ISTQB Foundation Level - 500 questions

Question 1 of 200

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Q. 1: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover the following series of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO

Select one of the following:

A. D, A, B, C.
B. A, B, C, D.
C. D, A, B.
D. A, B, C.

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

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Q. 2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration
Management?:
i) Identifying the version of software under test.
ii) Controlling the version of testware items.
iii) Developing new testware items.
iv) Tracking changes to testware items.
v) Analysing the need for new testware items.

Select one of the following:

A. ii, iv and v.
B. ii, iii and iv.i
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i, iii and v.

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

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Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?

Select one of the following:

A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
B. Initiating corrective actions.
C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

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Q. 4: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a
walkthrough?

Select one of the following:

A. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by the author.
B. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the author.
C. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by a trained moderator.
D. A walkthrough is led by the author. The author is not present during inspections.

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

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Q. 5: Where may functional testing be performed?

Select one of the following:

A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

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Q. 6: What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable?

Select one of the following:

A. To identify potential application failures by use of a test specification.
B. To identify defects in any software work product.
C. To identify spelling mistakes in a requirements specification.
D. To identify standards inconsistencies in the code.

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

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Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?

Select one of the following:

A. Developers.
B. Analysts.
C. Testers.
D. Incident Managers.

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

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Q. 8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?

Select one of the following:

A. The name and/or organisational position of the person raising the problem.
B. Version of the Software Under Test.
C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.
D. Actual and expected results.

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

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Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?

Select one of the following:

A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

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Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which
statement BEST details those for developers

i) Performance testing tools.
ii) Coverage measurement tools.
iii) Test comparators.
iv) Dynamic analysis tools.
v) Incident management tools.

Select one of the following:

A. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
B. ii. and iv. are more for developers.
C. ii, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
D. ii. and iii. are more for developers.

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

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Q. 11: Which of the following is correct?

Select one of the following:

A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing.
B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team.
C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been
fixed correctly.
D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much
regression testing to do.

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

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Q. 12: As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?

Select one of the following:

A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

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Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of
state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system
design?

Select one of the following:

A. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
B. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout.
D. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

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Q. 14: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation and execution?

Select one of the following:

A. Measuring and analyzing results.
B. Reporting discrepancies as incidents.
C. Identifying test conditions or test requirements.
D. Assessing if more tests are needed.

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

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Q. 15: What is beta testing?

Select one of the following:

A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location.
B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations.
C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location.
D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

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Q. 16: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100%
decision coverage?

if width > length
then
biggest_dimension = width
if height > width
then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
biggest_dimension = length
if height > length
then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
end_if

Select one of the following:

A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

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Q. 17: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision
coverage for the following fragment of code.

if width > length
then
biggest_dimension = width
else
biggest_dimension = length
end_if

The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above.

print "Biggest dimension is " & biggest_dimension
print "Width: " & width
print "Length: " & length

How many more test cases are required?

Select one of the following:

A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage.
B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be
used to provide 100% decision coverage.
C. None, existing test cases can be used.
D. One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage.

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

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Q. 18: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature
falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the
temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all
equivalence partitions?

Select one of the following:

A. 15, 19 and 25.
B. 17, 18 and 19.
C. 18, 20 and 22.
D. 16, 26 and 32.

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

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Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient
test execution?

Select one of the following:

A. Implementation and execution.
B. Planning and control.
C. Analysis and design.
D. Test closure.

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

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Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE?

Select one of the following:

A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing
to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as
a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects.
C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any
defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

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Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and
expected results is VALID?

Select one of the following:

A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 0 and excess is,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is 00.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 0 and excess is ,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is ,000.

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

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Q. 22: When should configuration management procedures be implemented?

Select one of the following:

A. During test planning.
B. During test analysis.
C. During test execution.
D. When evaluating exit criteria

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

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Q. 23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ?

i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
iii) Regression testing is often automated
iv) Regression tests need not be maintained

Select one of the following:

A. ii, iv.
B. ii, iii.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iii.

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

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Q. 24: A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is
a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to
prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered.
Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using
Boundary Value Analysis?

