Diana Flores
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Test about Antibiotics/Antifungals/Antivirals/Antimycobacterials/Anticancer

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Diana Flores
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Antibiotics/Antifungals/Antivirals/Antimycobacterials/Anticancer

Question 1 of 130

1

Which of the following is a correct description of Ludwig's Angina?

Select one of the following:

  • Caused by anaerobe infection

  • It occurs in children with concomitant dental infections

  • It is not life-threatneing

  • Caused by infection from bacteroids, staphylococci, and streptococci

Explanation

Question 2 of 130

1

Choose all the following that are mechanisms of select toxicity?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

  • Selective Inhibition

  • Suppression of DNA synthesis

  • Common targets

  • Unique drug targets

  • Alteration of cell membrane permeability

Explanation

Question 3 of 130

1

Which of the following is the correct definition of Anti-infective agents?

Select one of the following:

  • Natural or synthetic substances used to suppress growth or kill bacteria/ single cell organisms

  • Substances that act against or destroy infections (Fungal/Viral/Bacteria)

  • Substances that destroy or supress the growth or multiplcation of bacteria

  • Substances produced by bacteria that can destroy or suppress the growth or multiplication of bacteria or prevent the action of bacteria

Explanation

Question 4 of 130

1

What antibacterial is given for emergency treatment of Ludwig's Angina?

Select one of the following:

  • Penicillin V

  • Ampicillin

  • Penicillin G

  • Augmentin

Explanation

Question 5 of 130

1

Which of the following is the correct mechanism for how Polymyxins act as antibiotics?

Select one of the following:

  • Binds to ribosome 30s to prohibit protein synthesis

  • Disrupts the integrity of the baceterial cell wall by displacing calcium and magnesium

  • Inhibits the cross-linkages between the peptidoglycan polymer strands

  • Disrupts the integrity of the cell membrane by displacing calcium and magnesium

Explanation

Question 6 of 130

1

Antibiotics that bind to bacterial ribosomes inhibit what enzyme?

Select one of the following:

  • Transpeptidase

  • Peptidyl transferase

  • Beta lactamase

  • Transcriptase

Explanation

Question 7 of 130

1

How do sulfonamides prevent the further growth of bacteria?

Select one of the following:

  • They block conversion of PABA into dihydrofolic acid

  • They inhibit DNA gyrase and Topoismerase enzymes, preventing supercoiling

  • They inhibit peptidyl transferase, inhibiting binding of tRNA to mRNA

  • They bind to the dihydroflate reductase (DHFR) enzyme, thus preventing production of folic acid

Explanation

Question 8 of 130

1

Acquired resistance is when the bacteria has always been resistant due to inherent properties of the bacteria

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 9 of 130

1

Which bacteria are susceptible to enzyme inactivation by beta lactamases?

Select one of the following:

  • Cephalosporins

  • Macrolides

  • Metronidazole

  • Tetracyclines

Explanation

Question 10 of 130

1

Which of the following is defines as a mobile genetic element which may be transferred from one organism to the other?

Select one of the following:

  • Bacteriophages

  • Integrons

  • Transposons

  • Plasmid

Explanation

Question 11 of 130

1

An integron is a genetic element that captures and disseminates genes through a gene cassette

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 12 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial resistance?

Select one of the following:

  • Enzymatic inactvation

  • Antibiotic antagonism or interactions

  • Insensitivity to apoptosis

  • Overproduction of target sites

Explanation

Question 13 of 130

1

Which of the following cancers do NOT have a high incidence of p53 mutations

Select one of the following:

  • Ovarian

  • Lung

  • Colon

  • Pancreatic

Explanation

Question 14 of 130

1

Which of the following is correct regarding superinfections?

Select one of the following:

  • More likely to occur with narrow spectrum antibiotics

  • Occurs with transfer of plasmids and transposons

  • They are easy to treat

  • May be opportunistic infections with viruses such as Candidda albicans and Histoplasmosis

Explanation

Question 15 of 130

1

When would chemoprophylaxis be used?

