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RTH110 RTH110 Quiz on Final 1, created by wch2952 on 12/10/2015.

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Final 1

Question 1 of 200

1

A voluntary professional association for respiratory care practitioners.

Select one of the following:

  • TJC - The Joint Commission

  • CRT

  • RRT

  • AARC

  • NBRC

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

The national credentialing agency for respiratory care practitioners.

Select one of the following:

  • CRT

  • RRT

  • AARC

  • NBRC

  • JCAHO

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

One who successfully passes the Entry Level exam earns these credentials.

Select one of the following:

  • JCAHO

  • CRT

  • RRT

  • AARC

  • NBRC

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

One who passes the Advanced Practioner level exam earns these credentials.

Select one of the following:

  • JCAHO

  • CRT

  • RRT

  • AARC

  • NBRC

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

A private, voluntary association that establishes standards for accrediting institutions responsible for health care.

Select one of the following:

  • TJC- The Joint Commission

  • CRT

  • RRT

  • AARC

  • NBRC

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

Freedom to decide about one's own care?

Select one of the following:

  • Veracity

  • Autonomy

  • Confidentiality

  • Nonmaleficence

  • Beneficence

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

Binds the patient and the health care provider to tell the truth.

Select one of the following:

  • Veracity

  • Autonomy

  • Confidentiality

  • Nonmaleficence

  • Beneficence

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

Privileged information, which may not be revealed without express permission.

Select one of the following:

  • Veracity

  • Autonomy

  • Confidentiality

  • Non-maleficence

  • Beneficence

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

Never use treatment to injure or harm the sick.

Select one of the following:

  • Veracity

  • Autonomy

  • Confidenitaltiy

  • Nonmaleficence

  • Beneficence

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

Requires that the care giver actively contribute to the health and well being of the patient.

Select one of the following:

  • Veracity

  • Autonomy

  • Confidentiality

  • Nonmaleficence

  • Beneficence

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

Any conduct which creates a resonable apprehension of being touched in an injurous manner

Select one of the following:

  • Negligence

  • Assault

  • Slander

  • Libel

  • Malpractice

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

The failure to do something that a reasonable person, guided by ordinary considerations, would do.

Select one of the following:

  • Negligence

  • Assault

  • Slander

  • Libel

  • Malpractice

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

Defamation by the written word

Select one of the following:

  • Negligence

  • Assault

  • Slander

  • Libel

  • Malpractice

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

Defamation by oral speech

Select one of the following:

  • Negligence

  • Assault

  • Slander

  • Libel

  • Malpractice

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

Unreasonable lack of skills to fulfill professional duties

Select one of the following:

  • Negligence

  • Assault

  • Slander

  • Libel

  • Malpractice

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

A predefined category of admitting diagnoses, which have a fixed rate of reimbursement

Select one of the following:

  • Therapist Driven Protocol

  • DRG

  • Licensure

  • CQI

  • Credentialing

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

An ongoing process designed to detect and correct factors that interfere with the delivery of quality, cost effective health care

Select one of the following:

  • Therapist Driven Protocol

  • DRG

  • Licensure

  • CQI

  • Credentialing

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

A specific algorithm used by RCPs to independently initiate and adjust therapy using guidelines established by medical staff

Select one of the following:

  • Therapist Driven Protocol

  • DRG

  • Licensure

  • CQI

  • Credentialing

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

A process whereby a private agency recognizes that certain qualification have been met by an individual to work as a Respiratory Care Practitioner.

Select one of the following:

  • Therapist Driven Protocol

  • DRG

  • Licensure

  • CQI

  • Credentialing

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

Permission granted by a government agency to practice an occupation

Select one of the following:

  • Therapist Driven Protocol

  • DRG

  • Licensure

  • CQI

  • Credentialing

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

An approach based on the natural course of an ilness that integrates the way the products and services are used and reimbursed

Select one of the following:

  • Evidence Based Medicine

  • Disease Management

  • Patient Focused Care

  • Peer Review Organizations

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

A service outside the scope of a respiratory therapist's care would be:

Select one of the following:

  • Pulmonary function studies

  • Managing mechanical ventilators

  • Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

  • Assisting with laser bronchoscopy

  • Performing a tracheotomy ( a surgical opening in the throat)

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using therapist driven protocols

Select one of the following:

