Shawn Tredinnick
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Quiz on N850 test 1 , created by Shawn Tredinnick on 20/09/2021.

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Shawn Tredinnick
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N850 test 1

N850 test 1

Question 1 of 57

1

what conditions must be met for the Lactational amenorrhea method of birth control to be effective? (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • must be > 6 months Post partum

  • used effectively intermittently

  • full-time breastfeeding

  • no return of menses

Explanation

Question 2 of 57

1

Your patient who is breastfeeding asks about hormonal contraceptive selection what would you inform this patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Micronor a Progestin-only oral birth control is appropriate for her

  • The patient should attempt lactational amenorrhea method

  • Xulane a combined hormonal patch would be appropriate for her

  • She may select whatever method she likes but she will have to stop breastfeeding

Explanation

Question 3 of 57

1

what is the maximum time frame that treatment should be initiated for EC?

Select one of the following:

  • 72-120hrs

  • 24-48hrs

  • 12-24hrs

  • 5-7days

Explanation

Question 4 of 57

1

which of the following statements about EC is FALSE

Select one of the following:

  • ECPs disrupt follicular by blunting the LH surge required for ovulation, resulting in anovulation or delayed ovulation

  • will not harm developing embryo

  • Treatment initiated ASAP after unprotected IC, and definitely within 120 hours

  • hormonal IUDs are approved for EC use

Explanation

Question 5 of 57

1

which of the following has the highest efficacy of the listed EC

Select one of the following:

  • Levonorgestrel only (Plan B)

  • Hormonal IUD

  • Copper IUD

  • Ulipristal

Explanation

Question 6 of 57

1

Your patient with a BMI of 36 presents to the clinic requesting emergency contraception which of the following will you offer to her

Select one of the following:

  • Copper IUD

  • Levonorgestrel only (Plan B)

  • Ulipristal acetate (ella)

  • Progestin only minipills

Explanation

Question 7 of 57

1

which of the following statements are TRUE about EC?

Select one of the following:

  • pregnancy test is required prior to use

  • Combination pills preferred w/ history of thromboembolic disease

  • No significant interaction with antibiotics

  • Ulipristal: can be used for breastfeeding women

Explanation

Question 8 of 57

1

which of the following is NOT a risk factor for breast cancer?

Select one of the following:

  • HRT use

  • avoiding breastfeeding

  • Fibrocystic changes

  • obesity

Explanation

Question 9 of 57

1

which of the following is NOT a treatment option for Hidradenitis suppurativa

Select one of the following:

  • steroids

  • warm compresses

  • antibiotics

  • antibacterial soap

Explanation

Question 10 of 57

1

your 25yo 8week pp pt presents to the clinic for a breast mass that she noticed in the shower. she states that she has stopped breast feeding due to work. the mass is firm, without pain, not mobile, and does not increase in size with her menses, symmetrical and about the size of a dime. ultrasound shows that it contains fluid. which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Fibroadenoma

  • Galactocele

  • Fibrocystic Breast

  • Bartholin gland cyst

Explanation

Question 11 of 57

1

Based on United States STD surveillance data, which age group has the highest rates of infection with Chlamydia trachomatis?

Select one of the following:

  • males aged 15-24 years

  • Females aged 15-24 years

  • Females aged 25-40 years

  • males aged 25-40 years

Explanation

Question 12 of 57

1

Which one of the following best describes the most common clinical presentation of chlamydial urethral infection in males?

Select one of the following:

  • Yellow urethral discharge

  • Dysuria

  • Asymptomatic

  • Scrotal pain

Explanation

Question 13 of 57

1

appropriate first-line therapy for urogenital infection due to Chlamydia trachomatis in an adult?

Select one of the following:

  • Ceftriaxone 250 mg intramuscularly

  • Azithromycin 1 gram orally in a single dose

  • doxycycline 1 gram orally in a single dose

  • Ceftriaxone 250 mg intramuscularly in a single dose plus Azithromycin 1 gram orally in a single dose

Explanation

Question 14 of 57

1

A 26-year-old male has two new recent sexual partners and presents with urethral discharge. Which one of the following tests is preferred for detecting Chlamydia trachomatis?