Select one of the following:

A. 5, 6, 20
B. 4, 5, 80
C. 4, 5, 99
D. 1, 20, 100

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

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Q. 25: Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and
implementation of a testing tool?

i) Investigate the organisation's test process.
ii) Conduct a proof of concept.
iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time.
iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool.

Select one of the following:

A. i, ii, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
iv.

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

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Q. 26: What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle?

Select one of the following:

A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases.
B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.
C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later.
D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

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Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test
tools?

i) Easy to access information about tests and testing.
ii) Reduced maintenance of testware.
iii) Easy and cheap to implement.
iv) Greater consistency of tests.

Select one of the following:

A. ii and iv
B. ii and iii
C. i and iv
D. i and iii

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

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Q. 28: What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to
testing?

Select one of the following:

A. Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible.
B. Preventative tests are designed early; reactive tests are designed after the software has
been produced.
C. Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always heuristic.
D. Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced; reactive tests are
designed early in response to review comments.

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

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Q. 29: What is the purpose of exit criteria?

Select one of the following:

A. To define when a test level is complete.
B. To determine when a test has completed.
C. To identify when a software system should be retired.
D. To determine whether a test has passed.

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

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Q. 30: What determines the level of risk?

Select one of the following:

A. The cost of dealing with an adverse event if it occurs.
B. The probability that an adverse event will occur.
C. The amount of testing planned before release of a system.
D. The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

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Q. 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY
associated?

Select one of the following:

A. Tool support for performance and monitoring.
B. Tool support for static testing.
C. Tool support for test execution and logging.
D. Tool support for the management of testing and tests.

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

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Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment
v) Writing test conditions.

Select one of the following:

A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.
B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.
C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.
D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

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Q. 33: Match the following terms and statements.

1.Decision Table Testing
2.Decision Testing
3.State Transition Testing
4.Exploratory Testing

W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to complement
structured testing.
X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re depending on
current conditions or previous history.
Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise have
been exercised during testing.
Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.

Select one of the following:

A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.
C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.
D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

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Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe
a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component?

Select one of the following:

A. Black Box Techniques.
B. White Box Techniques.
C. Glass Box Techniques.
D. Experience Based Techniques.

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

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Q. 35: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful?

Select one of the following:

A. Supporting reviews.
B. Validating models of the software.
C. Testing code executed in a special test harness.
D. Enforcement of coding standards.

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

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Q. 36: Which of the following types of defects is use case testing MOST LIKELY to
uncover?

i) Defects in the process flows during real-world use of the system.
ii) Defects in the interface parameters in integration testing.
iii) Integration defects caused by the interaction and interference of different components.
iv) Defects in the system as it transitions between one state and another.

Select one of the following:

A. ii, iii.
B. i, iii.
C. iii, iv.
D. i, ii

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

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Q. 37: Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a test approach?

Select one of the following:

A. Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.
B. The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.
C. Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.
D. The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

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Q. 38: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?

Select one of the following:

A. It does not require familiarity with the code.
B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.
C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.
D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers.

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

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Q. 39: The above diagram represents the following paths through the code.

A. vwy
B. vwz
C. vxy
D. vxz

What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full statement coverage?

Select one of the following:

A. A
B. ABD
C. ABCD
D. ACD

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

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Q. 40: Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification based (black-box)
techniques?

Select one of the following:

A. Test cases can be easily automated.
B. Test cases are independent of each other.
C. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system .
D. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

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Q. 41: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to
component testing:

i) Functional testing of the component in isolation.
ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents.
iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes.
iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.

Select one of the following:

A. i and ii.
B. I, ii and iii
C. iii.
D. ii and iv

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

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Q. 42: Which of the following is a purpose of the review planning phase?