Select one of the following:

  • Used after surgery to prevent wound infections

  • Used after a potential expsoure

  • To prevent an oral infection after having a dental procedure

  • In immunocompromised patients to prevent reactivation of latent reactions

Explanation

Question 16 of 130

1

Penicillins are narrow spectrum drugs

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 17 of 130

1

Select all of the bactericidal antibiotics

Select one or more of the following:

  • Macrolides

  • Pencillin

  • Metronidazole

  • Tetracycline

  • Cefadroxil

  • Cephalexin

  • Aminoglycosides

  • Ciprofloxacin

  • Clindamycin

Explanation

Question 18 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT a cause for antibiotic failure?

Select one of the following:

  • Limited vascularity or blood flow to tissue

  • Blood concentration too low

  • Impaired host to immune system

  • Failure to activate the antibiotics

Explanation

Question 19 of 130

1

Which of the following antibacterials can cause a long QT syndrome?

Select one of the following:

  • Fluroquinolones

  • Sulfonamides

  • Penicillins

  • Cephalsporins

Explanation

Question 20 of 130

1

Which of the following antibacterials cause agranulocytosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Fluroquinolones

  • C. diff

  • Macrolides

  • Penicillins

Explanation

Question 21 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT a concern of antibiotic use?

Select one of the following:

  • Stevens Johnsons

  • Superinfection

  • Teratology

  • Increased effects of oral contraceptives

Explanation

Question 22 of 130

1

Which of the following is incorrect regarding Penicillin G/Penicillin V?

Select one of the following:

  • One of these two can be used for treatment of Ludwig's Angina

  • Used for mixed aerobic-anerobic infections

  • Used for head, neck, and dental infections

  • These are all correct

Explanation

Question 23 of 130

1

Which of the following is the correct use of antistaphylococcal penicillins?

Select one of the following:

  • Skin and soft tissue infections

  • Broad spectrum Enterobacter

  • Klebsiella and enterocci

  • Ear, nose and throat, H. pylori

Explanation

Question 24 of 130

1

Which of the following is not an antistaphylococcal penicillin?

Select one of the following:

  • Amoxicillin

  • Methicillin

  • Nafcillin

  • These are all antistaphylococcal penicilllins

Explanation

Question 25 of 130

1

Augmentin contains an antistaphylococcal penicillin

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 130

1

Penicillins work by inhibiting which enzyme?

Select one of the following:

  • Integrase

  • Peptidyl transferase

  • Transpeptidase

  • Transcriptase

Explanation

Question 27 of 130

1

Penicillin V is administered IV only?

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 28 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT a possible adverse effect from peniciilins?

Select one of the following:

  • Allergy

  • Fungal overgrowth

  • Pseudomembraneous colitis

  • Oral lesions

Explanation

Question 29 of 130

1

Which of the following is a known drug reaction with use of penicillin?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase renal tubular secretion with use of probenecid

  • Inactivation with use of aminoglycosides

  • Disulfram-like reaction

  • Inhibits metabolism of anticoagulants, increasing risk of bleeding

Explanation

Question 30 of 130

1

Which of the following is true regarding aminopenicillins?

Select one of the following:

  • Resistant to beta lactamases

  • Narrow spectrum

  • Ampicillin has less side effects than amoxicillin

  • Effective against Neissseria gonorrhea and meningitidis

Explanation

Question 31 of 130

1

Select the following that are ineffective against beta lactamases:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Penicillin V

  • Penicillin G

  • Cloxacillin

  • Amoxicillin

Explanation

Question 32 of 130

1

Which of the following can be used to overcome resistant bacteria?

Select one of the following:

  • Cloxacillin

  • Amoxacillin

  • Clavulanic acid

  • Ampicillin

Explanation

Question 33 of 130

1

Which of the following is true regarding penicillins and beta-lactamase inhibitors?