  • Ensure consistency among providers

  • Better allocation of resources

  • Better to meet the needs of a patient's changing clinical condition

  • Requires the practitioner to remain in constant contact with the physician

  • Addresses the issue of cost containment

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

The main reason thta the state requires all practicing RCPs to have a current license from the Board of Medicine

Select one of the following:

  • So they can collect more money for the state budget

  • To help ensure that only qualified personnel are performing patient care duties

  • To keep a current record of the number of RCPs in Virginia

  • To identify which programs practioners have completed their education and training

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

When making your patient rounds, you have a heated discussion with a staff nurse who refuses to allow you to give a patient a STAT breathing treatment ordered until she first gives the patinet a bath. To resolve this issue, you should first notify the:

Select one of the following:

  • Doctor

  • Shift supervisor

  • Ordering physician

  • Medical director

  • Department director

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

Asepsis is defined as:

Select one of the following:

  • The absence of all living things

  • The absence of disease producing microorganisms

  • The absence of all forms of microorganisms

  • The absence of only bacteria

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

Sterile is defined as:

Select one of the following:

  • The absence of all living organisms

  • The absence of disease producing microorganisms

  • The absence of contaminants

  • The absence of bacteria

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

Infection control strategies aim to do all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Create barriers to transmission

  • Monitor and evaluate control procedures

  • Categorize patients at risk

  • Eliminate the source of the pathogen

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

A term used to describe a microorganism capable of producing disease
Bacteria

Select one of the following:

  • Bacteria

  • Virus

  • Pathogen

  • Virulent

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

Nosocomial infections are ___________ acquired infections

Select one of the following:

  • Community

  • Hospital

  • Strictly respiratory

  • Sexually

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

To minimize the spread of infection, you should wash your hands for a minimum of _________ between patients.

Select one of the following:

  • 15 seconds

  • 30 seconds

  • 60 seconds

  • 2 minutes

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

Most hospital acquired infections will be caused by:

Select one of the following:

  • Viruses

  • Fungi

  • Bacteria

  • Protozoa

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

Unless otherwise indicated, this type of precaution should be used for all patients.

Select one of the following:

  • Strict Isolation Precautions

  • Standard precautions

  • Transmission based precautions

  • Contact precautions

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

Once properly identified, viruses often respond to antibiotic therapy.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

Which types of patients are particularly susceptible to nosocomial infections?
(select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Diabetics

  • Immunosuppressed

  • Radiation therapy

  • Surgical

  • Non-medicated psychiatric

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

Patients with artifical airways, such as a trach, are at increased risk for nosocomial infections because:
(select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • The normal filtration system of the upper airway is bypassed

  • Contamination of the trach during routine care, such as suctioning

  • Predisposing condition, such as COPD, weakens the immune system

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

The single most important method of reducing hospital acquired infections is:

Select one of the following:

  • Do not touch the patient’s nose

  • Good hand washing technique

  • Double bagging of all respiratory equipment

  • Putting all trached patient’s in isolation

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

The most difficult of all pathogens to kill are

Select one of the following:

  • Bacteria

  • Viruses

  • Spores

  • Fungi

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT a major route of infection into the lung

Select one of the following:

  • Blood borne

  • Contact

  • Aspiration

  • Inhalation

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

A lab method used for classifying bacteria

Select one of the following:

  • Bronchoscopy

  • Isolation

  • Gram staining

  • Surveillance

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

Protective or reverse isolation is required for all of the following types of patients EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Burn

  • Transplant

  • Immunosuppressed

  • Pediatric

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

When water is not available, which of the following may be used as long as hands are not visibly dirty?

Select one of the following:

  • Gel containing 25% alcohol

  • Rinse containing 60% alcohol

  • Bleach

  • Betadine

  • Hydrogen peroxide

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

A Ziehl-Neelsen stain, also called an acid fast test, is used to specifically identify which organism?

Select one of the following:

  • Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

  • Staphylococcus

  • Spores

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

Unlike airborne precautions, droplet precautions are used for infectious agents which usually do not travel beyond this distance.

Select one of the following:

  • 1 foot

  • 3 feet

  • 6 feet

  • 12 feet

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

Masks, gowns, gloves and goggles are items which are considered:

Select one of the following:

  • Personal protective equipment

  • Sterile attire

  • Accessory equipment

  • Standard attire

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

Of the following, which type of infection is most likely to lead to death?

