Elisabeth Haasen
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cycle 1 Physiology Quiz on Physio cycle 1, 2018-2019 retake, created by Elisabeth Haasen on 10/11/2021.

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Elisabeth Haasen
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Physio cycle 1, 2018-2019 retake

Question 1 of 38

1

Which of following sentences are true?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Immunoglobulins against antigen D of Rhesus system develop in childhood

  • Ratio of agglutinins of ABO in plasma of blood rises throughout childhood.

  • Immunoglobulins against antigens ABO blood type system are produced by the fetus before their birth.

  • Agglutinins in ABO system are produced in effect of immunization against antigens A and B, being simple and common antigens.

Explanation

Question 2 of 38

1

Which of following statements concern G-protein coupled receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • G-protein coupled receptors hydrolyses GTP, transferred from G-protein to the binding site of the receptor.

  • Muscarinic receptor is an example of G-protein coupled receptor.

  • All adrenergic receptors belong to family of G-protein coupled receptors.

  • G-protein coupled receptors are metabotropic, they initiate formation of second messengers: cAMP or IP3.

Explanation

Question 3 of 38

1

Which of following statements properly describe agglutination:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Administration of heparin slows the process of agglutination.

  • Agglutination is in vitro phenomenon, in vivo process continues, engaging mechanism of destruction of erythrocytes.

  • Administration of isotonic solution of NaCl can facilitate IgG-dependent agglutination of erythrocytes

  • Gamma globulins of IgG class easily agglutinate erythrocytes in room temperature.

Explanation

Question 4 of 38

1

Which of following results of blood tests may suggest improperly low activity/ concentration of thrombin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Prolonged time of the clotting time test

  • Prolonged prothrombin time

  • Prolonged time of bleeding time test.

  • Prolonged time of Rumpel-Leede test.

Explanation

Question 5 of 38

1

Which of following statements concerning thromboxane A2 (TxA2) are true?

Select one or more of the following:

  • It activates fibrinolysis.

  • TxA2 activates platelets – it intensifies their degranulation (release of the content of granules).

  • It prevents aggregation of platelets.

  • It mediates vascular contraction.

Explanation

Question 6 of 38

1

Which of following statement concerning active transport are true?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Na/K ATP-ase exchanges 2 sodium ions for 1 potassium ion. Each such exchange requires two ATP molecules.

  • Co-transportation of glucose and sodium ions requires previous action of Na/K ATP-ase. Such the mechanism is an example of secondary active transport.

  • Calcium ions are actively pumped into cellular cytosol by the calcium ATP-ase. This mechanism maintains higher concentration of calcium in cellular cytosol than in ECF.

  • Active transport mechanisms are able to move substances against concentration gradient.

Explanation

Question 7 of 38

1

Which of following statements properly describe metabotropic receptors (MR)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Muscarinic receptor are coupled to phospholipase C and adenylyl cyclase

  • GABAb receptor is an example of metabotropic receptor

  • tyrosine kinase receptors are metabotropic receptor able to autophosphorylates after binding their ligands

  • some adrenergic receptors are tyrosine kinase receptors

Explanation

Question 8 of 38

1

Which of the following statements properly concern G proteins?

Select one or more of the following:

  • binding of insulin to G protein of the insulin receptor initiates process of activation of adenylyl cyclase

  • extracellular ligands bind to G-protein coupled receptors which in turn activate particular G protein

  • inhibitory G protein (Gi protein) is coupled to carbonic anhydrase of some cells-

  • the G-protein activates a cascade of signaling events that finally results in a change in cell function

Explanation

Question 9 of 38

1

Which of the following receptors are ionotropic?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Ryanodine receptor

  • Rhodopsin receptor

  • PTH receptor

  • Nicotine receptor

Explanation

Question 10 of 38

1

Which of the following statements properly describe hormones produced by anterior pituitary gland =APG?

Select one or more of the following:

  • dopamine decreases liberation of from APG in mechanism of negative feedback

  • liberation of corticoliberin (CRH) from APG is stimulated by corticotropin (ACTH)

  • TSH is liberated from APG. TSH binds its metatropic receptor of the membrane of the thyroid cell

  • GnRH (gonadoliberin) from hypothalamus stimulates anterior pituitary cells to secrete FSH and LH

  • prolactin is produced by supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus and liberated by the anterior pituitary

Explanation

Question 11 of 38

1

Actions of angiotensin II are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • it mediates vasoconstriction

  • it decreases reabsorption of sodium ions in kidneys

  • it stimulates secretion of aldosterone from adrenal cortex

  • it increases heart rate

Explanation

Question 12 of 38

1

Oxytocin:

Select one or more of the following:

  • it produces contraction of the uterus

  • it binds to the ligand-gated sodium channel of smooth muscle cells of the uterus

  • it is responsible for milk ejection due to contraction of myoepithelial cells

  • it has galactopoietic activity -it stimulates production of milk

Explanation

Question 13 of 38

1

Phenomena causing increased liberation of renin are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • increased arterial pressure