Select one of the following:

  • Amoxicillin has a molecular structure similar to beta lactam, thus prevents inactivation by beta lactamase

  • They are ineffective against Salmonella related infections

  • They are used in immunocompromised patients with mixed infections

  • They are effective against Klebsiella bacteria

Explanation

Question 34 of 130

1

Which of the following best represents first generation cephalosporins?

Select one of the following:

  • Includes Cefotaxime and Ceftriaxone

  • Used for UTI and soft tissue abscesses

  • Effective against Klebsiella and H influenza

  • Used for treatment of community-acquired pneumonia

Explanation

Question 35 of 130

1

Which of the following best describes generation 2 cephalosporins

Select one of the following:

  • Drug of choice for surgical prophylaxis

  • Used to treat Meningitis

  • Includes the drug Cefuroxime

  • Includes the drug Cefepime

Explanation

Question 36 of 130

1

Which of the following best describes generation 3 cephalosporins?

Select one of the following:

  • They have resistance to beta lacmases

  • Hightly active against P aeruginosa

  • Not approved for treatment of meningitis

  • Best for any H influenza infection

Explanation

Question 37 of 130

1

Which of the following best describes fourth generation cephalosporins?

Select one of the following:

  • It is used for meningitis

  • It includes the drug ceftaroline

  • It is active against Neisseria

  • Can be used for MRSA

Explanation

Question 38 of 130

1

Ceftaroline is active against MDR staph aureus, MRSA, and VRSA

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 39 of 130

1

Protein synthesis inhibitors are considered narrow spectrum antibiotics

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 40 of 130

1

Tetracyclines are broad spectrum antibiotics

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 41 of 130

1

Which of the following best matches the mechanism of tetracyclines?

Select one of the following:

  • Inhibition of beta 1-3 glycan of bacterial cell wall, preventing cross-linkages

  • Becomes mechanically reduced to a toxic metabolite, interacting with DNA

  • Binds to 50s subunit, preventing binding of tRNA to mRNA

  • Binds to 30s subunit, preventing binding of tRNA to mRNA

Explanation

Question 42 of 130

1

Which of the following are targeted by tetracyclines

Select one of the following:

  • Rickettsia

  • Chlamydia

  • Gram positive bacteria

  • All are targeted by tetracyclines

Explanation

Question 43 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT a concern of tetracyclines?

Select one of the following:

  • Kills flora

  • Neutropenia

  • Impairs absorption of antacids

  • Damages development of bones and teeth

Explanation

Question 44 of 130

1

Which of the following is incorrect regarding macrolides?

Select one of the following:

  • Broad spectrum

  • Kills Treponema pallidum

  • Used as an alternative for patients allergic penicillins

  • Can be bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal, depending on dose

Explanation

Question 45 of 130

1

What makes Telithromycin so special?

Select one of the following:

  • It can be used for MRSA

  • It can cause Fanconi's syndrome if taken when it is expired

  • It can bind to ribosome 23s, which makes it unique

  • Can be used in cases when other macrolides cause fulminant hepatic necrosis

Explanation

Question 46 of 130

1

Which of the following is incorrect regarding Chloramphenicol?

Select one of the following:

  • It is bacteriostatic

  • Binds to 23s ribosome

  • Can be toxic due to inhibiting mitochondrial protein synthesis

  • Can be used for Neisseria gonorrhea

Explanation

Question 47 of 130

1

Chloramphenicol can cause gray baby syndrome

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 48 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT a use for Clindamycin?

Select one of the following:

  • Pseudomembranous colitis

  • Skina nd soft tissue infections

  • Septic abrotion

  • Prophylaxis of infective endocarditis

Explanation

Question 49 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT a concern for use of Clindamycin?

Select one of the following:

  • Fungal overgrowth

  • Thrombocytopenia

  • Pseudomembranous colitis

  • Fulminant hepatic necrosis

Explanation

Question 50 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for pseudomembranous colitis?