Select one of the following:

  • Urethral swab Gram's stain

  • Urethral swab culture

  • First catch urine nucleic acid amplification test

  • First catch urine culture

Explanation

Question 15 of 57

1

A 19-year-old woman has Chlamydia trachomatis detected on a screening test of a self-collected vaginal swab. She has a pregnancy test, which is negative.
Which one of the following medications is recommended for treatment in this case?

Select one of the following:

  • Doxycline 200 mg orally in a single dose

  • Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally twice daily for 5 days

  • Azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose

  • Levofloxacin 250 mg orally once a day for 5 days

Explanation

Question 16 of 57

1

best describes the clinical sign and symptoms of urethritis caused by infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae in men?

Select one of the following:

  • non-healing sores

  • urethral discharge

  • asymptomatic

  • Scrotal pain

Explanation

Question 17 of 57

1

A 19-year-old man is evaluated in the clinic with a purulent urethral discharge. A Gram's stain is performed on a sample of the discharge.
Which one of the following is most consistent with a diagnosis of gonorrhea?

Select one of the following:

  • Extracellular gram-positive cocci in chains

  • Extracellular gram-negative rods in rows

  • Gram-negative diplococci within white blood cells

  • Abundant white blood cells with no visible organisms

Explanation

Question 18 of 57

1

A 23-year-old woman is diagnosed with gonococcal cervicitis based on purulent discharge and Gram's stain findings. Results for chlamydia are pending.
Which one of the following regimens is recommended?

Select one of the following:

  • Cefixime 400 mg orally in a single dose plus Doxycycline 100 mg twice

  • Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM in a single dose plus Azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose

  • Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM in a single dose plus Azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose

  • Cefixime 1000 mg orally in a single dose plus Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily

Explanation

Question 19 of 57

1

Which one of the following combinations of clinical and laboratory findings most accurately describes primary HSV-2 infection?

Select one of the following:

  • No lesions or symptoms, HSV-1 antibodies may or may not be present, HSV-2 antibodies are present

  • Lesions present, symptoms usually severe, HSV-1 and HSV-2 antibodies not present

  • Lesions present, symptoms usually mild, HSV-1 antibodies may or may not be present, HSV-2 antibodies are present

  • Lesions present, symptoms usually moderate, HSV-1 antibodies present, HSV-2 antibodies are not present

Explanation

Question 20 of 57

1

Which one of the following options is a preferred therapy for both episodic and suppressive treatment of recurrent genital herpes infections?

Select one of the following:

  • Topical cidofovir

  • Oral acyclovir

  • Oral valganciclovir

  • Topical imiquimod

Explanation

Question 21 of 57

1

Which one of the following statements about suppressive antiviral therapy for HSV-2 is TRUE?

Select one of the following:

  • Suppressive acyclovir therapy will cause acyclovir resistance in about 30% of patients therapy

  • Suppressive antiviral therapy with daily valacyclovir decreases the rate of HSV-2 transmission to susceptible heterosexual partners

  • Suppressive antiviral therapy reduces the frequency of genital herpes recurrences by 25%

  • Suppressive acyclovir therapy cannot be used in patients with renal impairment

Explanation

Question 22 of 57

1

A 38-year-old man is seen with an episode of recurrent genital herpes. Which one of the following treatment options would be considered a recommended regimen for this man in this situation?

Select one of the following:

  • Valacyclovir 1000 mg orally as a single dose

  • Acyclovir 800 mg orally as a single dose

  • Valacyclovir 500 mg orally twice a day for 3 days

  • Acyclovir 400 mg orally once a day for 3 days

Explanation

Question 23 of 57

1

Which one of the following regimens has been shown to reduce transmission of HSV in heterosexual HSV-2 discordant heterosexual couples?

Select one of the following:

  • Famciclovir 250 mg orally once daily taken by the HSV-seropositive partner

  • Famciclovir 500 mg orally once daily taken by the HSV-seronegative partner

  • Acyclovir 800 mg orally once daily taken by the HSV-seronegative partner

  • Valacyclovir 500 mg orally once daily taken by the HSV-seropositive partner

Explanation

Question 24 of 57

1

Which one of the following statements regarding anogenital human papillomavirus transmission is TRUE?

Select one of the following:

  • Transmission occurs predominantly via sexual activity and only in persons with visible genital lesions.

  • Transmission via fomites accounts for up to 25% of cases.

