 192.168.11.1/24
DLCI 99 192.168.10.2/24
DLCI 28 192.168.11.2/24
D. DLCI 16 192.168.10.1/24
DLCI 17 192.168.10.2/24
DLCI 99 192.168.10.3/24
DLCI 28 192.168.10.4/24

Explanation

Question 69 of 294

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which of the following are true? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
F. Router C will send a Source Quench message

Explanation

Question 70 of 294

Refer to the exhibit: How should the FastEthernet0/1 port on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?

Select one of the following:

A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
C. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode access
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport access vlan 1
D. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 20

Explanation

Question 71 of 294

Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. 802.1d
B. VTP
C. 802.1q
D. STP
E. SAP

Explanation

Question 72 of 294

Which item represents the standard IP ACL?

Select one of the following:

A. access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
B. access-list 110 permit ip any any
C. access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22
D. access-list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1

Explanation

Question 73 of 294

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

Select one of the following:

A. Bandwidth, Delay and MTU
B. Bandwidth
C. Bandwidth and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay and Load

Explanation

Question 74 of 294

What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

Select one of the following:

A.It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
B.It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
C.It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
D.It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Explanation

Question 75 of 294

Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?

Select one of the following:

A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version

Explanation

Question 76 of 294

Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.

Explanation

Question 77 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. What set of commands was configured on interface Fa0/3 to produce the given output?

Select one of the following:

A. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
B. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
C. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
D. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode on
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk

Explanation

Question 78 of 294

Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?

Select one of the following:

A. you can apply only one access list on any interface
B. you can configure one access list, per direction, per layer 3 protocol
C. you can place as many access lists as you want on any interface
D. you can configure one access list, per direction, per layer 2 protocol

Explanation

Question 79 of 294

Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?

Select one of the following:

A. It monitors traffic flow and link utilization.
B. It ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group.
C. It causes traffic to dynamically move to higher bandwidth links
D. It thwarts man-in-the-middle attacks.

Explanation

Question 80 of 294

How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?

Select one of the following:

A. by appending 0xFF to the MAC address.
B. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE.
C. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it.
D. by inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address
E. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes.

Explanation

Question 81 of 294

A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.252.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.192
F. 255.255.248.0

Explanation

Question 82 of 294

Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connection to the corporate site is very slow. The network administrator suspects that the link is overloaded. Based on the partial output of the Router#show frame relay pvc command shown in the graphic, which output value indicates to the local router that traffic sent to the corporate site is experiencing congestion?

Select one of the following:

A. DLCI=100
B. last time PVC status changed 00:25:40
C. in BECN packets 192
D. in FECN packets 147
E. in DF packets 0

Explanation

Question 83 of 294

This is the explanation of one of the subnetting questios The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme best defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?

Select one of the following:

A. 10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
B. 10.10.0.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
C. 10.10.0.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
D. 10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
E. 10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

Explanation

Question 84 of 294

What is the reason that the interface status is “administratively down, line protocol down”?

Select one of the following:

A. There is no encapsulation type configured.
B. There is a mismatch in encapsulation types.
C. The interface is not receiving any keepalives.
D. The interface has been configured with the shutdown command
E. The interface needs to be configured as a DTE device.
F. The wrong type of cable is connected to the interface.

Explanation

Question 85 of 294

Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?

Select one of the following:

A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of router interface e1
C. the MAC address of the server network interface
D. the MAC address of host A

Explanation

Question 86 of 294

A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports
B. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure mac addresses in the voice vlan.
C. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
D. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
E. When dynamic mac address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses up to the maximum defined.

Explanation

Question 87 of 294

What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. To identify applications causing congestion.
B. To authorize user network access.
C. To report and alert link up / down instances.
D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization.
E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network.
F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service

Explanation

Question 88 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?

Select one or more of the following:

A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
B. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
C. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
E. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
F. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

Explanation

Question 89 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
B. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA.

Explanation

Question 90 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address
D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority
F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority

Explanation

Question 91 of 294

Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

Select one of the following:

A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1

Explanation

Question 92 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true of the configuration for this network?

Select one of the following:

A. The configuration that is shown provides inadequate outside address space for translation of the number of inside addresses that are supported.
B. Because of the addressing on interface FastEthernet0/1, the Serial0/0 interface address will not support the NAT configuration as shown.
C. The number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number 1.
D. ExternalRouter must be configured with static routers to network 172.16.2.0/24

Explanation

Question 93 of 294

Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features
B. SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
C. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
D. SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP.
E. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.
F. SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.

Explanation

Question 94 of 294

In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?