Select one of the following:

  • Elderly

  • Sulfonamides

  • Ampicillin

  • Erhythromycin

Explanation

Question 51 of 130

1

Choose all of the following that are part of treatment of pseudomembranous colitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Start on Vancomycin IV

  • Hydration

  • Start on clotrimazole

  • Start of Metronidazole

  • Stop all antibiotics

  • Start on Vancomycin oral

Explanation

Question 52 of 130

1

What is the clinical use of sulfonamides?

Select one of the following:

  • Skin infections

  • UTI

  • Alternative for patients allergic to Penicillins

  • Pseudomembranous colitis

Explanation

Question 53 of 130

1

Sulfonamide is a structural analog of DFHR

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 54 of 130

1

Which of the following causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?

Select one of the following:

  • Sulfonamides

  • Penicillins

  • Macrolides

  • Tetracyclines

Explanation

Question 55 of 130

1

Sulfonamides can cause which of the following adverse effects?

Select one of the following:

  • Renal damage from crystalluria

  • Prolonged QT syndrome

  • Pseudomembranous Colitis

  • Neutropenia

Explanation

Question 56 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT another name for trimethoprim?

Select one of the following:

  • Co-trimoxazole

  • Bactrim

  • Clotrimazole

  • Septra

Explanation

Question 57 of 130

1

Which best describes the mechanism of trimethoprim?

Select one of the following:

  • Structural analog of PABA

  • Binds to mammalian DHFR

  • Structural analog of bacterial DHFR

  • Binds to bacterial DHFR

Explanation

Question 58 of 130

1

Which of the following antibiotics are best known to be used for acne?

Select one of the following:

  • Tetracyclines

  • Sulfonamides

  • Macrolides

  • Penicillins

Explanation

Question 59 of 130

1

Clotrimazole can be used for UTI?

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 60 of 130

1

Metronidazole is used for the treatment of amoebic liver abscesss

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 61 of 130

1

How do fluoroquinolones kill bacteria?

Select one of the following:

  • They are chemically reduced to a toxic metabolite which interacts with DNA, resulting in loss of helical structure and essentially cell death

  • They bind to bacterial ribosomes 30s

  • They inhibit transpeptidases

  • They compromise the integrity of the bacterial cell membrane

Explanation

Question 62 of 130

1

Which of the following do metronidazoles NOT attack?

Select one of the following:

  • Gram positive

  • Anaerobes

  • Gram negative

  • Aerobes

Explanation

Question 63 of 130

1

Which of the following is not a drug interaction of metronidazole?

Select one of the following:

  • Phenytoin toxicity

  • Disulfram reactions

  • Failure of oral contraceptives

  • Inhibition of anticoagulant metabolism

Explanation

Question 64 of 130

1

Sharp metallic taste is one of many adverse effects of sulfonamides

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 65 of 130

1

Which best describes the mechanism of action of fluroquinolones?

Select one of the following:

  • Binding to bacterial ribosome 50s

  • Inhibits DNA gyrase, preventing supercoiling and stopping DNA replication

  • Inhibits transcriptase, preventing supercoiling and stopping DNA replication

  • Chemically reduced to a toxic metabolite, interacting with DNA and essentially causing cell death

Explanation

Question 66 of 130

1

The causes of resistance in fluoroquinolones are alteration in DNA gyrase and decreased permeability

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 67 of 130

1

Which of the following bacteria could cause cartilage damage in children?

Select one of the following:

  • Ciprofloxacin

  • Clindamycin

  • Cefepime

  • Aminoglycosides

Explanation

Question 68 of 130

1

Ciprofloxacin is an extended spectrum drug

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 69 of 130

1

Which of the following is true about vancomycin?

Select one of the following:

  • Given by quick infusion for serious systemic infections

  • May be used where resistance to macrolides has developed in bacterial strains

  • Inhibits transpeptidase

  • It is not absorbed by the GI

Explanation

Question 70 of 130

1

Which of the following can cause Red Man Syndrome?