  • Use of condoms reduces, but does not eliminate the risk of sexual transmission of HPV.

  • Approximately 50% of mothers with genital HPV at the time of delivery transmit HPV to their newborn.

Explanation

Question 25 of 57

1

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the natural history of HPV infection?

Select one of the following:

  • More than 90% of HPV infections are cleared within 2 years.

  • Persistent HPV infection consistently leads to development of HPV-related cancer within 10 years.

  • Clearance of HPV infection only slightly reduces a person’s risk of developing HPV-related cancer.

  • The average time from infection with HPV until the development of HPV-related cancer is 6.5 years.

Explanation

Question 26 of 57

1

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding clinical presentations of anogenital warts?

Select one of the following:

  • Bleeding is not a known symptom associated with anal warts

  • Vulvovaginal warts may cause dyspareunia, pruritus, or burning discomfort

  • Anogenital warts rarely regress without treatment

  • Anogenital warts always cause significant clinical symptoms

Explanation

Question 27 of 57

1

Which one of the following would be an indication to perform a biopsy of an anogenital wart?

Select one of the following:

  • A wart is larger than 3 cm

  • A wart is larger than 5 cm

  • A wart is persistently ulcerated or bleeding

  • A wart resolves with treatment but later returns at the same location

Explanation

Question 28 of 57

1

Which treatment is considered a recommended patient-applied treatment for external anogenital warts?

Select one of the following:

  • Trichloroacetic acid (TCA) 80-90% solution

  • Cidofovir 1% gel

  • Imiquimod 3.75% cream

  • Bichloroacetic acid (BCA) 10-20% solution

Explanation

Question 29 of 57

1

A pregnant women has multiple vulvar warts that she wants to have treated. Which one of the following choices is considered an acceptable option for this woman?

Select one of the following:

  • Imiquimod

  • Podofilox

  • Trichloroacetic acid

  • Topical cidofovir

Explanation

Question 30 of 57

1

Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the HPV vaccine dosing schedule for healthy boys and girls?

Select one of the following:

  • Boys and girls ages 9 through 14 require only 2 doses

  • Boys and girls ages 17 and older require only 1 dose

  • Boys and girls younger than age 11 require 4 doses

  • Boys and girls ages 15 and older require only 2 doses

Explanation

Question 31 of 57

1

How is acute PID defined?

Select one of the following:

  • Acute is less than or equal to 7 days in duration

  • Acute is less than or equal to 30 days in duration

  • Acute is less than or equal to 14 days in duration

  • Acute is less than or equal to 21 days in duration

Explanation

Question 32 of 57

1

select The most common pathogens associated with PID, (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Chlamydia trachomatis

  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

  • Group B streptococcus

  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Explanation

Question 33 of 57

1

Which one of the following is considered a known chronic sequela following acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in a young woman?

Select one of the following:

  • Cervical incompetence

  • Increased risk for ovarian cancer

  • Uterine prolapse

  • Infertility

Explanation

Question 34 of 57

1

Treatment Guidelines recommend presumptive PID treatment for sexually active young women and other women at risk for STDs if they are experiencing pelvic or lower abdominal pain, if no cause for the illness other than PID can be identified, and if one or more minimum clinical criteria are met. Which one of the following is included under "Minimal Clinical Criteria"?

Select one of the following:

  • Purulent discharge from the cervical os

  • Cervical motion tenderness occurring in the absence of any other explanation

  • Cervical petechiae without evidence of thrombocytopenia or cervical trauma

  • Erythema of the vaginal wall

Explanation

Question 35 of 57

1

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding appropriate follow-up for PID?

Select one of the following:

  • All women treated for PID should have a one-time visit with a reproductive health specialist

  • Patients should be re-examined within 72 hours after initiation of therapy

  • All women treated for PID should receive antimicrobial prophylaxis for major dental work

  • All women treated for PID should undergo yearly pelvic ultrasound every 5 years until age 45 to monitor for possible long-term sequelae

Explanation

Question 36 of 57

1

A 26-year-old woman is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease. She has no antibiotic allergies. The decision is made to treat her as an out-patient. Which one of the following regimens is recommended?