Select one of the following:

A. Log defects.
B. Explain the documents to the participants.
C. Gather metrics.
D. Allocate the individual roles.

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

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Q. 43: A defect arrival rate curve:

Select one of the following:

A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
D. Any of these, depending on the company.

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

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Q. 44: Which is the best definition of complete testing:

Select one of the following:

A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

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Q. 45: Complete statement and branch coverage means:

Select one of the following:

A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

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Q. 46: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical
reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following):

Select one of the following:

A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing to do
the rest of the project's work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project,
because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm
them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not report
bugs.
D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

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Q. 47: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:

Select one of the following:

A. Deviations from standards,
B. Requirement defects,
C. Design defects,
D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
E. All of the above.

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

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Q. 48: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective

Select one of the following:

A. Identifying defects.
B. Fixing defects.
C. A. and B
D. None of the above

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

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Q. 49: We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:

Select one of the following:

A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF
statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed through the FALSE branch.
B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values, rather than on the program's flow of control.
C. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.
D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

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Q. 50: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:

Select one of the following:

A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people
are doing other aspects of their work much less well.
B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.
D. All of the above.

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

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Q. 51: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one
or more answers):

Select one of the following:

A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks.
D. All of the above.

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

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Q. 52: Poor software characteristics are

Select one of the following:

A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

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Q. 53: System testing should investigate

Select one of the following:

A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

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Q. 54: Contract and regulation testing is a part of

Select one of the following:

A. System testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing
D. Smoke testing

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

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Q. 55: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review

Select one of the following:

A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

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Q. 56: Which is not the testing objectives

Select one of the following:

A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

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Q. 57: Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of
the following costs of quality?

Select one of the following:

A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

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Q. 58: Which is not the project risks

Select one of the following:

A. Supplier issues
B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues
D. Error-prone software delivered

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

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Q. 59: Bug life cycle

Select one of the following:

A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

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Q. 60: Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that
were identified during the review meeting

Select one of the following:

A. Moderator
B. Scribe
C. Reviewers
D. Author

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

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Q. 61: ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using
BVA which is the appropriate one

Select one of the following:

A. 0,1,2,99
B. 1, 99, 100, 98
C. 0, 1, 99, 100
D. –1, 0, 1, 99

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

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Q. 62: Which is not a testing principle

Select one of the following:

A. Early testing
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Exhaustive testing

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

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Q. 63: A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule.

The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip
the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for his product. Which
of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?

Select one of the following:

A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

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Q. 64: The ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own
locations

Select one of the following:

A. Alpha testing
B. Field testing
C. Performance testing
D. System testing

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

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Q. 65: Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality

Select one of the following:

A. ISO 1926
B. ISO 829
C. ISO 1012
D. ISO 1028

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

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Q. 66: Which is not a black box testing technique

Select one of the following:

A. Equivalence partition
B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams
D. Decision testing

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

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Q. 67: Find the mismatch

Select one of the following:

A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs
C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

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Q. 68: Use cases can be performed to test

Select one of the following:

A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios
D. Static testing

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

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Q. 69: Purpose of test design technique is

Select one of the following:

A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

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Q. 70: One person has been dominating the current software process improvement
meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other
team members into the discussion?

Select one of the following:

A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their
opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone
else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

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Q. 71: Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the
following method

Select one of the following:

A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

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Q. 72: A software model that can’t be used in functional testing

Select one of the following:

A. Process flow model
B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model
D. Plain language specification model

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

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Q. 73: Arc testing is known as

Select one of the following:

A. Branch testing
B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing
D. Ad-hoc testing

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

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Q. 74: The purpose of exit criteria is

Select one of the following:

A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

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Q. 75: The ___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage

Select one of the following:

A. Boundary value analysis
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing
D. State transition testing

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

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Q. 76: The __________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site

Select one of the following:

A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing
D. Integration testing

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

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Q. 77: What is the main purpose of Informal review

Select one of the following:

A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

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Q. 78: Which is not a Component testing

Select one of the following:

A. Check the memory leaks
B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage
D. Check the decision tables

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

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Q. 79: The software engineer's role in tool selection is

Select one of the following:

A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

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Q. 80: Which is not the fundamental test process

Select one of the following:

A. Planning and control
B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design
D. None

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

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Q. 81: The and are used within individual workbenches to produce
the right output products.