Select one of the following:

  • Penicillin

  • Erythromycin

  • Vancomycin

  • Sulfamethoxazole

Explanation

Question 71 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT true regarding aminoglycosides?

Select one of the following:

  • Can be used for the treatment of sepsis

  • Same spectrum as fluroquinolones

  • Given only PO

  • Drug monitoring is required

Explanation

Question 72 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT side effect of drugs such as gentamicin, tobramycin, and amikacin?

Select one of the following:

  • Reversible renal toxicity

  • Irreversible vestibular toxicity

  • Neuromuscular blockade

  • Adding furoseminde can decrease risk of renal damage

Explanation

Question 73 of 130

1

Which of the following would you want to avoid giving prior to a surgical procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • Cephalexin

  • Clindamycin

  • Tobramycin

Explanation

Question 74 of 130

1

You would want to give Vancomycin PO q12h for MRSA

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 75 of 130

1

VRE infects immunocompromised patients

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 76 of 130

1

Which of the following cannot be used for treatment of MRSA?

Select one of the following:

  • Linezolid

  • Ceftaroline

  • Streptogramins

  • Vancomycin

Explanation

Question 77 of 130

1

MRSA is resistant to ALL penicillins and cephalosporins

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 78 of 130

1

What are mechanisms of genetic transfer that are related to superinfections?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Bacteriophages

  • Integrons

  • Transposon

  • Plasmid

Explanation

Question 79 of 130

1

Which of the following best describes amphotericin B?

Select one of the following:

  • Used only as topical therapy

  • Dose adjustment required and dose limited to 6 months

  • A polyene antifungal that binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes

  • Binds to bacterial RNA polymerase enzyme and inhibits RNA synthesis

Explanation

Question 80 of 130

1

Amphotericin B is used to only treat progressive and potentially fatal systemic infections due to its severe adverse effects

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 81 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Amphotericin B?

Select one of the following:

  • Infusion-related reactions

  • Fever

  • Mild elevation in liver enzymes

  • Nephrotoxicity

Explanation

Question 82 of 130

1

Which of the following does NOT increase risk of nephrotoxicity

Select one of the following:

  • Aminoglycosides

  • Amphoterecin B

  • Cisplatin

  • Macrolides

Explanation

Question 83 of 130

1

Nystatin is not related to Amphoterecin B and can therefore be used systemically

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 84 of 130

1

What type of fungal infection does nystatin treat?

Select one of the following:

  • Cryptococcal meningitis

  • Candida infections

  • Histoplasmosis

  • Asperillosis

Explanation

Question 85 of 130

1

What do you want to avoid taking with azole antifungals?

Select one of the following:

  • Antacids

  • Echinocandins

  • Calcium

  • Milk

Explanation

Question 86 of 130

1

Fluconazole is a prodrug

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 87 of 130

1

Choose all of the traizoles

Select one or more of the following:

  • Ketoconazole

  • Itraconazole

  • Fluconazole

  • Voriconazole

  • Miconazole

  • Clotrimazole

Explanation

Question 88 of 130

1

Which is the correct mechanism of azoles?

Select one of the following:

  • Disrupts microtubule function and inhibits dermatophyte growth

  • Binds to membrane Ergosterol

  • Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

  • Inhibits the lanosterol 14 alpha enzyme, preventing the conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol and disrupts the struction of fungal membrane

Explanation

Question 89 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Azoles?

Select one of the following:

  • Steven Johnson

  • Increased levels of warfarin

  • Decreased fluconazole levels wiht isoniazid

  • Nephrotoxicity

Explanation

Question 90 of 130

1

Which of the following are used in hematopoietic stem cell transplatation patients?

Select one of the following:

  • Fluconazole

  • Itraconazole

  • Echinocandins

  • Isoniazid

Explanation

Question 91 of 130

1

Which of the following antifungals are used to disrupt microtubule function?

Select one of the following:

  • Terbinafine

  • Griseofulvin

  • Echinocandins

  • Ketoconazole

Explanation

Question 92 of 130

1

Which of the following antifungals is used for onychomychosis and tinea?