Select one of the following:

A. AVF
B. AVG
C. Active Router
D. Standby Router

Explanation

Question 95 of 294

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

Explanation

Question 96 of 294

Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses
B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. configure IPv6 directly
F. enable dual-stack routing

Explanation

Question 97 of 294

What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?

Select one of the following:

A. service timestamps log datetime localtime
B. service timestamps debug datetime msec
C. service timestamps debug datetime localtime
D. service timestamps log datetime msec

Explanation

Question 98 of 294

What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?

Select one of the following:

A. SNMP
B. Netflow
C. WCCP
D. IP SLA

Explanation

Question 99 of 294

You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?

Select one of the following:

A. 10.188.31.0/27
B. 10.188.31.0/26
C. 10.188.31.0/29
D. 10.188.31.0/28
E. 10.188.31.0/25

Explanation

Question 100 of 294

Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server

Explanation

Question 101 of 294

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. blocking
B. learning
C. disabled
D. forwarding
E. listening

Explanation

Question 102 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.
B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester.
C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London router.
D. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.
E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.
F. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.

Explanation

Question 103 of 294

What is the default Syslog facility level?

Select one of the following:

A. local4
B. local5
C. local6
D. local7

Explanation

Question 104 of 294

What is a global command?

Select one of the following:

A. a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status
B. a command that can be entered in any configuration mode
C. a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols
D. a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions
E. a command that is set once and affects the entire router

Explanation

Question 105 of 294

What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C. It removes the need for virtual links.
D. It increases LSA response times.
E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

Explanation

Question 106 of 294

What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?

Select one of the following:

A. show frame-relay pvc
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame relay end-to-end

Explanation

Question 107 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. Give this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator’s next action be?

Select one of the following:

A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC’s fa0/1 port.
B. Check the duplex mode for SwitchC’s fa0/1 port.
C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA’s fa0/2 port.
D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA’s fa0/2 port.

Explanation

Question 108 of 294

Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
Router(config)# router ospf 1

Select one or more of the following:

A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

Explanation

Question 109 of 294

Which command displays CPU utilization?

Select one of the following:

A. show protocols
B. show process
C. show system
D. show version

Explanation

Question 110 of 294

A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

Select one of the following:

A. Add two more FastEthernet interfaces.
B. Add a second router to handle the vlan traffic.
C. Use a hub to connect the four vlans with a FastEthernet interface on router.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Explanation

Question 111 of 294

Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. SW1# show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
B. SW1# show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
C. SW1# show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
D. SW1# show running-config

Explanation

Question 112 of 294

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

Select one of the following:

A. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
B. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
C. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
D. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.
E. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable by the administrator.
F. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the server is rebooted.

Explanation

Question 113 of 294

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?

Select one of the following:

A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors

Explanation

Question 114 of 294

Refer to the exhibit:C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What can be said about this configuration

Select one of the following:

A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. No further routing configuration is required.
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router ospf 1
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
D. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router rip
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

Explanation

Question 115 of 294

What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop

Explanation

Question 116 of 294

Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?

Select one of the following:

A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address

Explanation

Question 117 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which OSI layer is the problem?

Select one of the following:

A. data link layer
B. application layer
C. access layer
D. session layer
E. network layer

Explanation

Question 118 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be the cause of this problem?

Select one of the following:

A. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
B. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
C. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.
D. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
E. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.

Explanation

Question 119 of 294

The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block?

Select one of the following:

A. 6
B. 8
C. 14
D. 16
E. 30
F. 32

Explanation

Question 120 of 294

The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?

Select one of the following:

A. 3MB
B. 5MB
C. 7MB
D. 4MB

Explanation

Question 121 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Network A – 172.16.3.48/26
B. Network A – 172.16.3.128/25
C. Network A – 172.16.3.192/26
D. Link A – 172.16.3.0/30
E. Link A – 172.16.3.40/30
F. Link A – 172.16.3.112/30

Explanation

Question 122 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. Which two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routers to CentralRouter.
B. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routers to InternetRouter.
C. a static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to CentralRouter.
D. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter.
E. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouer to advertise all routes to InternetRouter
F. a static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.

Explanation

Question 123 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?

Select one of the following:

A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.

Explanation

Question 124 of 294

A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?

Select one of the following:

A. the port-channel 1 interface
B. the highest number member interface
C. all member interfaces
D. the lowest number member interface

Explanation

Question 125 of 294

Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

Select one of the following:

A. 252
B. 253
C. 254
D. 255

Explanation

Question 126 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the most likely reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

Select one of the following:

A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Explanation

Question 127 of 294

A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. informational
B. emergency
C. warning
D. critical
E. debug
F. error

Explanation

Question 128 of 294

What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

Select one of the following:

A. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
B. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
C. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted
D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

Explanation

Question 129 of 294

What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the network? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. CPU utilization
B. where Netflow data will be sent
C. number of devices exporting Netflow data
D. port availability
E. SNMP version
F. WAN encapsulation

Explanation

Question 130 of 294

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface

Explanation

Question 131 of 294

How does using the service password encryption command on a router provide additional security?