Select one of the following:

  • Blood

  • Pulmonary

  • Urinary tract

  • Superficial

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

The most common route for the spread of nosocomial infections

Select one of the following:

  • Blood Borne

  • Vector

  • Contact

  • Airborne

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

Of the various sources of infection within the hospital, which are NOT easily controlled?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Staff

  • Visitors

  • Equipment

  • Patients

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

The single most important method to infection control is:

Select one of the following:

  • Wearing gloves

  • Washing Hands

  • Using standard precautions

  • Isolating patients

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

One who carries a microorganism

Select one of the following:

  • Host

  • Vehicle

  • Guest

  • Colony

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

Disease causing organisms are called:

Select one of the following:

  • Germs

  • Pathogens

  • Nosocomial

  • Bugs

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

A possible by-product of ethylene oxide sterilization is:

Select one of the following:

  • Polyhydrine chlorate

  • Ethylene monoxide

  • Ethylene gylcol

  • Sodium hypochlorite

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

Of the follwoing choices, which method of cleaning is the BEST for instruments which are used to enter the body or the blood stream?

Select one of the following:

  • Detergent washing

  • High level disinfection

  • Sterilization

  • Intermediate level disinfection

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

The most difficult of all pathogens to kill:

Select one of the following:

  • Bacteria

  • Viruses

  • Fungi

  • Spores

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

What method of disinfection uses hot water immersion at 63-70 C for 30 minutes?

Select one of the following:

  • Autoclaving

  • Pasteurization

  • ETO

  • Broths

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

What are the major consideration when using disposable equipment?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cost

  • Quality

  • Accesability

  • Convenience

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

The preferred method fo sterilization of equipment that has been grossly contaminated with an extremely virulent (aggressive) pathogen, and is no longer of use, is which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • ETO

  • Irradiation

  • Incineration

  • Autoclaving

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

An item has returned from the Central Sterile Suppy after being autoclaved. The outside processing color indicator has converted showing heat exposure. You now know:

Select one of the following:

  • The item is sterile

  • It has been properly exposed to gas

  • It has been properly exposed to steam

  • It has been properly exposed to Cidex

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

Of the follwoing techniques, which is not capable of sterilization?

Select one of the following:

  • Pasteurization

  • ETO

  • Irradiation

  • Gluteradehyde

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

What is the appropriate concentration of ethyl or isopropyl alcohol when used for surface disinfection?

Select one of the following:

  • 40% -50%

  • 50% - 60%

  • 70% - 90%

  • 100%

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

Sterilization is achieved by various means through effecting the cells in which way(s)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Denaturation

  • Coagulation

  • Surface tension reduction

  • Interference with metabolism/reproduction

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

Which of the following do we depend upon to guarantee sterilization?

Select one of the following:

  • Biologic inidcator strip/capsule (Attest)

  • Heat sensitive tape

  • Gas sensitive tape

  • Thermo couplers

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

Quality control requires use of both cylce strips (gas or steam) and biologic indicators to confirm proper processing.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

Once activated, Cidex will be fully potent for:

Select one of the following:

  • 24-72 hours

  • 5-7 days

  • 7-10 days

  • 14 days

  • 28 days

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

The pH range for Cidex is:

Select one of the following:

  • 2.5 - 3.5

  • 4.5 - 5.5

  • 7.35 - 7.45

  • 7.5-8.5

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

Once opened, sterile fluids may be used within ___ before they should be disposed.

Select one of the following:

  • 8 hours

  • 12 hours

  • 24 hours

  • 48 hours

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

The types of tests for contamination include all of the following except:

Select one of the following:

  • Swab surfaces

  • Broths

  • Ethylene oxide

  • Sporacidal capsules

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

Which of the following steps is not part of basic equipment processing?