Select one of the following:

  • Griseofulvin

  • Terbinafine

  • Echinocandins

  • Ketoconazole

Explanation

Question 93 of 130

1

What is the difference between NRTIs and NNRTIs?

Select one of the following:

  • NRTIs inhibit viral DNA relication by binding to reverse transcriptase and inhibit DNA polymerase and NNRTIs act as chain terminators and imtate nucleotides

  • NNRTIs inhibit viral DNA relication by binding to reverse transcriptase and inhibit DNA polymerase and NRTIs act as chain terminators and imtate nucleotides

  • NRTIs interact with ohter drugs metabolized by CYP450 enzyme

  • NRTIs cause Stevens Johnson syndrome

Explanation

Question 94 of 130

1

NRTIs have mitochondrial toxicity

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 95 of 130

1

Which of the following is an adverse effect of NRTIs?

Select one of the following:

  • Steven Johnson Syndrome

  • Cushing-like syndrome

  • Local injection site reactions

  • Lactic acidosis

Explanation

Question 96 of 130

1

NRTIs cause Steven Johnson syndrome

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 97 of 130

1

Which of the following is not a protease inhibitor?

Select one of the following:

  • Saquinavir

  • Retrovir

  • Ritonavir

  • Indinavir

Explanation

Question 98 of 130

1

Which of the following is the correct drug regimen for post-exposure prophylaxis?

Select one of the following:

  • Retrovir + Epivir + Kaletra

  • Ritonavir + Epivir

  • 2 NNTis with an NNRTI or a Ritonavir or Integrase

  • Raltegravir + Integrase

Explanation

Question 99 of 130

1

How do enfuvirtides work?

Select one of the following:

  • They incorporate into the growing DNA and inhibit chain formation

  • Blocks protease

  • Inhibit DNA polymerase

  • Blocks entry of the virus into the cell by preventing conformational change

Explanation

Question 100 of 130

1

Which of the following is an integrase inhibitor?

Select one of the following:

  • Retrovir

  • Raltegravir

  • Indinavir

  • Lopinavir

Explanation

Question 101 of 130

1

TNX-355 is used to prevent virus maturation

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 102 of 130

1

When should Antiretroviral therapy be started?

Select one of the following:

  • When CD4 count is less than 200

  • In HIV patient who is pregnant

  • With Hepatits B virus coinfection

  • These are all reasons to start therapy

Explanation

Question 103 of 130

1

Efavirenz is the recommended drug for HIV therapy in pregnant women

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 104 of 130

1

Choose the drugs that are part of HAART?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 2NRTIs

  • NNRTIs

  • Ritonavir

  • Integrase

  • Enfuvirtide

  • Befirimat

  • TNX-355

  • Acyclovir

  • Famciclovir

Explanation

Question 105 of 130

1

Which antiviral drug prevents formation of DNA chain by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis?

Select one of the following:

  • Acyclovir

  • Ganciclovir

  • Raltegravir

  • Retrovir

Explanation

Question 106 of 130

1

Ganciclovir causes myelosuppression

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 107 of 130

1

Which of the following is used for prophylaxis of TB

Select one of the following:

  • Rifampin

  • Isoniazid

  • Streptomycin

  • Ethambutol

Explanation

Question 108 of 130

1

Which of the following is true about isoniazid?

Select one of the following:

  • It is not readily absorbed by the GIT

  • It is metabolized by CYP450 enzyme, therefore having many drug interactions

  • Inhibits synthesis of Mycolic acid

  • Structurally distinct from pyridoxine, therefore causing peripheral neuropathy

Explanation

Question 109 of 130

1

Choose which of the following drugs are administered with isoniazid for treatment?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Rifampin

  • Ethambutol

  • Retrovir

  • Acyclovir

Explanation

Question 110 of 130

1

Rifampin is a "true" antibiotic

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 111 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT true regarding Rifampin?

