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Quiz on Advanced Industrial Psychology PSY 560 Midterm review, created by Luna Park on 09/10/2015.

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Advanced Industrial Psychology PSY 560 Midterm review

Question 1 of 70

1

What is the old view of organizational systems?

Select one of the following:

  • Demographically diverse, continuous learning, self-managed work teams, focus on self-reliance.

  • Stable and predictable, hierarchy, top-down command and control.

Explanation

Question 2 of 70

1

What is the contemporary view of organizations?

Select one of the following:

  • Globalized and focus on speed, constantly changing, organized around networks, more demographically diverse, continuous learning, self-managed work teams, focus on self-reliance.

  • Stable and predictable, hierarchy, top-down command and control.

Explanation

Question 3 of 70

1

Which of these does not fit the 3 C's of the past manager role?

Select one of the following:

  • Command.

  • Conquer.

  • Control.

  • Compartment.

Explanation

Question 4 of 70

1

Which if these does not fit the contemporary perspective for managers?

Select one of the following:

  • Incumbents to Managers

  • Controllers to Coaches.

  • Planners to Facilitators.

  • Inspectors to Mentors.

Explanation

Question 5 of 70

1

Which source has not resulted in changes in jobs and job performance in recent times?

Select one of the following:

  • Technology.

  • Globalization.

  • Economic Stability.

  • Mergers & acquisitions.

Explanation

Question 6 of 70

1

Which of these is a benefit of recent changes in jobs and job performance?

Select one of the following:

  • Challenge.

  • Increased Personal Control.

  • Insecurity.

  • All of the Above.

  • None of the Above.

  • Both A and B.

  • Both A and C.

Explanation

Question 7 of 70

1

What defines each job in terms of the behaviors necessary to perform it and is used to develop hypotheses about the personal characteristics necessary to perform those behaviors?

Select one of the following:

  • Job specifications

  • Minimum qualifications

  • Job analysis

  • Job descriptions

Explanation

Question 8 of 70

1

The following characteristics are representative of what? Qualifications, experience, training, skills, responsibilities, emotional characteristics, sensory demands.

Select one of the following:

  • Job analysis

  • Job specifications

  • Job description

  • Minimum qualifications

Explanation

Question 9 of 70

1

The following characteristics are representative of what? Job title, job location, job summary, working conditions, job duties, conditions of employment, hazards, social environment.

Select one of the following:

  • Minimum qualifications

  • Job description

  • Job specifications

  • Job analysis

Explanation

Question 10 of 70

1

Job descriptions are useful for:

Select one of the following:

  • Selection

  • Training

  • Person power planning

  • Job classification

  • All of the above

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 11 of 70

1

The first step of conducting a job analysis is

Select one of the following:

  • Writing task statements

  • Rating task statements

  • Determining essential KSAOs

  • Gathering existing information

Explanation

Question 12 of 70

1

Which is not a method of collecting job analysis data?

Select one of the following:

  • SME panels

  • Questionnaires

  • ONet

  • All of the above

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 13 of 70

1

What evidence is available regarding job analysis reliability and validity?

Select one of the following:

  • Daniels & Weiss

  • Davidson & Wurtz

  • Dierdorff & Wilson

  • Donalds & West

Explanation

Question 14 of 70

1

According to the Dierdorff & Wilson(2003) Meta-analysis, who showed higher inter-rater reliability?

Select one of the following:

  • Incumbents

  • Researchers

  • Analysts

  • Supervisors

Explanation

Question 15 of 70

1

According to the Dierdorff & Wilson(2003) Meta-analysis, what type of analysis is better?

Select one of the following:

  • Cognitive

  • Task focused

  • Knowledge based

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 16 of 70

1

_____________________ scales using importance and difficulty had higher inter-rater reliability than __________________scales.

Select one of the following:

  • Frequency, Temporal

  • Frequency, Descriptive

  • Descriptive, Frequency

  • Descriptive, Temporal

Explanation

Question 17 of 70

1

What is an evaluative standard, rule, or test by which a person may be judged or measured?

Select one of the following:

  • Reliability

  • Criteria

  • Validity

  • KSAO

Explanation

Question 18 of 70

1

What criteria should be used to establish MQs for a job?