Select one of the following:

A. Tools and techniques
B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs
D. Reviews and update

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

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Q. 82: Which is not the software characteristics

Select one of the following:

A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Scalability
D. Maintainability

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

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Q. 83: The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as
nodes, P as independent paths

Select one of the following:

A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

Q. 84: FPA is used to

Select one of the following:

A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
C. To measure the functional testing effort
D. To measure the functional flow

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

Q. 85: A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met

Select one of the following:

A. SDLC
B. Project Plan
C. Policy
D. Procedure

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

Q. 86: Which is not a test Oracle

Select one of the following:

A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
B. The code
C. Individual’s knowledge
D. User manual

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

Q. 87: PDCA is known as

Select one of the following:

A. Plan, Do, Check, Act
B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act
D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

Q. 88: Which is the non-functional testing

Select one of the following:

A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing
D. Sanity testing

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

Q. 89: A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:

i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

Select one of the following:

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

Q. 90: Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to
measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the
test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.

Select one of the following:

A. Load Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. System Testing
D. Usability Testing

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

Q. 91: Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

Select one of the following:

A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

Q. 92: What can static analysis NOT find?

Select one of the following:

A. The use of a variable before it has been defined
B. Unreachable ("dead") code
C. Memory leaks
D. Array bound violations

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

Q. 93: White Box Techniques are also called as:

Select one of the following:

A. Structural Testing
B. Design Based Testin
C. Error Guessing Technique
D. Experience Based Technique

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

Q. 94: Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

Select one of the following:

A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

Q. 95: Component Testing is also called as :-

i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing .

Select one of the following:

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,ii,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
D. all of above is true

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

Q. 96: Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

Select one of the following:

A. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
B. Logging the outcome of test execution.
C. Assessing if more tests are needed.
D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

Q. 97: Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-

i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects

Select one of the following:

A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
D. iii is true and I,ii,iv are false

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

Q. 98: The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the
correct order.

i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up

Select one of the following:

A. i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
B. vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
C. i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
D. i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

Q. 99: Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the
interaction between integrated components is :

Select one of the following:

A. System Level Testing
B. Integration Level Testing
C. Unit Level Testing
D. Component Testing

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

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Q. 100: Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-

Select one of the following:

A. Breadth Test and Depth Test
B. Re-testing
C. Confirmation Testing
D. Sanity Testing

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

Q. 101: The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is
turned on when the temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more than
21. Identify the Equivalance values which belong to the same class.

Select one of the following:

A. 12,16,22
B. 24,27,17
C. 22,23,24
D. 14,15,19

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

Q. 102: What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?

Select one of the following:

A. A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
B. An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test
case
C. An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
D. An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a
test case.

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

Q. 103: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution
Phase

Select one of the following:

A. Creating test suites from the test cases
B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
C. Comparing actual results
D. Designing the Tests

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

Q. 104: Link Testing is also called as :

Select one of the following:

A. Component Integration testing
B. Component System Testing
C. Component Sub System Testing
D. Maintenance testing

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

Q. 105: Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-

i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager

Select one of the following:

A. i,ii,iii,iv are true
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

Q. 106: Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false:

Select one of the following:

A. Static testing requires the running of tests through the code
B. Static testing includes desk checking
C. Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
D. Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

Q. 107: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required
infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase

Select one of the following:

A. Test Implementation and execution
B. Test Analysis and Design
C. Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
D. Test Closure Activities

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

Q. 108: A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to
detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.