Select one of the following:

  • Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM in a single dose plus doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 14 days plus metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for 14 days

  • Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM in a single dose plus azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose

  • Moxifloxacin 400 mg orally in a single dose plus doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 14 days

  • Ceftriaxone 1 g IM in a single dose plus moxifloxacin 400 mg orally in a single dose plus doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 14 days

Explanation

Question 37 of 57

1

A 22-year-old man is diagnosed with syphilis and condylomata lata.
What is condylomata lata?

Select one of the following:

  • A term used to describe patients with large, irregular chancres in patients with primary syphilis.

  • Multiple cauliflower-like warts that emerge in secondary syphilis as a result of Treponema pallidumu

  • Moist, wart-like papular lesions that develop in 10-20% of patients with secondary syphilis.

  • A rare cutaneous disorder manifested as growths on the scalp in patients with tertiary syphilis

Explanation

Question 38 of 57

1

A 31-year-old woman had a negative screening syphilis test 9 months ago. Five months ago she developed a maculopapular rash that resolved on its own; she now has a Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) titer of 1:128.
How would you classify the current stage of syphilis for this patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Syphilis of unknown duration

  • Late latent

  • Very late latent

  • Early latent

Explanation

Question 39 of 57

1

A 29-year-old man develops a diffuse rash 5 weeks after having sexual contact with a new male partner. Testing for syphilis shows a positive Venereal Diseases Research Lab (VDRL) test of 1:256. He is diagnosed with secondary syphilis. He does not have any antibiotic allergies.
What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Azithromycin 1 g orally as a single dose

  • Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM in a single dose

  • Ceftriaxone 1 g IV as a single dose

  • Benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total, administered as 3 doses of 2.4 million units IM each at 1-week intervals

Explanation

Question 40 of 57

1

Which one of the following best describes a primary syphilis (chancre) lesion?

Select one of the following:

  • A painless, well-circumscribed ulcer that has a clean base and persists for 1 to 6 weeks

  • Multiple painful shallow ulcers that have an erythematous base and persist for 3 to 4 days

  • A large serpiginous ulcer that has a soft, beefy edge and persists for 2 to 4 days

  • A painful soft ulcer that persists for 2 to 4 days

Explanation

Question 41 of 57

1

Which one of the following is TRUE regarding a definition of latent syphilis?

Select one of the following:

  • Late latent refers to syphilis infection of at least 1 year in duration

  • Early latent refers to syphilis infection of less than 6 weeks in duration

  • Late latent refers to syphilis infection of at least 5 years in duration

  • Early latent refers to syphilis infection of less than 12 weeks in duration

Explanation

Question 42 of 57

1

A 24-year-old man presents with a diffuse macular and papular rash on his chest, back, hands and feet. He had 2 new male sexual exposures approximately 6 weeks ago. He now has a positive Venereal Diseases Research Laboratory (VDRL) test with a titer of 1:256. He had a negative syphilis test about 3 months ago. He has no other symptoms and his neurologic examination is normal. He has no known antibiotic allergies.
What treatment is indicated?

Select one of the following:

  • Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM in a single dose plus Azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose

  • Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM in a single dose

  • Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM weekly for 3 total doses

  • Doxycycline 200 mg twice a day for 3 days

Explanation

Question 43 of 57

1

What is the normal vaginal pH in most healthy women?

Select one of the following:

  • Acidic, between 3.8 and 4.5

  • Acidic and less than 2.2

  • Alkaline, between 5.8 and 6.2

  • Alkaline and greater than 6.2

Explanation

Question 44 of 57

1

Which of the following is the most common cause of vaginitis in reproductive-aged women?

Select one of the following:

  • Candidiasis

  • Trichomoniasis

  • Bacterial vaginosis

  • Atrophic vaginitis

Explanation

Question 45 of 57

1

What is the most likely diagnosis based on the following criteria: pH 5.0; clue cells greater than 20% per high power field, potassium hydroxide (KOH) "whiff test" positive with an fishy odor, and homogenous discharge?

Select one of the following:

  • Candidiasis

  • Trichomoniasis

  • Bacterial vaginosis

  • Chlamydia

Explanation

Question 46 of 57

1

Which one of the following is a recommended treatment regimen for non-pregnant women with symptomatic bacterial vaginosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Metronidazole 2 grams orally in a single dose

  • Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for 7 days

  • Tinidazole gel 0.75%, 5 grams intravaginally as a single application

  • Clindamycin 300 mg orally twice a day for 14 days

Explanation

Question 47 of 57

1

Which one of the following best describes the signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis in women?