Select one of the following:

  • Influenced directly by the desire to artificially manipulate candidate pool.

  • Realistically expected to exist in the pool of candidates.

  • Determined based on the existing qualifications of incumbents or candidates being groomed.

  • Indirectly linked to functional areas/KSAs

Explanation

Question 19 of 70

1

When conducting a job analysis, average ratings of importance or frequency under .5 should be eliminated.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 20 of 70

1

Criterion contamination is when we measure things that are not related to the job.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 21 of 70

1

Sources of criterion contamination include

Select one of the following:

  • Prejudice

  • Racism

  • Sexism

  • Bias

Explanation

Question 22 of 70

1

Which of these does not belong?

Select one of the following:

  • Bias occurs through knowledge of the predictor.

  • Bias occurs through ratings.

  • Bias occurs through group membership.

  • Bias occurs through error.

Explanation

Question 23 of 70

1

Ratings can be biased through

Select one of the following:

  • Adequate observations

  • Limited opportunities to perform

  • Ability to distinguish skills

Explanation

Question 24 of 70

1

__________________ of criteria refers to the way employees performance varies over time.

Select one of the following:

  • Reliability

  • Temporal nature

  • Standard Error

  • Validity

Explanation

Question 25 of 70

1

Job Performance reliability refers to the method of observation and its effect on conclusions.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 70

1

Examples of the dimensionality of job performance are: job and location, sales performance, leadership.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 27 of 70

1

Criteria may be temporal or dynamic in 3 distinct ways:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Changes over time in rank ordering of scores on the criterion.

  • Changes over time in the leadership of the organization.

  • Changes over time in average levels of group performance.

  • Changes over time in validity coefficients.

Explanation

Question 28 of 70

1

Test/Re-test Reliability measurements should be taken over 6 months apart.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 29 of 70

1

Reliability refers to

Select one of the following:

  • Creating alternative, equal forms for the same test

  • Administering the same test on two different occasions

  • Freedom of unsystematic errors of measurement

  • Pearson product moment correlation coefficient

Explanation

Question 30 of 70

1

Any factor that influences performance on one occasion but not the other might introduce bias and influence the reliability of the measure.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 70

1

Parallel forms of reliability are also known as

Select one of the following:

  • Alternative

  • Equivalent

  • Counterpart

  • A and C

  • A and B

  • B and C

Explanation

Question 32 of 70

1

To increase reliability, reduce the variability of differences in individuals taking the test.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 33 of 70

1

Higher variability = higher reliability.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 34 of 70

1

The difficulty of a test item should be high, to weed out poor test takers.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 35 of 70

1

The smaller the sample size, the larger the sampling error and lower reliability.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 36 of 70

1

If reliability is 1, standard error of measurement is 0.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 37 of 70

1

Higher standard error = higher reliability.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 38 of 70

1

Standard error of measurement is the standard deviation of the normal distribution of scores that an individual would obtain if they took the same test 100 times.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 39 of 70

1

Internal consistency reliability is

Select one of the following:

  • The extent to which all parts of a measure are similar in what they are measuring.

  • Used to assess the consistency of results across items within a test.

  • An indicator of the degree to which various items on a test are intercorrelated.

  • All of the above.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 40 of 70

1

Internal Consistency Reliability according to the textbook is

Select one of the following:

  • .90 for a procedure

  • .80 and above for applied purposes

  • .70 for research purposes

  • 1

Explanation

Question 41 of 70

1

The two (2) widely used methods of Internal Consistency Reliability are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Pearson product-moment correlation coefficient

  • Kudar Richardson Estimates

  • Split-half

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 42 of 70

1

The most used formula for the Kudar-Richardson Reliability Estimates is

Select one of the following:

  • KR-50

  • KR-10

  • KR-90

  • KR-20

Explanation

Question 43 of 70

1

Split-half reliability estimate is interpreted as

Select one of the following:

  • Coefficient of stability

  • Coefficient of reliability

  • Coefficient of equivalence

  • Coefficient of validity

Explanation

Question 44 of 70

1

Coefficient of stability is a measurement of the correlation between

Select one of the following:

  • 2 parallel forms of the same test

  • 2 time points where the subjects and measuring instrument are the same

  • 2 groups of subjects taking the test

Explanation

Question 45 of 70

1

To compute coefficient of stability use test/re-test.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 46 of 70

1

Coefficient of equivalence refers to the correlation between

Select one of the following:

  • the same tests given on two different occasions

  • 2 parallel forms

  • 2 different groups of subjects taking the same test

Explanation

Question 47 of 70

1

For the coefficient of stability and equivalence, to guard against order effects, both halves of the examinees are given test A, followed by test B.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 48 of 70

1

The main advantages of computing reliability using the coefficient of stability and equivalence are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Random Error responses

  • Bias responses

  • Specific factor errors

  • Transient errors

  • All of the Above

Explanation

Question 49 of 70

1

Coefficient of equivalence is also known as

Select one of the following:

  • ρ

  • α

  • ε

  • Σ

Explanation

Question 50 of 70

1

Random error is an error caused by unknown and unpredictable changes in the experiment.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 51 of 70

1

Random errors increase the consistency and usefulness of test scores.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 52 of 70

1

Random error varies randomly from occasion to occasion therefore:

Select one of the following:

  • obtained scores are equal to true scores

  • obtained scores are different from true scores

  • true scores are lower than obtained scores

  • true scores are higher than obtained scores

Explanation

Question 53 of 70

1

Reliability can range from 0 - 1.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 54 of 70

1

Cronbach's alpha is calculated to measure

Select one of the following:

  • Test/Re-test reliability

  • Internal Consistency Reliability

  • Coefficient of stability

  • Coefficient of reliability

Explanation

Question 55 of 70

1

Standard error of measurement helps establish confidence intervals.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 56 of 70

1

Which of these examples are sources of random error?

Select one of the following:

  • Poor lighting

  • Noises

  • Temperature

  • Mood

  • All of the above

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 57 of 70

1

Validity is the extent to which the measurement are repeatable.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 58 of 70

1

The Trinitarian view of validity requires which of these to be considered very valid?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Construct validity

  • Content validity

  • Criterion validity

  • All three separately

Explanation

Question 59 of 70

1

The Unitarian view of validity requires which of these to be considered highly valid?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Construct validity

  • Content validity

  • Criterion validity

  • All three equally

  • All three separately

Explanation

Question 60 of 70

1

Evidence related to the meaning of the construct and its relationship with other constructs is

Select one of the following:

  • Content validity

  • Construct validity

  • Criterion validity

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 61 of 70

1

The extent to which your measure contains a fair sample of the universe of situations it is supposed to represent is :

Select one of the following:

  • Construct validity

  • Criterion validity

  • Content validity

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 62 of 70

1

How well your assessment tool is related to the criteria/test adequacy based on correlations with the criteria is known as

Select one of the following:

  • Construct validity

  • Criterion validity

  • Content validity

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 63 of 70

1

Construct validity can be gathered by calibrating the test against an established measure, known standard, or against itself.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 64 of 70

1

Content validity can be gathered by SMEs, whose responses are evaluated to make decisions about the content.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 65 of 70

1

Problems with Predictive validity include

Select one or more of the following:

  • Small sample size

  • Uncontrolled variables

  • Bias

Explanation

Question 66 of 70

1

Which of the following is a problem with concurrent validity?

Select one of the following:

  • Small sample size

  • Longitudinal nature of the study

  • Uncontrolled variables

Explanation

Question 67 of 70

1

Concurrent validity is measured when :

Select one of the following:

  • the criterion measure is available after the predictor measure is taken.

  • the criterion and predictor are collected at the same time.

  • The predictor measure is taken.

Explanation

Question 68 of 70

1

Predictive validity is when a criterion measure is available after the predictor measure is taken.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 69 of 70

1

Challanges of changes in job and job performance include:

Select one of the following:

  • Insecurity

  • Challenge

  • Flexibility

  • High costs

Explanation

Question 70 of 70

1

Which of these is not a major step in conducting a job analysis?

Select one of the following:

  • Identify the tasks performed

  • Write task statements

  • Rate task statements

  • Determine KSAOs

  • Rate KSAOs

Explanation

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