Select one of the following:

A. by encrypting all passwords passing through the router
B. by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file
C. by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device
D. by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges
E. by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router

Explanation

Question 132 of 294

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

Select one of the following:

A. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.
B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
E. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.

Explanation

Question 133 of 294

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. The virtual IP address and virtual MAC address are active on the HSRP Master router
B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval
C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same LAN.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN.
F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

Explanation

Question 134 of 294

What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

Select one of the following:

A. speed
B. trunk encapsulation
C. DTP negotiation setting
D. duplex

Explanation

Question 135 of 294

When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. network or subnetwork IP address
B. broadcast address on the network
C. IP address leased to the LAN
D. IP address used by the interfaces
E. manually assigned address to the clients
F. designated IP address to the DHCP server

Explanation

Question 136 of 294

Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. MIB
B. SNMP Manager
C. SysLog Server
D. SNMP Agent

Explanation

Question 137 of 294

Refer to the diagram. All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192.
B. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128.
C. The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
D. The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
E. The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address
F. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses

Explanation

Question 138 of 294

What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?

Select one of the following:

router ospf area 0
router ospf area 0
router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

Explanation

Question 139 of 294

A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of this failure?

Select one of the following:

A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.

Explanation

Question 140 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?

Select one of the following:

A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will not be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.

Explanation

Question 141 of 294

What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?

Select one of the following:

A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DLCI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DLCI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address

Explanation

Question 142 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses?

Select one of the following:

A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.254.0
C. 255.255.252.0
D. 255.255.248.0

Explanation

Question 143 of 294

Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

Select one of the following:

A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport

Explanation

Question 144 of 294

Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. PPP
B. WAP
C. DSL
D. L2TPv3
E. Ethernet

Explanation

Question 145 of 294

What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF

Explanation

Question 146 of 294

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

Select one of the following:

A. It has more than one internee that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Explanation

Question 147 of 294

Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled.
B. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1.
C. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.
D. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards
E. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses.
F. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5

Explanation

Question 148 of 294

Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?

Select one of the following:

A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

Explanation

Question 149 of 294

When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?

Select one of the following:

A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
C. Route summarization is enabled on both routers.
D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router

Explanation

Question 150 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown. What is a possible problem?

Select one of the following:

A. The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.
B. TCP/IP is not functioning on Host1
C. The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.
D. The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect
E. Interface Fa0/0 on Router1 is shutdown.
F. The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.

Explanation

Question 151 of 294

Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. It is a layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains vlan configurations across network.
B. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
C. It is used exclusively for tagging vlan frames and dose not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes.
D. It modifies the 802.3 frame header and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
E. It is a trunking protocol capable of earring untagged frames.

Explanation

Question 152 of 294

Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Utilizing Syslog improves network performance.
B. The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.
C. A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space.
D. There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages.
E. Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping.
F. A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.

Explanation

Question 153 of 294

A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?

Select one of the following:

A. It checks the configuration register
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory
D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions

Explanation

Question 154 of 294

Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates
F. It is simpler to configure than RIPv2.

Explanation

Question 155 of 294

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Explanation

Question 156 of 294

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device

Explanation

Question 157 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command shown?

Select one of the following:

A. The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.
B. The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router
C. The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server
D. The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud
E. The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP

Explanation

Question 158 of 294

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Explanation

Question 159 of 294

As a network technician, do you know which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding

Explanation

Question 160 of 294

Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over FastEthernet?

Select one of the following:

A. 802.3ad
B. 802.1w
C. 802.1Q
D. 802.1d

Explanation

Question 161 of 294

It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP

Explanation

Question 162 of 294

Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?

Select one of the following:

A. enable cdp
B. cdp enable
C. cdp run
D. run cdp

Explanation

Question 163 of 294

Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

Select one of the following:

A. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
B. spanning-tree uplinkfast
C. spanning-tree backbonefast
D. spanning-tree mode mst

Explanation

Question 164 of 294

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?

Select one of the following:

A. NIC
B. BIA
C. OUI
D. VAI

Explanation

Question 165 of 294

A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?

Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

Select one of the following:

A. The process id is configured improperly.
B. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
D. The network number is configured improperly.
E. The AS is configured improperly.
F. The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

Explanation

Question 166 of 294

On corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?

Select one of the following:

A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches

Explanation

Question 167 of 294

Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as illustrated, but there is no connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct configuration. Given the partial configurations, identify the problem on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity.