  • reduced volume of ECF and hypoperfusion of the kidney

  • decreased load of distal tubular fluid (NaCl) in area of the macula densa (of the distal tubule)

  • increased volume of ECF (hypervolemina)

Explanation

Question 14 of 38

1

Put following ions the ECF in proper order, beginning from the most concentrated (mmol/L):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Na+, Cl-, Bicarbonate, K+

  • Cl-, Bicarbonate, Na+, K+

  • Bicarbonate, Cl-, K+, Na+

  • K+, Cl-, Na+, Bicarbonate

Explanation

Question 15 of 38

1

Which of the following statement concerning active transport are true?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Na/K ATPase exchanges 2 sodium ions for 1 potassium ion. Each such exchange requires 2 ATP molecules

  • co-transportation of glucose and sodium ions requires previous action of Na/K-ATPase. Such the mechanism is an example of secondary active transport

  • calcium ions are actively pumped into cellular cytosol by the calcium ATP-ase. This mechanism maintains higher concentration of calcium in cellular cytosol than in ECF

  • active transport mechanism are able to move substances against concentration gradient

Explanation

Question 16 of 38

1

Action of glucocorticoids (cortisol) are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • rise of liberation of histamine from mast cells

  • rise of gluconeogenesis

  • rise of plasma concentration free fatty acids

  • intensification of catecholamine-dependent bronchodilation

Explanation

Question 17 of 38

1

Channels embedded in cellular membrane can be gated by:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Extracellular ligand such as glycine

  • Change of the electrical potential of the cellular membrane

  • mechanical deformation of the cell

  • second messenger such as IP3

Explanation

Question 18 of 38

1

Which of the following statements properly describes beta-adrenergic receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • beta-adrenergic receptor is ligand-gated channel

  • activity of adrenergic receptors brings EPSP to the postsynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction

  • beta-adrenergic receptors are G protein coupled receptors related to adenylyl cyclase

  • activation of beta-adrenergic receptors up-regulates synthesis of cAMP

Explanation

Question 19 of 38

1

Which of following statements properly concern metabolism of calcium ion?

Select one or more of the following:

  • growth hormone exerts hypercalcemic effect

  • PTH up-regulated (increases) mobilization of calcium ion from bones

  • PTH decreases activity of 1alpha-hydroxylase of vitamin 25-OHD3 in kidney

  • thyroid hormones decrease plasma concentration of calcium

Explanation

Question 20 of 38

1

Which of following will NOT haemolyse erythrocytes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 5% solution of glucose

  • benzene, ether and other organic solvents

  • IgG against D-antigen administered to Rh-D-negative mother after delivery of the Rh-D positive fetus

  • 0,6% saline

Explanation

Question 21 of 38

1

Which of the following statements are true in case of erythropoietin (EPO)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • adenosine and androgens inhibit secretion of EPO

  • EPO is produced by interstitial cells in peritubular capillary bed of kidneys

  • EPO increases the number of erythropoietin sensitive committed stem cells in the bone marrow that are converted by red blood cell precursors

  • hypoxia (low partial pressure of O2) in kidney is the main stimulus for EPO release-

Explanation

Question 22 of 38

1

Find right sentences concerning transportation of CO2 in blood:

Select one or more of the following:

  • 5-7% of all the CO2 is transported physically dissolved in blood

  • 10% of CO2 is converted to bicarbonate. Conversion is spontaneous and performed in plasma of blood

  • part of CO2 is reversibly bound to hemoglobin, forming carbaminohemoglobin

  • carbaminohemoglobin is an example of reduced hemoglobin of red-brown colour

Explanation

Question 23 of 38

1

Which of following statements properly concern eosinophils?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hey migrate in large number into tissues infected by parasites where they release hydrolytic enzymes

  • they release heparin, histamine as well as small quantities of bradykinin and serotonin

  • they belong to the adaptive immune system. they are not able to phagocyte

  • they aggregate in tissues when allergic reactions occur, (peribronchial tissue in people with asthma)

  • the exhibit chemotaxis

Explanation

Question 24 of 38

1

Which of following statements properly concern agglutination?

Select one or more of the following:

  • administration of heparin slows the process agglutination

  • agglutination is in vitro phenomenon resulting from an interaction between the agglutinogen and agglutinin

  • gamma globulins of IgM class are able to produce immediate agglutination in room temperature

  • agglutination results from an interaction between the platelet’s GP IIb/IIIa and vascular collagen

Explanation

Question 25 of 38

1

Which of following sentences are true?

