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for the first physio exam

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Physio Exam 1

Physio Exam 1

Question 1 of 61

1

Which of the following is responsible in a feedback system for comparing the rate of activity or the level of product to a set point for the body?

Select one of the following:

  • Sensor

  • Integrator

  • Effector

Explanation

Question 2 of 61

1

Which of the following is an example of antagonistic competition?

Select one of the following:

  • Sodium flurooacetate creating flurocitrate which binds to aconitase instead of it's normal ligand, citrate, and inhibiting the enzyme

  • Phosphorylating the enzyme pyruvate kinase, inhibiting the enzyme until a phosphatase reactivates it later

  • AMP binding to phosphofructokinase-1 which helps activate the enzyme in times of low energy

  • Morphine binding to opiod receptors in the body, producing the same effects but binding instead of the natural opiods the body produces

Explanation

Question 3 of 61

1

Which of the following is an example of how the body can endogenously provide its own molecular building blocks?

Select one of the following:

  • diet

  • symbiotic organisms (natural flora)

  • de novo synthesis

Explanation

Question 4 of 61

1

Monosaccharides are held together with...

Select one of the following:

  • Glycosidic bonds

  • Ester bonds

  • Peptide bonds

  • Phosphodiester bonds

  • Hydrogen bonds

  • Covalent bonds

Explanation

Question 5 of 61

1

Which of the following protein structures include alpha-helices and beta-sheets?

Select one of the following:

  • primary

  • secondary

  • tertiary

  • quaternary

Explanation

Question 6 of 61

1

Which of the following is not a function of nucleic acids and a proteins? (not a function of both?)

Select one of the following:

  • Structure

  • Catalyst

  • Chemical messengers

  • Solubility barrier

Explanation

Question 7 of 61

1

What bonds hold DNA structures together (double helix)?

Select one of the following:

  • Phosphodiester bonds

  • Peptide bonds

  • Hydrogen bonds

  • Covalent bonds

  • Ester bonds

  • Glycosidic bonds

Explanation

Question 8 of 61

1

The difference of a cell based on the location that you are in in the cell is referred to as

Select one of the following:

  • Size

  • Polarity

  • Responsiveness

  • Differentiation

Explanation

Question 9 of 61

1

Which of these abilities is special to stem cells?

Select one of the following:

  • Ability to self renew

  • Ability to differentiate into specialized cells

  • Neither

  • Both

Explanation

Question 10 of 61

1

Which of the following is an example of an active symport transportation?

Select one of the following:

  • Glucose moving across the membrane

  • Na/K pump

  • Na/amino acid transporter

  • ATP Synthase

Explanation

Question 11 of 61

1

What organelle's outside membrane is continuous with rough ER?

Select one of the following:

  • Nucleus

  • Ribosomes

  • Golgi Apparatus

  • Lysosomes

Explanation

Question 12 of 61

1

Polyribosomes are...

Select one of the following:

  • multiple ribosomes attached to 1 strand of mRNA, responsible for creating proteins to be sent outside the cell

  • multiple ribosomes attached to the rough ER, responsible for intracellular proteins

  • multiple ribosomes attached to rough ER, responsible for creating proteins to be sent outside of the cell

  • multiple ribosomes attached to 1 strand of mRNA, responsible for intracellular proteins

Explanation

Question 13 of 61

1

What is responsible for the addition of carbohydrate chains to proteins or for multi-subunit protein assembly?

Select one of the following:

  • Rough ER

  • Golgi Apparatus

  • Smooth ER

  • Ribosomes

Explanation

Question 14 of 61

1

Which of the following aids in defending against infections?

Select one of the following:

  • Vacuoles

  • Golgi Apparatus

  • Lysosomes

  • Ribosomes

Explanation

Question 15 of 61

1

What are the products of glycolysis?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH, 2 ATP

  • 2 pyruvate, 1 NADH, 1 ATP

  • 3 NADH, 2 CO2, 1 GTP, 1 FADH2

  • 4 NADH, 2 CO2, 1 GTP, 2 FADH2

Explanation

Question 16 of 61

1

What are the products of Krebs Cycle?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH, 2 ATP

  • 2 pyruvate, 1 NADH, 1 ATP

  • 3 NADH, 2 CO2, 1 GTP, 1 FADH2

  • 4 NADH, 2 CO2, 1 GTP, 2 FADH2

Explanation

Question 17 of 61

1

What does adenylate cyclase do?

Select one of the following:

  • convert ATP to ADP

  • convert ATP to AMP

  • convert 2 ADPs to AMP

  • convert ATP to cAMP

Explanation

Question 18 of 61

1

During oderant signaling, what happens to depolarize the membrane?

Select one of the following:

  • opening of Na/Ca2+ channels

  • opening of Cl- channels

  • Opening of Na/K pumps

  • Opening of Na/Ca2+ channels AND Cl- channels

  • Opening of Na/K pumps AND Cl- channels

Explanation

Question 19 of 61

1

Which of the following will inactivate the oderant signal?