Select one of the following:

A. transmission unit size too large
B. no loopback set
C. an incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation at each end
E. an incorrect IP address
F. incompatible bandwidth between routers

Explanation

Question 168 of 294

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface?

Select one of the following:

A. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64
B. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
C. ipv6 autoconfig
D. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64

Explanation

Question 169 of 294

What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

Select one of the following:

A. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line.
B. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line.
C. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line.
D. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line.

Explanation

Question 170 of 294

A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the confguration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task?

Select one of the following:

A. service password-encryption
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco
access-class 1
B. enable password secret
line vty 0
login
password cisco
C. service password-encryption
line vty 1
login
password cisco
D. service password-encryption
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco

Explanation

Question 171 of 294

Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake
C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment
D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

Explanation

Question 172 of 294

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?

Select one of the following:

A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay

Explanation

Question 173 of 294

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access

Explanation

Question 174 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?

Select one of the following:

A. 192.168.1.56/27
B. 192.168.1.64/26
C. 192.168.1.64/27
D. 192.168.1.56/26

Explanation

Question 175 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. The two exhibited devices are the only Cisco devices on the network. The serial network between the two devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. Given the output that is shown, what three statements are true of these devices? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.1.
B. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.2.
C. The London router is a Cisco 2610.
D. The Manchester router is a Cisco 2610.
E. The CDP information was received on port Serial0/0 of the Manchester router.
F. The CDP information was sent by port Serial0/0 of the London router.

Explanation

Question 176 of 294

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a cisco router?

Select one of the following:

A. IPv6 host
B. IPv6 unicast-routing
C. IPv6 local
D. IPv6 neighbor

Explanation

Question 177 of 294

At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?

Select one of the following:

A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5

Explanation

Question 178 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the Syslog output messages?

Select one of the following:

A. The EIGRP neighbor on Fa0/1 went down due to a failed link.
B. The EIGRP neighbor connected to Fa0/1 is participating in a different EIGRP process, causing the adjacency to go down.
C. A shut command was executed on interface Fa0/1, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.*
D. Interface Fa0/1 has become error disabled, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.

Explanation

Question 179 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. For what two reasons has the router loaded its IOS image from the location that is shown? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Router1 has specific boot system command that instruct it to load IOS from TFTP server.
B. Router1 is acting as a TFTP server for other routers.
C. Router1 cannot locate a valid IOS image in flash memory
D. Router1 defaulted to ROMMON mode and loaded the IOS image from a TFTP server.
E. Cisco routers will first attempt to load a image from TFTP for management purposes.

Explanation

Question 180 of 294

What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called (choose two) ?

Select one or more of the following:

A. TRAP
B. INFORM
C. GET
D. SET

Explanation

Question 181 of 294

What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?

Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

Select one of the following:

A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.

Explanation

Question 182 of 294

Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?

Select one of the following:

A. a primary route,stored in the routing table
B. a backup route,stored in the routing table
C. a backup route,stored in the topology table
D. a primary route,stored in the topology table

Explanation

Question 183 of 294

Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?

Select one of the following:

A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. Root Guard
D. BPDU Guard
E. BPDU Filter

Explanation

Question 184 of 294

Refer to the exhibit: Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

Explanation

Question 185 of 294

Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?

Select one of the following:

A. 0.0.0.240
B. 255.255.255.252
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.240

Explanation

Question 186 of 294

Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

Select one of the following:

A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
B. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
C. 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65
D. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

Explanation

Question 187 of 294

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?

Select one of the following:

A. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f.3d69
B. FE81::280f.512b:e14f:3d69
C. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
D. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69

Explanation

Question 188 of 294

What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?

Select one of the following:

A. B514:82C3:0029::EC7A:0000:EC72
B. B514:82C3:0029:EC7A:EC72
C. B514:82C3::0029:EC7A:0:EC72
D. B514:82C3::0029:EC7A:EC72

Explanation

Question 189 of 294

Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. one-to-many communication model
B. one-to-nearest communication model
C. any-to-many communication model
D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
E. the same address for multiple devices in the group
F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

Explanation

Question 190 of 294

When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?

Select one of the following:

A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state
Correct Answer:

Explanation

Question 191 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?

Select one of the following:

A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1

Explanation

Question 192 of 294

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?

Select one of the following:

A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

Explanation

Question 193 of 294

Which address and mask combination a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?

Select one of the following:

A. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240
B. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252
C. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252
D. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240
E. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240
F. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240

Explanation

Question 194 of 294

What are two benefits of using NAT? (choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.
B. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
C. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
D. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enable
E. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all host that require external access.
F. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.