Select one of the following:

  • Gives a harmless orange color to all bodilly secretions

  • Can cause cholestatic jaundice

  • Used for prophylaxis

  • Binds to bacterial RNA polymerase enzyme and inhibits RNA synthesis

Explanation

Question 112 of 130

1

Mr. Smith works as an airline pilot and was found to have TB. Which drug would you NOT want to give him, due to its effects on visual acuity and color discrimination?

Select one of the following:

  • Isoniazid

  • Rifampin

  • Ethambutol

  • Streptomycin

Explanation

Question 113 of 130

1

Which of the following drugs is given for prophylaxis and cure of malaria?

Select one of the following:

  • Fluoroquinolones

  • Quinolones

  • Albendazole

  • Chloroquine

Explanation

Question 114 of 130

1

Which of the following are concerns with the use of Antimalarials?

Select one of the following:

  • Hemolysis in G6Pd deficient individuals

  • Orange color of bodily secretions

  • Nephrotoxicity

  • Hepatitis

Explanation

Question 115 of 130

1

Which of the following is NOT a concern of antimalrials with long term drug dosing?

Select one of the following:

  • Retinopathy

  • Ototoxicity

  • Irreversible neuropathy

  • Nephrotoxicity

Explanation

Question 116 of 130

1

Epstein-Barr virus can cause nasopharyngeal cancer

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 117 of 130

1

Which of the following cause Hodgkins/Non-Hodgkins?

Select one of the following:

  • Hepatitis B

  • HIV

  • HPV

  • Epstein-Barr virus

Explanation

Question 118 of 130

1

Which of the following is part of treatment for advanced disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Surgery

  • Radiation

  • Chemotherapy

  • All of these are part of advanced disease treatment

Explanation

Question 119 of 130

1

Which of the following NOT consistent with primary resistance in regards to cancer drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • No response with drug therapy

  • Blamed on loss of p53 tumor suppressor gene

  • Common in malignant melanoma

  • Increased expression of MDR1 gene

Explanation

Question 120 of 130

1

How do alkylating agents cause cell death in cancer drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • They transfer their alkyl groups to DNA within the nucleus

  • They can inhibit protein chains and DNA strand breakage by carbamoylation

  • React chemically with sulfydryl, amino,hydroxyl and phosphate groups

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 121 of 130

1

Which of the following causes hemorrhagic cystitis?

Select one of the following:

  • Cyclophosphamide

  • Cisplatin

  • Vincristine

  • Mitomycin

Explanation

Question 122 of 130

1

Which of the following causes myelosuppression?

Select one of the following:

  • Methotrexate

  • Vinblastine

  • Mitomycin

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 123 of 130

1

Which of the following cause mucositis?

Select one of the following:

  • Chlorambucil

  • Vinorelbine

  • 5-flurouracil

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 124 of 130

1

Which of the following cause neutropenia?

Select one of the following:

  • Methotrexate

  • 5-flurouracil

  • Mitomycin

  • Cisplatin

Explanation

Question 125 of 130

1

Which of the following causes SIADH?

Select one of the following:

  • Methotrexate

  • Vinblastine

  • Cyclophospamide

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 126 of 130

1

Methotrexate has a similar mechanism to what other drug?

Select one of the following:

  • Sulfonamides

  • Trimethoprim

  • Fluoroquinolones

  • Penicillins

Explanation

Question 127 of 130

1

Which of the following drugs does NOT inhibit renal excretion of methotrexate?

Select one of the following:

  • Penicillin

  • Cephalosporins

  • Aspirin

  • All of these inhibit renal excretion of methotrexate

Explanation

Question 128 of 130

1

Imatinib prevents phosphorylation of the cell kinase substrates by ATP

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 129 of 130

1

Cetuximab works against which enzyme to suppress cancer growth?

Select one of the following:

  • EGFR

  • Transcriptase

  • Transpeptidase

  • DNA polymerase

Explanation

Question 130 of 130

1

Retinoic acid is used to treat childhood ALL

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

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