Pharmacology IV (100 Flash Cards)

Acyclovir has selective toxicity mechanism of action b/c:
inhibits viral mRNA
inhibits cellular mRNA in infected cells
only phosphorylated and activated in infected cells

Which of the following is not properly matching the anti-viral med with the virus that caused the disease?

HIV patient with sinusitis due to what?

Most reliable measure of HIV progression?

CD4 count and T-cell count for HIV symptoms?

Pt has viral load of 100,000, which means?

T cell count was 50. What is the right statement?

Which of the following is not a risk of oral cancer
a. Tobacco
b. Alcohol
c. HPV
d. HIV

Which of the following agents is used for HIV infection?
a. amantadine
b. acyclovir
c. zidovudine
d. ribavirin
e. isoniazid

Fungal agent for HIV?

Candidiasis & HIV, what do you give for systemic/topical anti-fungal?

How to take nystatin?

Systemic antifungal?

Medication for angular chelitis?

Oral anti-fungal infection?

Griseofulvin used for?

Clotrimazole mechanism of action?

Mechanism of miconazole (antifungal)?

Best topical antifungal?

which corticosteroid is adminsitered by inhalation to treat asthma?
hydrocortisone, prednisone, cortisone, fluticasone (Flonase), or Methylprednisolone (Medrol)

the major natural mineralcorticoid in humans is ?

which gland secretes aldosterone ?

Name a disease that is caused by the hyposecretion of aldosterone and cortisol?

name two types of corticosteroids:

Alprazolam (Xanax) and Triazolam (Halcion) are what type of drugs?

which benzodiazepine comes as a liquid for pre op sedation in children and injectable for IV conscious sedation?

the most common adverse effects associated with benzodiazepines include all of the following except:
- cns depression (drowsiness and sedation)
- gi disturbances (nausea, vomitting and diarrhea)
- confusion
- respiratory depression
- disorientation
- ataxia

Name a benzodiazepine antagonist that may be used to reverse the residual effects of benzodiazepines in the event of an overdose.

Busprione (BuSpar) is clasified as a minor trnaguilizer which works by what mechanism?
-GABAmimetic
- diminish serotonergic activity
- Cholinomimetic
- diminish glutamate activity

Most common side effect of diazepam (Valium) is?

the barbiturates phenobarbital (Luminal), mephobarbital (mebaral), and Primidone (Mysoline) are classified as what type of barbiturate (wrt duration of action)?

do barbiturates possess analgesic properties?

the brief duration of general anesthetic action of an ultra-short-acting barbituate is due to what factor?

All of the following are pharmacologic effects of glucocorticoids except:
- decrease in gluconeogenesis
- decrease in utilization of glucose
- inhibition of protein synthesis
- an increase in protein catabolsim
- impaired wound healing
- a decreased resistance to infection

beclomethasone, budesonide, and flunisolide are what type of drugs?

the major natural glucocorticoid is?

posoning with an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor can be treated with?

isoflurophate and echothiophate are examples of ?

all are true of edrophonium except?
- direct acting cholinergic agonist (cholinomimetic)
- rapid acting, short duration, injectable cholinesterase inhibitor
- drug of choice for dx myasthenia gravis because of rapid onset and reversibility.
- useful in differentiating a myasthenic crisis form a cholinergic crisis

why is it difficult to distinguish myasthenia gravis and cholinergic crisis?

list typical cholinergic effects?

in dentistry a cholinergic drug is used to?

name two cholinergic drugs used in dentistry.

All of the following are choline esters except?
pilocarpine (Pilocar)
methacholine (Provocholine)
Bethanechol (Urecholine)
Carbechol (Isopto-Carbachol)

Name a non-dental use for pilocarpine?

True or False: All the following drugs have an action which results in increased effects of acetylcholine within the autonomic nervous system AND at hte neuromuscular junctions:
-neostimine
-physostigmine
- edrophonium
- pyridostigmine

The prototype depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent is?

what type of receptors to neuromuscular blocking drugs work on?

name a currently available ganglionic blocker for clinical use:

ganglion blocking drugs fall into what larger class of drugs?

list the cholinergic actions:

Methyldopa (Aldomet) & Clonidine (Catapres) are what types of drugs?

Tolazoline (Priscoline) is what type of drug?

sympathetic is to _____ as parasympathetic is to ____

Tolazolien (Priscoline) is what type of drug?

what is a clinically significant adverse reaction to metoprolol?

if a drug is selective beta 1 blocker it can be said that it is _____?

describe the autonomic function of salivary glands:

epinephrine reversal is a predictable result of the use of epinephrine in a patient who has received a/an.......?

somebody is having an anaphylactic reaction at the dental office.......what is a type of drug you could give and why?

this agent produces physiologic actions opposite to that of histamine?

Salmeterol and metaproterenol are ?

all of the following neurons are cholinergic except?
preganglionic sympathetic neurons
preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
postganglionic sympathetic neurons
postganglionic parasympathetic neurons

Tolazoline (Priscoline) and doxazosin (Cardura) and Prazosin (Minipress) are what type of drugs?

tyramine and methamphetamine are?

adrenaline stimulates?

if you need to control superficial hemorrhage what could you use?

list the four types of sympatholytic drugs:

the following four symptoms result from what type of drug?
- lower blood pressure
- vasodilation
- tachycardia
- orthostatic hypotension

list three therapeutic uses of amphetamines?

T/F epinephrine is ideal to prevent angina pectoris?

halothane and isoflurane are?

What is considered the first symptom of NO2

what color tank is nitrous oxide stored in?

what is the failsafe mechansim for nitrous oxide delivery?

List the typical bodily responses to nitrous oxide at both 10-20% and 20-40% nitrous.

list three reasons why epinephrine is included in dental anesthetics?

name the four stages of general anesthesia with respect to inhalants.

name the only amide-type local anesthetic that is metabolized in the bloodstream rather than the liver.

which component of lidocaine local anesthetic solution causes an allergy?

Name a local anesthetic preparation that does not have vasoconstrictor.

why do you give 100% oxygen following nitrous oxygen use?

name contraindications for nitrous oxide use?

a "blue bloater" is said to have?

what is the max dose in mg/kg for articaine for children? adults?

local anesthetics depress which type of nerve fiber first?

list the general order of loss of function due to use of local anesthetics.....

describe in general terms, how local anesthetics work.

max dose of local anesthetic to a child less than 10 years ld is determined by?

the max recommended adult dose of lidocaine is 300 mg. How many milliliters of 2% lido is needed to reach this?

what are the max recommended doses for lidociane, mepivacaine (Carbocaine), prilocaine (Citanest), and bupivacaine (Marcaine)?

local anesthetics theoretically should be less effective in acutely inflamed tissue than normal tissue because?

name a local anesthetic that has no place in the routine practice of dentistry?

list a contraindication / precaution for the use of prilocaine.

where are ester type local anesthetics metabolized?

what are ester type local anesthetics mainly used for today?

describe why a patient is allergic to procaine (Novocaine)

Name the only nonbarbiturate sedative-hypnotic agent that is indicated in dentistry.

which form of a local anesthetic can readily penetrate tissue membranes?

describe the mechanism of action of local anesthetics on the nerve axon.

	Created by ACAPUN INSTITUTE over 3 years ago

Praxis Flashcards: Pharmacology Flashcards on Pharmacology IV (100 Flash Cards), created by ACAPUN INSTITUTE on 13/07/2021.

Pharmacology IV (100 Flash Cards)