Explanation

Question 195 of 294

What two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. The number of FECN packets that are received by the router
B. The number of BECN packets that are received by the router
C. The ip address of the local router
D. The value of the local DLC
E. The status of the PVC that is configured on the router

Explanation

Question 196 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

Select one of the following:

A. Switch2
B. Switch1
C. Switch3
D. Switch4

Explanation

Question 197 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65?

Select one of the following:

A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.1.2.2
C. 10.1.3.3
D. 10.1.4.4

Explanation

Question 198 of 294

How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?

Select one of the following:

A. 24
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

Explanation

Question 199 of 294

R3# show ip route
Gateway of last resort is not set
192 168.10.0/24 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks
D 192.168.10.64/26 [90/2195456] via 192.168.10.9, 00:03:31, Serial0/0
D 192.168.10.0/30 [90/2681856] via 192.168.10.9, 00:03:31, Serial0/0
C 192.168.10.4/30 is directly connected, Serial0/1
C 192.168.10.8/30 is directly connected, Serial0/0
C 192.168.10.192/26 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
D 192.168.10.128/26 [90/2195456] via 192.168.10.5,00:03:31, Serial0/1

Refer to the exhibit. The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a host on 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?

Select one of the following:

A. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1
B. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 and R3 to R1.
D. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1

Explanation

Question 200 of 294

In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

Select one of the following:

A. the operation of VTP
B. a method of VLAN trunking
C. an approach to wireless LAN communication
D. the process for root bridge selection
E. VLAN pruning

Explanation

Question 201 of 294

The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of the all other links is 100Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward to the internet over the most direct path available. What configuration of the Manchester router will establish a route toward to the internet for traffic from workstation on the Manchester LAN?

Select one of the following:

A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.00.0:0:0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2

Explanation

Question 202 of 294

A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

Select one of the following:

A. SwitchB(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
B. SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
C. SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
D. SwitchB(config)#ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown

Explanation

Question 203 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes DLCI 17?

Select one of the following:

A. DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3.
B. DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1.
C. DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.
D. DLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider.

Explanation

Question 204 of 294

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

Select one of the following:

A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding

Explanation

Question 205 of 294

Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Switch A – Fa0/0
B. Switch A – Fa0/1
C. Switch B – Fa0/0
D. Switch B – Fa0/1
E. Switch C – Fa0/0
F. Switch C – Fa0/1

Explanation

Question 206 of 294

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security.
D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
F. They simplify switch administration.

Explanation

Question 207 of 294

The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?

Select one of the following:

A. Switch1 (config)# line con0
Switch1 (config-line)# password cisco
Switch1 (config-line)#login
B. Switch1 (config)# interface fa0/1
Switch 1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
C. Switch1 (config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
D. Switch1 (config)# interface fa0/1
Switch 1(config-if)# duplex full
Switch 1(config-if)# speed 100
E. Switch1 (config)# interface fa0/1
Switch 1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Explanation

Question 208 of 294

A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?

Select one of the following:

A. session
B. network
C. physical
D. data link
E. transport

Explanation

Question 209 of 294

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPV6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPV6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. Leading zeros in an IPV6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

Explanation

Question 210 of 294

Which command shows your active Telnet connections?

Select one of the following:

A. show sessions
B. show cdp neighbors
C. show users
D. show queue

Explanation

Question 211 of 294

A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the internet. Which ACL can be used?

Select one of the following:

A. reflexive
B. extended
C. standard
D. dynamic

Explanation

Question 212 of 294

If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?

Select one of the following:

A. 192.168.1.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 1.1.1.1
D. 2.2.2.2

Explanation

Question 213 of 294

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?

Select one of the following:

A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

Explanation

Question 214 of 294

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

Explanation

Question 215 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?

Select one of the following:

A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1

Explanation

Question 216 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?

Select one of the following:

A. 172.1.0.0/22
B. 172.1.0.0/21
C. 172.1.4.0/22
D. 172.1.4.0/24
172.1.5.0/24
172.1.6.0/24
172.1.7.0/24
E. 172.1.4.0/25
172.1.4.128/25
172.1.5.0/24
172.1.6.0/24
172.1.7.0/24

Explanation

Question 217 of 294

Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches? (choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
B. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination.it uses ARP to resolve the address.
C. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share vlan information.
D. In a property functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state.
All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
E. Establishing vlans increases the number of broadcast domains
F. Switches that are configured with vlans make forwarding decisions based on both layer 2 and layer 3 address information.

Explanation

Question 218 of 294

Refer to the exhibit: Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?

Select one of the following:

A. One interface has a problem
B. Two interfaces have problems
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.

Explanation

Question 219 of 294

Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?