Select one of the following:

  • Dysuria, itching, and thin milky white vaginal discharge

  • Foul, fishy odor and thick, clumpy white vaginal discharge

  • Asymptomatic, or frothy gray or yellow-green vaginal discharge

  • Mucosal ulcerations associated with pain and radicular symptoms

Explanation

Question 48 of 57

1

Which one of the following adverse clinical outcomes is associated with Trichomonas vaginalis infection in women?

Select one of the following:

  • Ectopic pregnancy

  • Infertility

  • Ovarian cancer

  • Premature rupture of membranes and preterm labor

Explanation

Question 49 of 57

1

Which one of the following is considered a preferred regimen for the treatment of trichomoniasis in a 28-year-old woman who is not pregnant and has not antimicrobial allergies?

Select one of the following:

  • Metronidazole 500 mg orally in a single dose

  • Amoxicillin 500 mg three times a day for 5 days plus metronidazole 500 mg twice a day for 5 days

  • Tinidazole 2 grams orally in a single dose

  • Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 3 days plus metronidazole 500 mg twice a day for 3 days

Explanation

Question 50 of 57

1

Which one of the following women would be considered to have complicated vulvovaginal candidiasis?

Select one of the following:

  • a 67-year old woman

  • A 29-year-old woman with three episodes of vulvovaginal candidiasis in 1 year

  • 34-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus

  • diagnosed in a woman who has experienced symptoms for 8 days

Explanation

Question 51 of 57

1

A 29-year-old woman with a malodorous, homogenous gray vaginal discharge is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. She is not pregnant. What is the recommended treatment for this woman?

Select one of the following:

  • Clindamycin 450 mg three times a day for 7 days

  • Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for 7 days

  • Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 7 days plus Clindamycin 450 mg three times a day for 7 days

  • Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 7 days

Explanation

Question 52 of 57

1

A 30-year-old woman is 28 weeks pregnant and presents with severe vulvar itching and burning, along with thick white clumpy vaginal discharge.
Which one of the following is a recommended regimen for this woman?

Select one of the following:

  • Clotrimazole 1% cream 5 g applied intravaginally daily for 7 days

  • Fluconazole 150 mg orally in a single dose

  • Fluconazole 150 mg orally once daily for 7 days

  • Clotrimazole 500 mg orally once

Explanation

Question 53 of 57

1

what should be done for a 36yo woman complaining of diffused breast tenderness who has had a normal screening mammogram result 6 months ago?

Select one of the following:

  • diagnostic mammogram

  • Supportive, soft bra (sports bra)

  • Decrease caffeine intake

  • Decrease salt, particularly 2 weeks before menses

Explanation

Question 54 of 57

1

your 34yo pt calls with complaints of breast/nipple pain only on the left with a clear, sometimes blood streaked discharge. she has had her mammogram this year with normal findings. what is the best thing to be done with this pt?

Select one of the following:

  • that it is likely benign causes, follow up in 3 months

  • it is a benign Intraductal papilloma that should be left in place

  • you should assess for recent trauma to that side

  • ductogram/possibly MRI

Explanation

Question 55 of 57

1

You're breastfeeding patient calls complaining of painful red left breast that is hot to the touch, she states that she feel terrible, and that her temp this morning was 101.5 before taking Tylenol, what should be prescribed for this pt?

Select one of the following:

  • doxycycline 500 mg 2 times per day for 5-14 days

  • Keflex 500 mg 1 time a day for at least 3 days.

  • Dicloxacillin 500 mg 4 times per day for 5-14 days

  • doxycycline 125mg 4 times per day for 5-14 days

Explanation

Question 56 of 57

1

select the TRUE statement about Breast cancer(select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1 in 8 lifetime risk of breast cancer

  • 80% of women who develop breast CA have no FH

  • 2nd leading cause of death among women ages 40-59

  • 80% of breast CA lumps occur in the upper outer quadrant of the breast

  • 98% of breast cancers are PAINLESS

Explanation

Question 57 of 57

1

what are the most dangerous types of HPV

Select one of the following:

  • 6, 11

  • 16, 18

  • 8, 19

  • 16,17

Explanation

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