Select one of the following:

  • hydrolysis of cAMP

  • hydrolysis of AMP

  • Restoration of potassium ions

  • phosphorylation of adenylate cyclase

Explanation

Question 20 of 61

1

What is different about estrogen and glucocorticoid signalling?

Select one of the following:

  • 1) it uses ligand-activated transcription factors

  • 2) It doesn't go through GPCR

  • 3) It bypasses external protein receptors

  • 1) and 2)

  • 2) and 3)

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 21 of 61

1

What is VEGF used in response to?

Select one of the following:

  • It is used to relax contracted respiratory muscles

  • It is used to maintain and expand the capacity of vascular systems

  • It is used to regulate fluid and electrolyte balance

  • it is used to regulate appetite

Explanation

Question 22 of 61

1

What best describes the pathway for VEGF?

Select one of the following:

  • GPCR activates AC which produces cAMP which activates ion channels that allow for depolarization

  • tyrosine kinase is activated and phosphorylates intracellular proteins which leads to an increase in calcium and an activation of transcription factors

  • GPCR is activated which leads to an activation of AC which leads to cAMP increases that activate kinases that leads to a drop in calcium

Explanation

Question 23 of 61

1

What leads to the muscle relaxation in the pathway following epinephrine binding to GPCR?

Select one of the following:

  • drop in calcium

  • decrease in cAMP

  • dephosphorylation of muscle proteins

  • opening of Cl- channels

Explanation

Question 24 of 61

1

In the ADH pathway, what does the activation of protein kinases lead to?

Select one of the following:

  • phosphorylation of muscle cells

  • Release of growth hormone

  • transcription of aquaporin-2 gene

  • opening of ion channels

Explanation

Question 25 of 61

1

What does the release of intracellular calcium in the ghrelin pathway ultimately lead to?

Select one of the following:

  • muscle contraction

  • the release of GH (growth hormone)

  • depolarization of the membrane

  • influx of water

Explanation

Question 26 of 61

1

What do sequential phosphorylation by MEK/ERK pathways activate?

Select one of the following:

  • RNA polymerase

  • muscle contraction

  • transcription factors

  • opening of ion channels

Explanation

Question 27 of 61

1

Myc and fos are activated by which receptor?

Select one of the following:

  • Growth factor receptor

  • VEGF

  • Vasopressin 2

Explanation

Question 28 of 61

1

What occurs during G1 phase?

Select one of the following:

  • chromosomes are replicated

  • transcription ceases

  • ATP is restored in preparation of distribution of chromosomes and organelles

  • ATP is accumulated while the cell grows in size

Explanation

Question 29 of 61

1

What are cyclins/Cdk important in?

Select one of the following:

  • 1) transitioning between phases in the cell cycle

  • 2) acting as an aid in the "checkpoints" for the cell cycle

  • 3) phosphorylating the checkpoints in the cell cycle

  • 1 and 2

  • 2 and 3

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 30 of 61

1

What are mitogens?

Select one of the following:

  • 1) growth factors that promote entry into the cell cycle

  • 2) signalling agents that increase cyclin D gene expression

  • 3) signalling agents that prevent cyclin D breakdown

  • 1) and 2)

  • 2) and 3)

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 31 of 61

1

What ability does RNA polymerase have that differs from other polymerases?

Select one of the following:

  • The ability to transcribe several different RNA strands at once

  • The ability to detect and repair mismatches

  • The ability to attach directly to ribosomes

  • The ability to synthesize both DNA and RNA

Explanation

Question 32 of 61

1

Which of the following is not a consequence of DNA damage?

Select one of the following:

  • DNA repair

  • Cell Cycle arrest

  • Transcription of an incorrect protein leading to protein repair

  • Apoptosis/Necrosis

  • Cell Growth

Explanation

Question 33 of 61

1

How is the endonuclease enzyme used in DNA repair?

Select one of the following:

  • It flanks the site of the DNA damage to help isolate it

  • It clips out the DNA via dual incision

  • It fills the gap with correctly paired bases

  • It recognizes the damage and alerts the rest of the cell

Explanation

Question 34 of 61

1

Which of the following properties of a muscle refers to the muscle's ability to stretch beyond its normal resting length to a certain degree?

Select one of the following:

  • Contractility

  • Excitability

  • Extensibility

  • Elasticity

Explanation

Question 35 of 61

1

What is the best example of parallel-elastic component in a single muscle system?

Select one of the following:

  • The tendons lying next to the muscle

  • The sarcolemma of the muscle

  • The agonist muscle of a system

  • The antagonist muscle of a system

Explanation

Question 36 of 61

1

What forms the multinucleated synctium?

Select one of the following:

  • myofibrils merging to form myoblasts

  • myoblasts merging to form myotubes

  • myofibrils merging to form myotubes

  • myoblasts merging to form myofibrils

Explanation

Question 37 of 61

1

What is the midpoint of the sarcomere?

Select one of the following:

  • A band

  • I band

  • H zone

  • M line

  • Z line

Explanation

Question 38 of 61

1

What is the length of the thick filaments?