Select one of the following:

A. FF02::1
B. FF02::2
C. FF02::3
D. FF02::4

Explanation

Question 220 of 294

The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.
B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2
D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.

Explanation

Question 221 of 294

Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. provides common view of entire topology
B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors
C. calculates shortest path
D. utilizes event-triggered updates
E. utilizes frequent periodic updates

Explanation

Question 222 of 294

The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. The administrator’s attempt to establish a connect via Telnet to the
switch from host B fails, but pings from host B to other two hosts are successful. What is the issue for this problem?

Select one of the following:

A. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
B. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.
C. The switch interface connected to the router is down.
D. Host B need to be assigned an IP address in vlan 1.

Explanation

Question 223 of 294

Based on the network shown in the graphic. Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?

Select one of the following:

A. routing loops, hold down timers
B. Switching loops, split horizon
C. routing loops, split horizon
D. Switching loops, VT
E. routing loops, STP
F. Switching loops, STP

Explanation

Question 224 of 294

Which IPv6 address is valid?

Select one of the following:

A. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
B. 2001:0DB8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B
C. 2001:0DB8:0:130H::87C:140B
D. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B

Explanation

Question 225 of 294

What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. optional IPsec
B. autoconfiguration
C. no broadcasts
D. complicated header
E. plug-and-play
F. checksums

Explanation

Question 226 of 294

A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?

Select one of the following:

A. an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16
B. a static router to network 192.168.10.0/24
C. a static router to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop
D. a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24
E. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24
F. a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1

Explanation

Question 227 of 294

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

Select one of the following:

A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link

Explanation

Question 228 of 294

What is the purpose of the inverse ARP?

Select one of the following:

A. to map a known DLCI to an IP address
B. to map a known IP address to a MAC address
C. to map known SPID to a MACaddress
D. to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
E. to map a known IP address to a SPID.
F. to map a known MAC address to an IP address

Explanation

Question 229 of 294

What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.

Explanation

Question 230 of 294

Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?

Select one of the following:

A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. SUP
D. LCP
E. DLCI

Explanation

Question 231 of 294

Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a frame relay link?

Select one of the following:

A. show frame-relay map
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show inter serial
D. show frame-relay pvc

Explanation

Question 232 of 294

Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Emergencies
B. Alerts
C. Critical
D. Errors
E. Warnings
F. Notification

Explanation

Question 233 of 294

How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host?

Select one of the following:

A. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.
B. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of period, a new quest for an address must be made, and another address is then assigned.
C. Addresses are leased to host. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the DHCP sever to renew the lease.
D. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.

Explanation

Question 234 of 294

An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?

Select one of the following:

A. IP address: 192.168.20.14
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
B. IP address: 192.168.20.254
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
C. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
D. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
E. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

Explanation

Question 235 of 294

Refer to the exhibit, when running EIGRP what is required for R1 to exchange routing updates with R3?

Select one of the following:

A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
C. The no auto-summary command is needed on R1 and R3
D. R2 needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

Explanation

Question 236 of 294

A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0. After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. FastEthernet0/0
B. FastEthernet0/1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104

Explanation

Question 237 of 294

The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?

Select one of the following:

A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.

Explanation

Question 238 of 294

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

Select one of the following:

A. Addresses in a private range will be not routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address in a valid IP address.
D. Several automated methods will be necessary on the private network.
E. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

Explanation

Question 239 of 294

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

Select one of the following:

A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC

Explanation

Question 240 of 294

What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Router(config)#interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)#no shut down
B. Router(config)#interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)#no shutdown
Router(config)#interface fastethernet 0/0.1
Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 10
Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-subif)#interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 20
Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router (config)#router eigrp 100
Router(config-router)#network 192.168.10.0
Router(config-router)#network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. witch1(config) # interface fastEthernet 0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

Explanation

Question 241 of 294

What NetFlow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?

Select one of the following:

A. flow monitor
B. flow record
C. flow sampler
D. flow exporter

Explanation

Question 242 of 294

Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router main?

Select one of the following:

A. 172.16.0.0/18
B. 172.16.0.0/16
C. 172.16.0.0/20
D. 172.16.0.0/21

Explanation

Question 243 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show commands. Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Port security needs to be globally enabled.
B. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface.
C. Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation.
D. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.
E. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command
F. The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active.

Explanation

Question 244 of 294

What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. client
F. forwarding

Explanation

Question 245 of 294

Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet 172.21.1.128/28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict anyone from the network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended?

Select one of the following:

A. ACDB
B. BADC
C. DBAC
D. CDBA

Explanation

Question 246 of 294

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?