Select one of the following:

A. Security Testing
B. Recovery Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Functionality Testing

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

Q. 109: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were
identified during a formal review.

Select one of the following:

A. Moderator.
B. Scribe
C. Author
D. Manager

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

Q. 110: The Test Cases Derived from use cases

Select one of the following:

A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the
system
B. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the
system
C. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the
system
D. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

Q. 111: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric
values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class

Select one of the following:

A. BOOK
B. Book
C. Boo01k
D. book

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

Q. 112: In a Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks inorder to clear
the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalance
values if the student clears the exam.

Select one of the following:

A. 22,23,26
B. 21,39,40
C. 29,30,31
D. 0,15,22

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

Q. 113: Verification involves which of the following :-

i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

Select one of the following:

A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
B. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
D. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

Q. 114: A Project risk includes which of the following :

Select one of the following:

A. Organizational Factors
B. Poor Software characteristics
C. Error Prone software delivered.
D. Software that does not perform its intended functions

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

Q. 115: Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through

Select one of the following:

A. Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
B. Pre Meeting Preparations
C. Formal Follow Up Process
D. Includes Metrics

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

Q. 116: Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?

Select one of the following:

A. Statement Testing and coverage
B. Decision Testing and coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Boundary value analysis

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

Q. 117: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-

Select one of the following:

A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

Q. 118: In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :

i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project

Select one of the following:

A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
C. ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
D. ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

Q. 119: Incidents would not be raised against:

Select one of the following:

A. Requirements
B. Documentation
C. Test cases
D. Improvements suggested by users

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

Q. 120: The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :

Select one of the following:

A. Explaining the objectives
B. Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
C. Follow up
D. Individual Meeting preparations

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

Q. 121: Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?

i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and
optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

Select one of the following:

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

Q. 122: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in
the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalance class

Select one of the following:

A. 17
B. 19
C. 24
D. 21

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

Q. 123: Exhaustive Testing is

Select one of the following:

A. Is impractical but possible
B. Is practically possible
C. Is impractical and impossible
D. Is always possible

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

Q. 124: Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase

Select one of the following:

A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

Q. 125: Which one is not comes under international standard

Select one of the following:

A. IEC
B. IEEE
C. ISO
D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

Q. 126: In which phase static tests are used

Select one of the following:

A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Coding
D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

Q. 127: What's the disadvantage of Black Box Testing

Select one of the following:

A. Chances of having repetition of tests that are already done by programmer.
B. The test inputs needs to be from large sample space.
C. It is difficult to identify all possible inputs in limited testing time. So writing test cases is
slow and difficult
D. All above

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

Q. 128: Static analysis tools are typically used by

Select one of the following:

A. Testers
B. Developers
C. Testers & Developers
D. None

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

Q. 129: Majority of system errors occur in the _________ phase

Select one of the following:

A. Requirements Phase.
B. Analysis and Design Phase
C. Development Phase
D. Testing Phase

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

Q. 130: The specification which describes steps required to operate the system and
exercise test cases in order to implement the associated test design

Select one of the following:

A. Test Case Specification
B. Test Design Specification
C. Test Procedure Specification
D. None

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

Q. 131: How much percentage of the life cycle costs of a software are spent on
maintenance.

Select one of the following:

A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

Q. 132: When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to
confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called

Select one of the following:

A. Regression testing
B. Maintenance testing
C. Confirmation testing
D. None of the above

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

Q. 133: Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which
test cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must be
developed.