Select one or more of the following:

  • agglutinins against antigens of Rh system develop in childhood

  • immediately after birth, the quantity of agglutinins in the plasma of the newborn is almost zero

  • immunoglobulin against antigens 0-A-B blood type system are produced by the fetus before the birth

  • agglutinins in 0-A-B blood type system are produced in effect of immunization against antigens A and B commonly present in environment

Explanation

Question 26 of 38

1

In Rh system of blood:

Select one or more of the following:

  • D antigen is the most antigenic (the strongest) component of the system

  • D antigen is the only antigen of the system

  • antigens are proteins, located only on membranes of erythrocytes

  • agglutinogens are synthesized in Rh-D negative individuals after exposure to Rh-D positive blood

Explanation

Question 27 of 38

1

Complement is a group of more than 25 proteins of the innate immunity. Find their actions

Select one or more of the following:

  • Chemotaxis (chemoattraction) of macrophages and neutrophils

  • degranulation of the eosinophils and monocytes

  • promotion of agglutination of invading microbes

  • presenting on the water soluble antigen

  • opsonization

  • maturation of erythrocytes

Explanation

Question 28 of 38

1

Which statements characterize IgG immunoglobulin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • it can easily produce agglutination of erythrocytes

  • it cannot cross blood-placenta barrier

  • binding of C1 complex of complement to antigen-IgG complex initiates classical pathway of complement activation

  • it has only 2 antigen-binding sites

  • it is a memory immunoglobulin

Explanation

Question 29 of 38

1

Identify right statements concerning the Bleeding time test?

Select one or more of the following:

  • its duration is inversely proportional to the number of platelets

  • it does not depend on concentration and activity of plasma factors of secondary hemostasis

  • it is prolonged in people treated with heparin

  • it tests processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation

Explanation

Question 30 of 38

1

Choose the correct statements concerning B lymphocytes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • they mediate cellular immunity

  • lymphocytes B are classified as professional antigen presenting cells

  • they are formed mainly in in thymus

  • B lymphocytes express B cell receptors on their cell membrane. It allows B lymphocytes to bind a specific antigen

Explanation

Question 31 of 38

1

Analyze ABO system of a couple: a woman (blood type A) has a father whose blood type is O, and is married to a man whose blood type is B (his mother type is A). What is their child probability of blood type A:

Select one or more of the following:

  • 75%

  • 0%

  • 50%

  • 25%

Explanation

Question 32 of 38

1

Which of the following statement concern G-Protein concern receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Nicotinic receptor is an example of G-Protein coupled receptor

  • Examples of G-Protein coupled receptor are rhodopsin and GABA-Receptor.

  • G-Protein coupled receptors are metabotropic receptors

  • All G-Protein coupled receptors are metabotropic receptors, they activate intracellular enzymes.

Explanation

Question 33 of 38

1

Which of the following statements properly concern muscarinic receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • All muscarinic receptors are serpentine G-coupled receptors.

  • Some of them are ligand-gated ionic channels.

  • Muscarinic receptors modify activity of adenylyl cyclase of phospholipase C.

  • Acetylcholine is an antagonist of all muscarinic receptors.

Explanation

Question 34 of 38

1

Which if following receptors are Ionotropic receptor?

Select one or more of the following:

  • IP3 and ryanodine receptors

  • Rhodopsin and vasopressin receptors

  • Insulin and adrenergic receptors

  • Glycine and nicotinic receptors

Explanation

Question 35 of 38

1

Find proper sequence of events in signal transduction of the G-Protein coupled receptor:

A) G-Protein dissociates from the receptor, Subunits of G protein dissociate
B) Binding of the ligand to its native receptor, receptor activates
C) Subunits of G-Protein interact with their appropriate enzymes, activating various second messenger pathways and other effector proteins.
D) Receptor interacts with G-protein to promote a conformational change and the exchange of GDP to GTP
E) Autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues of beta-subunit of the receptor, beta-subunit
phosphorylates other proteins.

Select one or more of the following:

  • D, C, A, E, B

  • B, D, A, C, E

  • E, C, A, D, B

  • B, D, A, E, C

Explanation

Question 36 of 38

1

Which of following statements properly describe characteristics of facilitated diffusion?

Select one or more of the following:

  • In facilitated diffusion, membrane carriers enable movement of molecules through cellular membranes against concentration gradient.

  • Particular membrane carrier is able to transfer one particular type of molecules soluble in water.

  • Facilitated diffusion characterized with limit rate of transfer of substance diffuse as maximum saturation.

  • Water molecules pass from the cell of the collecting duct to its lumen through the system of facilitated diffusion called AQP2

Explanation

Question 37 of 38

1

Which of following statements properly concern gating of channels of a cellular membrane:

Select one or more of the following:

  • insulin receptor open channels for tyrosine, which become phosphorylated in cytosol of the cell

  • Glycine receptor is an example of chemically-gated channel for chloride ion

  • smooth muscle cells can contract being mechanically stretched it is mediated by stretch gated channels

  • action potential of excitable cells is usually evoked by entrance of cations through electrical gated channels (Na+ & K+)

  • action potential of excitable cells is usually provoked by outflow of anions through ligand-gated channels

Explanation

Question 38 of 38

1

Find right statement concerning membrane transportation:

Select one or more of the following:

  • secondary active transport uses potential energy stored in concentration gradient of some ions created by energy liberated from ATP, such as in sodium concentration gradient dependent transport of glucose

  • secondary active transport can transfer co-transported molecules even against concentration gradient

Explanation

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