Select one of the following:

  • H zone

  • I band

  • A band

  • M line

  • Z line

Explanation

Question 39 of 61

1

What is the distance between adjacent thick filaments in a sarcomere called?

Select one of the following:

  • M line

  • A band

  • I band

  • Z lines

  • H zone/band

Explanation

Question 40 of 61

1

What is the lines in the middle of the I bands that form the ends of the sarcomere?

Select one of the following:

  • H zone

  • Z lines

  • I band

  • A band

  • M line

Explanation

Question 41 of 61

1

What is the region in between thin filaments?

Select one of the following:

  • H zone

  • Z lines

  • I band

  • A band

  • M line

Explanation

Question 42 of 61

1

What is the purpose of alpha-actinin?

Select one of the following:

  • To attach thin filaments to Z lines

  • to act as a template for the formation of the thin filament

  • to connect thick filaments to Z lines

  • to prevent the sarcomere from being pulled apart

Explanation

Question 43 of 61

1

What is the purpose of nebulin?

Select one of the following:

  • To act as a template for formation of the thin filament

  • To attach thin filaments to Z lines

  • To connect thick filaments to Z lines

  • To prevent the sarcomere from being pulled apart during muscle stretching

Explanation

Question 44 of 61

1

What prevents the sarcomere from being pulled apart during muscle stretching and also anchors the thick filaments to the Z line?

Select one of the following:

  • alpha-actinin

  • nebulin

  • titin

Explanation

Question 45 of 61

1

What allows for the myosin head to attach to the actin?

Select one of the following:

  • increase in calcium

  • dissociation of ADP and P from the myosin head

  • the binding of ADP and P to the myosin head

Explanation

Question 46 of 61

1

The dissociation of ADP and P from the myosin head allows the myosin head to do what?

Select one of the following:

  • allows the myosin head to attach to actin

  • allows the myosin head to undergo a power stroke, which moves the actin muscle through a contraction

  • allows the myosin head to reattach to the actin filament

Explanation

Question 47 of 61

1

What allows the myosin head to detach from the actin filament?

Select one of the following:

  • the presence of calcium

  • the dissociation of ADP and P

  • the reattachment of ADP and P

Explanation

Question 48 of 61

1

What does aponeurosis refer to?

Select one of the following:

  • Dead muscle

  • Dead skin

  • A very broad tendon

  • A very small tendon

Explanation

Question 49 of 61

1

What does an agonist muscle do?

Select one of the following:

  • A muscle that produces an action when it contracts

  • It relaxes when the prime mover contracts, acting in opposition

  • It provides elastic support for the prime mover

Explanation

Question 50 of 61

1

An influx of sodium will lead to a...

Select one of the following:

  • depolarization

  • repolarization

  • hyperpolarization

Explanation

Question 51 of 61

1

The resting membrane potential is _____________ compared to the outside.

Select one of the following:

  • negative

  • positive

Explanation

Question 52 of 61

1

A motor unit is...

Select one of the following:

  • a single muscle fiber

  • a muscle neuron

  • a muscle neuron and all of its attached fibers

  • a muscle fiber and all of its attached neurons

Explanation

Question 53 of 61

1

What does the binding of ACh enact in a muscle cell?

Select one of the following:

  • The release of sodium

  • The release of chlorine

  • The release of potassium

  • The release of calcium

Explanation

Question 54 of 61

1

What is DHPR responsible for?

Select one of the following:

  • receiving ACh

  • opening in response to membrane depolarization and activating RyR

  • activating SERCA and allowing for the uptake of calcium

  • allowing the action potential to enter the muscle cell

  • opening the sarcoplasmic reticulum and releasing calcium into the cell

Explanation

Question 55 of 61

1

Isotonic is...

Select one of the following:

  • a contraction of a constant load

  • a contraction of a constant length

Explanation

Question 56 of 61

1

High myosin ATPase activity, high shortening velocity, and rapid fatigue are common of which types of fibers?

Select one of the following:

  • fast

  • slow

  • oxidative

  • glycolytic

Explanation

Question 57 of 61

1

Low intensity exercise affects...

Select one of the following:

  • glycolytic fibers

  • oxidative fibers

Explanation

Question 58 of 61

1

Atrophy of muscles is a result of all of the following except

Select one of the following:

  • aging

  • disease

  • inactivity

  • diet

Explanation

Question 59 of 61

1

Every third amino acid in collagen is...

Select one of the following:

  • glycine

  • lysine

  • proline

  • glutamine

Explanation

Question 60 of 61

1

Procollagen is...

Select one of the following:

  • a regulatory protein of water

  • a carb that provides lubrication and spacing between fibers

  • a peptide needed to inhibit the self-assembly of collagen molecule they are exported out of the cell

  • a shock absorber for collagen

Explanation

Question 61 of 61

1

Healing a tendon results in all of the following except

Select one of the following:

  • increased vascularity

  • collagen degeneration

  • collagen organization

  • fibroblast proliferation

Explanation

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