Select one of the following:

A. ::1
B. ::
C. 2000::/3
D. 0::/10

Explanation

Question 247 of 294

Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. to confine network instability to single areas of the network.
B. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
C. to speed up convergence
D. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
E. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
F. to reduce routing overhead

Explanation

Question 248 of 294

Refer to the graphic. A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. HFD (config) #ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0
B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
D. FD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6
E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0

Explanation

Question 249 of 294

A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?

Select one of the following:

A. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
B. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
C. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
D. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk

Explanation

Question 250 of 294

Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address?

Select one of the following:

A. 172.16.16.0
B. 172.16.24.0
C. 172.16.0.0
D. 172.16.28.0

Explanation

Question 251 of 294

Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or forwarding state?

Select one of the following:

A. redundant
B. spanned
C. provisioned
D. converged

Explanation

Question 252 of 294

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3
B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10
D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

Explanation

Question 253 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?

Select one of the following:

A. The design will function as intended
B. Spanning-tree will need to be used
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

Explanation

Question 254 of 294

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

Select one of the following:

A. 120
B. 100
C. 90
D. 110

Explanation

Question 255 of 294

What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A. GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.
B. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.
C. GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.
D. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers
E. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers
F. GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.

Explanation

Question 256 of 294

A frame from VLAN1 of switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame received on VLAN2. What causes this behavior?

Select one of the following:

A. trunk mode mismatches
B. vlans that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
C. native vlan mismatches
D. allowing only vlan 2 on the destination.

Explanation

Question 257 of 294

Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. VTP
B. 802.1q
C. IGP
D. ISL
E. 802.3u

Explanation

Question 258 of 294

R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas

Explanation

Question 259 of 294

Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?

Select one of the following:

A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
B. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.
C. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
D. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.

Explanation

Question 260 of 294

Which statement about vlan operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

Select one of the following:

A. when a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk,the vlan id can be determined from the source MAC address table.
B. unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan.
C. ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the ports.
D. broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan.

Explanation

Question 261 of 294

What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes.
B. Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain.
C. Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path
D. Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors.
E. Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database.

Explanation

Question 262 of 294

What is one benefit of PVST+?

Select one of the following:

A. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
B. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimization.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per vlan.
D. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops

Explanation

Question 263 of 294

Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. ping
B. tracert
C. ipconfig
D. show ip route
E. winipcfg
F. show interfaces

Explanation

Question 264 of 294

Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication with PAP as the fallback method on a serial interface?

Select one of the following:

A. (config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
B. config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
C. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
D. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp

Explanation

Question 265 of 294

Refer to the exhibit: After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 266 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. The number of collision domains would remain the same.
B. The number of collision domains would decrease.
C. The number of collision domains would increase
D. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
E. The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
F. The number of broadcast domains would increase

Explanation

Question 267 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three of these statements are true? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. The switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Explanation

Question 268 of 294

Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for vlan trunking? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
B. subinterface numbering that matches vlan tages
C. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match vlan tags
D. a management domain for each subinterface G E. one physical interface for each subinterface
E. one subinterface per vlan

Explanation

Question 269 of 294

What is known as “one-to-nearest” addressing in IPv6?

Select one of the following:

A. global unicast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unspecified address

Explanation

Question 270 of 294

Refer to the exhibit: Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Routed and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.

Explanation

Question 271 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this RouterD?

Select one of the following:

A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 92.168.5.316

Explanation

Question 272 of 294

Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?

Select one of the following:

A. Router# service password-encryption
B. Router(config)# password-encryption
C. Router(config)# service password-encryption
D. Router# password-encryption

Explanation

Question 273 of 294

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

Select one of the following:

A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match

Explanation

Question 274 of 294

RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running IOS version 12.0. After reviewing the command output and graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

Select one of the following:

A. incorrect bandwidth configuration
B. incorrect LMI configuration
C. incorrect map statement
D. incorrect IP address

Explanation

Question 275 of 294

Refer to the exhibit: What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Explanation

Question 276 of 294

The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?

Select one of the following:

A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.

Explanation

Question 277 of 294

Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information?

Select one or more of the following:

A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config

Explanation

Question 278 of 294

Assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range can be added modified and removed on a Cisco switch?

Select one of the following:

A. 2 through 1001
B. 1 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005

Explanation

Question 279 of 294

Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports Fa0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?

Select one of the following:

A. 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Explanation

Question 280 of 294

Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. It identifies the source of Type 1 LSA
B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance
C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF router ID
D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID
E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface

Explanation

Question 281 of 294

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

Select one of the following:

A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database

Explanation

Question 282 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch. (Choose TWO)

Select one or more of the following:

A – The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B – Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
C – This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
D – All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
E – Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded out fa0/1.
F – Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded out fa0/1.

