mariam Butt
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Medicine Quiz on transplant and reproductive immunology, created by mariam Butt on 07/07/2021.

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transplant and reproductive immunology

Question 1 of 41

1

The graft is a graft from 1 place to another in the same individual

Select one of the following:

  • right

  • wrong

Explanation

Question 2 of 41

1

Should blood group compatibility between donor and recipient be determined before kidney transplantation

Select one of the following:

  • yes

  • no

Explanation

Question 3 of 41

1

3. Classical MHC class II antigens (HLA-DR, DQ) have a more limited distribution than MHC class I antigens

Select one of the following:

  • yes

  • no

Explanation

Question 4 of 41

1

4. The most suitable cells for HLA compatibility testing are lymphocytes derived from the patient's peripheral blood

Select one of the following:

  • yes

  • no

Explanation

Question 5 of 41

1

After blood transfusions, pregnancy and previous transplants can form
circulating antibodies

Select one of the following:

  • yes

  • no

Explanation

Question 6 of 41

1

The acute rejection reaction of the transplanted organ is manifested:

Select one of the following:

  • 3 years

  • 5-6 months

  • up to 3 months

  • up to 1-2 weeks

Explanation

Question 7 of 41

1

Rejection of the transplant is a manifestation of

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cell-mediated immunity

  • An important process in allograft rejection is humoral-mediated immunity

  • Hypersensitivity of type 3 (immune complexes)

  • Complement-dependent cytotoxicity

  • can damage the graft through its prancreatic enzymes.

  • The immune response to the allograft may also include antibodies- igD

Explanation

Question 8 of 41

1

Graft reaction against the host (GVH)

Select one or more of the following:

  • -It manifests itself in different MHC antigens between donor and recipient

  • GVH response does require suppressor T cells

  • -May be the result of an infusion of blood products containing viable lymphocytes into
    immunologically incompetent recipient

  • (GVH) is caused by the destruction of cells or tissues of
    immunocompetent recipient of immunocompetent stem cells

Explanation

Question 9 of 41

1

During transplantation, the preformed cytotoxic antibodies in the recipient

Select one or more of the following:

  • Are responsible for the super-sharp rejection

  • Cytotoxic antibodies of class IgA and IgD lead to an over-acute rejection reaction

  • Can be directed against HLA or ABO antigens of the graft

  • all are correct

Explanation

Question 10 of 41

1

Immunological follow-up of an organ transplant patient requires examination of

Select one or more of the following:

  • Changes in lymphocyte populations and subpopulations

  • n acute rejection is dominated by CD3 + T lymphocytes

  • Donor-specific AT

  • Serum levels of cytokines

  • serum levels of interferons

Explanation

Question 11 of 41

1

In recipients with repeated kidney transplants, graft survival compared to
that in recipients with a first kidney transplant is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • reduced

  • increased

  • recurrent antigenic incompatibilities (especially DR) between donor and recipient in repeated kidney transplants have a positive effect on graft survival.

Explanation

Question 12 of 41

1

Prevention of hemolytic disease of the newborn due to compatibility with maternal Rhesus (RhD) factor includes

Select one or more of the following:

  • passive maternal immunization to remove Rh antigen

  • active maternal immunization to remove Rh antigen

  • infusion done after 72hours after the first birth

  • infusion of anti-RhD antibodies to the Rh (+) mother

Explanation

Question 13 of 41

1

If the mother develops IgG AT to A and B erythrocyte antigens of the fetus, hemolytic disease of the newborn will appear in children from:

Select one or more of the following:

  • - 0 mother and AB father

  • AB mother and 0 father

  • A mother and ab father

  • 0 mother and A father

Explanation

Question 14 of 41

1

Which of the following AGs are rich in cell membranes of B-lymphocytes

Select one or more of the following:

  • MHC class II antigens

  • MHC class I antigens

  • all are correct

  • none are correct

Explanation

Question 15 of 41

1

Class III MHC regions in the major human tissue compatibility complex contain genes which encode

Select one or more of the following:

  • - components of the complement system

  • heat shock proteins and cytokines

  • none are correct

  • components of cellular immunity

Explanation

Question 16 of 41

1

Antimetabolites that suppress the immune response are the purine antagonists are

Select one or more of the following:

  • involved in dna synthesis

  • mercapturin

  • azathioprine

  • involved in mRna synthesis

Explanation

Question 17 of 41

1

Hypersensitivity graft rejection is associated with

Select one or more of the following:

  • preformed cytotoxic
    antibodies

  • complement activation

  • cellular immunity

  • nantural resistance

Explanation

Question 18 of 41

1

The accelerated rejection reaction involves the following immunological factors and
mechanisms of

Select one or more of the following:

  • sensitized T cells preformed by HLA AT formed during immune response to graft or AZKC

  • activated b cells

  • complement system

  • all are correct

Explanation

Question 19 of 41

1

Molecular genetic methods for HLA typing in clinical transplant practice
include

Select one or more of the following:

  • elisa

  • electrophoresis

  • immunoblot

  • pcr

Explanation

Question 20 of 41

1

The cells infiltrating the graft in the acute rejection reaction are predominantly

Select one or more of the following:

  • CD4 +

  • CD3 +

  • CD16 +

  • CD8+

Explanation

Question 21 of 41

1

Allogeneic transplantation

Select one or more of the following:

  • bone marrow transplantation from mother to daughter

  • bone marrow transplantation from daughter to mother

  • bone marrow transplantation from mother to son

  • bone marrow transplantation from father to daughter

Explanation

Question 22 of 41

1

Autologous transplantation

Select one or more of the following:

  • transplantation of skin from the thigh to the face of the same individual

  • transplantation of skin from the thigh to the face of the different individual

  • transplantation of skin from the thigh of a twin to the face of the other twin individual

  • done to replace cicatrix for cosmetic procedure

Explanation

Question 23 of 41

1

Syngenna

Select one or more of the following:

  • bone marrow transplantation from same individual

  • bone marrow transplantation between twins

  • bone marrow transplantation between family members

  • bone marrow transplantation between two compatible donor and recipient

Explanation

Question 24 of 41

1

Sources of stem cells

Select one or more of the following:

  • serum

  • peripheral blood

  • pancreas

  • umbilical cord

  • bone marrow

  • epiphysis

Explanation

Question 25 of 41

1

Gene loci of the HLA-class II region (3 correct)

Select one or more of the following:

  • dp

  • rt

  • dq

  • dr

  • ds

  • located in the long arm of the
    sixth chromosome in humans

Explanation

Question 26 of 41

1

Hormones: luteinizing (LH), follicle-stimulating (FSH), inhibin B and estradiol, are tested in serum to assess ovarian reserve in women with reproductive disorders

Select one or more of the following:

  • yes

  • no

Explanation

Question 27 of 41

1

Recurrent abortions are not associated with defects in coagulation factors or circulating anticoagulants (lupus-like anticoagulants)

Select one or more of the following:

  • correct

  • incorrect

Explanation

Question 28 of 41

1

Women with positive anti-ovarian antibodies have an increased chance of becoming pregnant
after birth control in vitro fertilization or embryo transfer compared to women in whom no such was found antibodies

Select one or more of the following:

  • no

  • yes

Explanation

Question 29 of 41

1

Antibodies in women with reproductive disorders are tested by serum

Select one or more of the following:

  • yes

  • no

Explanation

Question 30 of 41

1

Antiphospholipid syndrome is associated with the presence of anticardiolipin antibodies, loss of
fetal, arterial and venous thrombosis

Select one or more of the following:

  • no

  • yes

Explanation

Question 31 of 41

1

which hormone is secreted by the granulosa cells of the ovary and controls the series of
follicle-stimulating hormone from the pituitary gland

Select one or more of the following:

  • fsh

  • lh

  • inhibin b

  • estradiol

Explanation

Question 32 of 41

1

Which immune indicators are associated with premature decline in ovarian function

Select one or more of the following:

  • rbc,wbc,anti-dna

  • ca19-9, anti phospholipid,antithyroid

  • - antiphospholipid, antinuclear, antithyroid and anti-ovarian AT

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 33 of 41

1

The study of the reproductive immunophenotype in women with reproductive problems includes

Select one or more of the following:

  • T-lymphocytes CD3 +, CD4 +, CD8 +

  • B-lymphocytes CD19 +

  • NK cells CD3 CD56 +, CD16 +

Explanation

Question 34 of 41

1

Immunological manifestations in patients with endometriosis and reproductive problems are
demonstrated

Select one or more of the following:

  • increased serum levels of antiphospholipid and antinuclear antibodies

  • activated reproductive phenotype and increased NK-cell cytotoxicity

  • increase in CA125

Explanation

Question 35 of 41

1

In patients with previous abortions, monitoring and prognosis of the current
pregnancy includes a study of serum concentrations of

Select one or more of the following:

  • FSH

  • - beta human chorionic gonadotropin

  • LH

  • pituitary gland

Explanation

Question 36 of 41

1

HLA-G antigens are expressed in

Select one or more of the following:

  • myoblast

  • osteoblasts

  • trophoblasts

  • lymphokines

Explanation

Question 37 of 41

1

The main functions of HLA-G antigens are (SPECIFY THE WRONG ANSWER)

Select one or more of the following:

  • inhibiting the antitrophoblast activity of maternal NK cells

  • protecting the fetus from the mother's immune response against the paternal antigens in it

  • inducing frequent abortions

  • protection of the fetus from transplant infections

Explanation

Question 38 of 41

1

Elevated NK cells in women with frequent abortions (SPECIFY THE WRONG ANSWER)

Select one or more of the following:

  • secrete tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

  • are examined by peripheral venous blood in an anticoagulant

  • are cytotoxic to the placental trophoblast

  • they don't matter

Explanation

Question 39 of 41

1

The immunological examination of anti-phospholipid syndrome in pregnant women includes

Select one or more of the following:

  • - anticardiolipin antibodies

  • -antibodies to phosphatidylethanolamine, phosphatidylinositol, phosphatidic acid, phosphatidylglycerol, phosphatidylserine, phosphatidylcholine

  • anti-beta-2-glycoprotein I AT

Explanation

Question 40 of 41

1

Anti-ovarian antibodies include AT versus (2 correct)

Select one or more of the following:

  • antigens of the pellucid zone

  • antigens of steroid-producing granulosa-luteinizing cells

  • Antibodies against the pellucid zone are also important in specifying
    cases of cervical cancer

  • Antibodies against the pellucid zone are also important in specifying
    cases of cystic disease.

Explanation

Question 41 of 41

1

The normal development of pregnancy is due to the predominance of

Select one or more of the following:

  • Th1 cytokines

  • Th2 cytokines

Explanation

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