Select one of the following:

A. True
B. False

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

Q. 134: When to stop Testing?

Select one of the following:

A. Stop when scheduled time for testing expires
B. Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected.
C. Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors.
D. None above

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

Q. 135: With thorough testing it is possible to remove all defects from a program prior
to delivery to the customer.

Select one of the following:

A. True
B. False

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

Q. 136: Structure is unknown for which type of development project

Select one of the following:

A. Traditional system development
B. Iterative development
C. System maintenance
D. Purchased/contracted software

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

Q. 137: ________indicates how important it is to fix the bug and when it should be
fixed

Select one of the following:

A. Severity
B. Priority
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

Q. 138: The person who leads the review of the document(s), planning the
review,running the meeting and follow-up after the meeting

Select one of the following:

A. Reviewer
B. Author
C. Moderator
D. Auditor

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

Q. 139: Performs sufficient testing to evaluate every possible path and condition in the
application system. The only test method that guarantees the proper functioning of the
application system is called as _____________

Select one of the following:

A. Regression Testing
B. Exhaustive Testing
C. Basic Path Testing
D. Branch Testing

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

Q. 140: Quality Assurance is the process by which product quality is compared with the
application standards and the action taken when nonconformance is detected.

Select one of the following:

A. True
B. False

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

Q. 141: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one or more qualified
independent reviewer to detect defects.

Select one of the following:

A. Inspection.
B. Walkthrough.
C. Review
D. Non Conformance

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

Q. 142: Test Case are grouped into Manageable (and scheduled) units are called as

Select one of the following:

A. Test Harness
B. Test Suite
C. Test Cycle
D. Test Driver

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

Q. 143: Configuration and compatibility testing are typically good choices for
outsourcing

Select one of the following:

A. True
B. False

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

Q. 144: What type of tools to be used for Regression Testing

Select one of the following:

A. Performance
B. Record/Playback
C. A. & B.
D. None

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

Q. 145: System Integration testing should be done after

Select one of the following:

A. Integration testing
B. System testing
C. Unit testing
D. Component integration testing

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

Q. 146: During this event the entire system is tested to verify that all functional
information structural and quality requirements have been met. A predetermined
combination of tests is designed that when executed successfully satisfy management
that the system meets specifications

Select one of the following:

A. Validation Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. User Acceptance Testing
D. System Testing

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

Q. 147: What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized?

Select one of the following:

A. Unit, integration, system, validation
B. System, integration, unit, validation
C. Unit, integration, validation, system
D. None of the above

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

Q. 148: The goal of a software tester is to find bugs, find them as early as possible and
make sure they get fixed.

Select one of the following:

A. True
B. False

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

Q. 149: Beta testing is performed at developing organization's site where as Alpha
testing is performed by people at their own locations.

Select one of the following:

A. True
B. False

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

Q. 150: The principal attributes of tools and automation are

Select one of the following:

A. Speed & efficiency
B. Accuracy & precision
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

Q. 151: In ______ testing doesn't know anything about the sofware being tested; it just
clicks or types randomly.

Select one of the following:

A. Random testing
B. Gorilla testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. Dumb monkey testing

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

Q. 152: A series of probing questions about the completeness and attributes of an
application system is called

Select one of the following:

A. Checklist
B. Checkpoint review
C. Decision table
D. Decision tree

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

Q. 153: The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that
each program function is operational is called

Select one of the following:

A. Black-box testing
B. Glass-box testing
C. Grey-box testing
D. White-box testing

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

Q. 154: A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of
decision directions executed by the test case designed is called

Select one of the following:

A. Condition coverage
B. Decision/Condition coverage
C. Decision Coverage
D. Branch coverage

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

Q. 155: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with one or more test design
specifications.

Select one of the following:

A. Test Summary report
B. Test Log
C. Test Incident Report
D. Test Script

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

Q. 156: Testing with out a real plan and test cases is called ---

Select one of the following:

A. Gorilla testing
B. Monkey testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

Q. 157: Which rule should not be followed for reviews

Select one of the following:

A. Defects and issues are identified and corrected
B. The product is reviewed not the producer
C. All members of the reviewing team are responsible for the result of the review
D. Each review has a clear predefined objective

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

Q. 158: Verification can be termed as 'Are we building the product right?"

Select one of the following:

A. True
B. False

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

Q. 159: Which testing is used to verify that the system can perform properly when
internal program or system limitations have been exceeded

Select one of the following:

A. Stress Testing
B. Load Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Volume testing

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

Q. 160: Defects are recorded into three major purposes. They are:

1.To correct the defect
2.To report status of the application
3.To improve the software development process

Select one of the following:

A. True
B. False

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

Q. 161: Drivers are tools used to control and operate tge software being testeD.

Select one of the following:

A. True
B. False

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

Q. 162: Typical defects discovered by static analysis includes

Select one of the following:

A. Programming standard violations
B. Referring a variable with an undefined value
C. Security vulnerabilities
D. All Above

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

Q. 163: EULA stands for

Select one of the following:

A. End Usability License Agreement
B. End User License Agreement
C. End User License Arrangement
D. End User License Attachment

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

Q. 164: ________is a very early build intended for limited distribution to a few key
customers and to marketing for demonstration purposes.

Select one of the following:

A. Alpha release
B. Beta release
C. Test release document
D. Build

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

Q. 165: CAST stands for

Select one of the following:

A. Computer Aided Software Testing
B. Computer Aided Software Tools
C. Computer Analysis Software Techniques
D. None

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

Q. 166: The tool modifies the program code or manipulates tge operating environment
in any way is considered non-invasive

Select one of the following:

A. True
B. False

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

Q. 167: Which test may not mimic real world situations

Select one of the following:

A. Functional testing
B. Structural Testing
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

Q. 168: _______ includes both Black box and White Box Testing features

Select one of the following:

A. Gray Box Testing
B. Hybrid Testing
C. A. & B.
D. None

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

Q. 169: Exhaustive testing is possible

Select one of the following:

A. True
B. False

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

Q. 170: Tool which stores requirement statements, check for consistency and allow
requirements to be prioritized and enable individual tests to be traceable to
requirements, functions and features.

Select one of the following:

A. Incident management tools
B. Requirements management tools
C. Configuration management tools
D. None

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

Q. 171: The number of tests to test all control statements equals the cyclomatic
complexity

Select one of the following:

A. True
B. False

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

Q. 172: Boundary value analysis can only be used during white-box testing.

Select one of the following:

A. True
B. False

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

Q. 173: Which of these are objectives for software testing?

Select one of the following:

A. Determine the productivity of programmers
B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
C. Eliminate every error prior to release
D. Uncover software errors

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

Q. 174: Failure is _________

Select one of the following:

A. Incorrect program behaviour due to a fault in the program
B. Bug found before product Release
C. Bug found after product Release
D. Bug found during Design phase

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

Q. 175: During the software development process, at what point can the test process
start?

Select one of the following:

A. When the code is complete.
B. When the design is complete.
C. When the software requirements have been approved.
D. When the first code module is ready for unit testing

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

Q. 176: "How much testing is enough?"

Select one of the following:

A. This question is impossible to answer
B. This question is easy to answer
C. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
D. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

Q. 177: Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression
test?

Select one of the following:

A. Data tester
B. Boundary tester
C. Capture/Playback
D. Output comparator.

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

Q. 178: Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:

Select one of the following:

A. Statement Coverage
B. Pole Coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Path Coverage

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

Q. 179: Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

Select one of the following:

A. Defects
B. Trends analysis
C. Test Effectiveness
D. Time Spent Testing

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

Q. 180: Fault Masking is

Select one of the following:

A. Error condition hiding another error condition
B. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
C. Masking a fault by developer
D. Masking a fault by a tester

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

Q. 181: Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126
Standard?

Select one of the following:

A. Functionality
B. Usability
C. Supportability
D. Maintainability

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

Q. 182: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :

Select one of the following:

A. Lack of technical documentation
B. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
C. Lack of training
D. Lack of Objectivity

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

Q. 183: Statement Coverage will not check for the following.

Select one of the following:

A. Missing Statements
B. Unused Branches
C. Dead Code
D. Unused Statement

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

Q. 184: Given the Following program

IF X <>= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END

McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :

Select one of the following:

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

Q. 185: To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the
function to be tested and passes it test data.

Select one of the following:

A. Stub
B. Driver
C. Proxy
D. None of the above

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

Q. 186: Pick the best definition of quality

Select one of the following:

A. Quality is job one
B. Zero defects
C. Conformance to requirements
D. Work as designed

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

Q. 187: Boundary value testing

Select one of the following:

A. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
B. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence
classes
C. Tests combinations of input circumstances
D. Is used in white box testing strategy

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

Q. 188: An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004

The boundary values for testing this field are

Select one of the following:

A. 0,1900,2004,2005
B. 1900, 2004
C. 1899,1900,2004,2005
D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

Q. 189: How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of
statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions
are independent of each other:

if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi

Select one of the following:

A. 2 Test Cases
B. 3 Test Cases
C. 4 Test Cases
D. Not achievable

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

Q. 190: A common test technique during component test is

Select one of the following:

A. Statement and branch testing
B. Usability testing
C. Security testing
D. Performance testing

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

Q. 191: In a review meeting a moderator is a person who

Select one of the following:

A. Takes minutes of the meeting
B. Mediates between people
C. Takes telephone calls
D. Writes the documents to be reviewed

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

Q. 192: Acceptance test cases are based on what?

Select one of the following:

A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Code
D. Decision table

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

Q. 193: Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?

Select one of the following:

A. System testing
B. Usability testing
C. Performance testing
D. Both B & C

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

Q. 194: Independent Verification & Validation is

Select one of the following:

A. Done by the Developer
B. Done by the Test Engineers
C. Done By Management
D. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

Q. 195: Defect Management process does not include

Select one of the following:

A. Defect prevention
B. Deliverable base-lining
C. Management reporting
D. None of the above

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

Q. 196: Which of the following could be a reason for a failure

1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault

Select one of the following:

A. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
B. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
C. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
D. All of them are valid reasons for failure

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

Q. 197: Test are prioritized so that:

Select one of the following:

A. You shorten the time required for testing
B. You do the best testing in the time available
C. You do more effective testing
D. You find more faults

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

Q. 198: When a new testing tool purchased, it should be used first by:

Select one of the following:

A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
C. The independent testing team
D. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

Q. 199: During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?

Select one of the following:

A. Execution
B. Design
C. Planning
D. Check Exit criteria completion

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

Q. 200: What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor
outside your country, versus testing software developed by a contractor within your
country?

Select one of the following:

A. Does not meet people needs
B. Cultural difference
C. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
D. Relinquishments of control

	Created by milopz about 9 years ago

500 Questions, simulation exam

ISTQB Foundation Level - 500 questions

Question 1 of 200

Q. 1: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover the following series of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

Q. 4: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a walkthrough?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

Q. 5: Where may functional testing be performed?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

Q. 6: What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

Q. 8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which statement BEST details those for developers i) Performance testing tools. ii) Coverage measurement tools. iii) Test comparators. iv) Dynamic analysis tools. v) Incident management tools.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

Q. 11: Which of the following is correct?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

Q. 12: As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system design?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

Q. 14: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation and execution?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

Q. 15: What is beta testing?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

Q. 18: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all equivalence partitions?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

Q. 4: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a
walkthrough?

Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which
statement BEST details those for developers

i) Performance testing tools.
ii) Coverage measurement tools.
iii) Test comparators.
iv) Dynamic analysis tools.
v) Incident management tools.

Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of
state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system
design?

Q. 18: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature
falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the
temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all
equivalence partitions?

Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient
test execution?

Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and
expected results is VALID?

Q. 23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ?

i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
iii) Regression testing is often automated
iv) Regression tests need not be maintained

Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test
tools?

i) Easy to access information about tests and testing.
ii) Reduced maintenance of testware.
iii) Easy and cheap to implement.
iv) Greater consistency of tests.

Q. 28: What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to
testing?

Q. 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY
associated?

Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment
v) Writing test conditions.

Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe
a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component?