Explanation

Question 283 of 294

Refer to the topology and router output shown in the exhibit: A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem?

Select one of the following:

A. The Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.
B. The Link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.
C. At lease one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate.
D. Port FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.
E. A router is required for hosts on Sw11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on Sw12.

Explanation

Question 284 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

Select one of the following:

A. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.

Explanation

Question 285 of 294

The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows ”PVC STATUS=INACTIVE”. What does this mean?

Select one of the following:

A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally,but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally and is no longer actively seeking the address the remote route.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally and is waiting for interesting to trigger a call to the remote router
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the switch.

Explanation

Question 286 of 294

As a technician, you found the router1 is unable to reach the second router. Both routers are running IOS version 12.0.
Based on this information, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

Select one of the following:

A. incorrect IP address
B. incorrect bandwidth configuration
C. incorrect map statement
D. incorrect LMI configuration

Explanation

Question 287 of 294

Which is true about OSPF router-id? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

A. It is used for type 1 router LSA
B. Highest IP address of the loopback is used
C. router-id needs to be matched on ospf neighbors
D. router-id is 16 bit

Explanation

Question 288 of 294

Select the action that results from executing these commands:
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

Select one of the following:

A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received

Explanation

Question 289 of 294

What levels will be trapped if the administrator executes the command (Choose four.)

router(cfg)#logging trap 4

Select one or more of the following:

A. Emergency
B. Notice
C. Alert
D. Error
E. Warning

Explanation

Question 290 of 294

Question 1: etherchannel issue. If you can look very carefully, there is speed mismatched to cause that problem. I selected “speed mismatch”. Question 2 Q2 (Etherchannel Questions that goes like this) Refer to the exhibit. Etherchannel has been configured on Switch1 as shown.
Switch1(config)# interface range gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch1(config)# Channel-group 5 Mode “AUTO”
Switch1#
Switch1(config)# interface range gigabitethernet 1/2
Switch1(config)# Channel-group 5 Mode “AUTO”
Which is the correct command set to configure etherchannel on Switch2?

Select one of the following:

A. Switch2# configure terminal
Switch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2
Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode auto
B. Switch2# configure terminal
Switch2(config)# interface range gigabitethemet3/1 -2
Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode passive
C. Switch2# configure terminal
Switch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2
Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode desirable
D. Switch2# configure terminal
Switch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2
Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode ACTIVE

Explanation

Question 291 of 294

All hosts in the networks have been operational for several hours when the DHCP server goes down. What happens to the hosts that have obtained service from the DHCP server?

Select one of the following:

A. The hosts will not be able to communicate with any other hosts.
B. The hosts will continue to communicate normally for a period of time.
C. The hosts will be able to communicate with hosts outsides their own network
D. The hosts will only be able to communicate with other hosts by IP address not by hostname

Explanation

Question 292 of 294

What is the purpose of the DHCP server?

Select one of the following:

A. to provide storage for email
B. to translate URLs to IP addresses
C. to translate IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
D. to provide an IP configuration information to hosts

Explanation

Question 293 of 294

How is the message sent from a PC2 when is first powers on and attempts to contact the DHCP Server?

Select one of the following:

A. Layer 3 unicast
B. Layer 3 broadcast
C. Layer 3 multicast
D. Without any Layer 3 encapsulation

Explanation

Question 294 of 294

What is the default behavior of R1 when PC1 requests service from DHCP server?

Select one of the following:

A. Drop the request
B. Broadcast the request to R2 and R3
C. Forward the request to R2
D. Broadcast the request to R2, R3 and ISP

Explanation

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	Created by Carlos Velas over 9 years ago

TEST KING

CISCO 200 -120

CISCO 200 -120

Question 1 of 294

Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)

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Explanation

Question 2 of 294

The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)

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Explanation

Question 3 of 294

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

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Explanation

Question 4 of 294

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?

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Explanation

Question 5 of 294

On which options are standard access lists based?

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Explanation

Question 6 of 294

What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

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Explanation

Question 7 of 294

Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)

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Explanation

Question 8 of 294

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?

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Explanation

Question 9 of 294

How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?

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Explanation

Question 10 of 294

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

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Explanation

Question 11 of 294

What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)

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Explanation

Question 12 of 294

What can be determined about the router from the console output?

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Explanation

Question 13 of 294

An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface command immediately removes the effect of ACL 102?

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Explanation

Question 14 of 294

What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?

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Explanation

Question 15 of 294

In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?

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Explanation

Question 16 of 294

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Explanation

Question 17 of 294

Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

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Explanation

Question 18 of 294

What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved?

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Explanation

Question 19 of 294

Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?

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Explanation

Question 20 of 294

Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?