Select one of the following:

  • Wash then rinse or surface disinfect

  • Pre-soak in glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes

  • Air dry completely

  • Package as required

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

A simple disinfectant made with vinegar and water (1:3) contains which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Cidex

  • Sodium hypochlorite

  • Ethylene glycol

  • Acetic acid

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

"Processing by risk" means:

Select one of the following:

  • Risk to the employee must be considered

  • Risk to the equipment must be considered

  • How the item is to be used determines the level of cleaning required

  • Determining how long the equipment is considered useable once properly cleaned

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

Alcohol is best used for:

Select one of the following:

  • Sterilization

  • Surface disinfection

  • Soaking electronic equipment

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

Another name for bleach is:

Select one of the following:

  • Sonacide

  • Sodium hypochlorite

  • Ethylene glycol

  • Acetic acid

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

A method which combines heat and pressure to achieve sterilization

Select one of the following:

  • Autoclaving

  • Pasteurization

  • Ethylene oxide

  • Ionizing radiation

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

Fluid and medication precautions include which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Use sterile fluids

  • Whenever possible, use medications that the patient has brought from home

  • Use unit dose vials

  • Dispose of unused fluids immediatley after opening

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

When using contact precautions, where should single patient use equipment be disposed?

Select one of the following:

  • Proper trash receptacle inside the patient's room

  • Inside the respiratory department

  • Central sterile

  • At the nurse's station

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The chemical symbol for nitric oxide gas is:

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The chemical symbol for carbon dioxide gas is

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The chemical symbol for Oxygen is

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The chemical symbol for Helium gas is

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The chemical symbol for Nitrogen gas is

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The color code for CO2 gas is

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The color code for Helium gas is

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The color code for Nitrous oxide gas is

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The color code for air is

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The color code for oxygen is

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Our natural atmosphere contains % oxygen

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Our natural atmosphere contains % nitrogen

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

Oxygen will explode at 100% purity

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

Oxygen is produced commercially through the process of

Select one of the following:

  • Friction

  • Fractional distillation of liquid air

  • Fracturing liquid air

  • Breaking down water using a molecular sieve

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

Taking safety into consideration, at what pressure is it recommended to change used tanks for a full tank?

Select one of the following:

  • 500 psi

  • 100 psi

  • 200 psi

  • When it is completely empty

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

As a safety device, if an E cylinder's internal pressure or temperature is rising to dangerous levels, the _________ will activate thereby releasing the gas safely.

Select one of the following:

  • Fusible plug

  • Frangible disk

  • Teflon washer

  • Gas loc seal

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

If a medical gas cylinder has a "+" mark after its service pressure, it may be filled up to ___ psi.

Select one of the following:

  • 2000

  • 2100

  • 2200

  • 2440

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

Standards of gas purity are set by the

Select one of the following:

  • Compressed Gas Association

  • Food and Drug Administration

  • American Medical Association

  • American Association for Respiratory Care

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

Which organization requires color coding of gas cylinders?

Select one of the following:

  • Food and Drug Administration

  • Department of Transportation

  • National Fire and Protection Agency

  • Compressed Gas Association

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

The ___________________ is a safety system, for tanks larger than E, that uses threaded connections, which vary in thread number and thread angle, so that similar sized cylinders containing dissimilar gases cannot be misused.

Select one of the following:

  • American Standard Safety System

  • Diameter Index Safety System

  • Pin Index Safety System

  • Thread Index Safety System

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

The ONLY sure way to verify that oxygen is contained in a cylinder is by:

Select one of the following:

  • Reading the label

  • Verifying the color code

  • Analyzing the gas contents

  • Attaching the proper regulator

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

A device that incorporates both a reducing valve and a flow device is a ________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Analyzer

  • Flow meter

  • Regulator

  • Gas loc seal

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

An H cylinder of oxygen contains ________ cu ft. of gas.

Select one of the following:

  • 22

  • 244

  • 50

  • 44

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

What style regulator do small size cylinders use?

Select one of the following:

  • Threaded

  • Yoke style

  • Thorpe

  • "Bore" style

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

The safety system that applies to the valve outlets of small cylinders

Select one of the following:

  • Pin Index Safety System

  • Diameter Index Safety System

  • Threaded Index Safety System

  • Quick Connect Safety System

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

As a safety device, if an H cylinder's internal temperature or pressure rises to dangerous levels, the _________________ will activate, thereby safely releasing the gas.

Select one of the following:

  • Fusible plug

  • Frangible disk

  • Teflon washer

  • Regulator

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

What is the purpose of "cracking" the tank?

Select one of the following:

  • To test if the gas has a smell before connecting the regulator

  • To prevent debris from entering the regulator

  • To determine if there is a leak in the tank

  • To test to see if the safety system is working properly

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

The only accurate method to determine the contents of a liquid filled cylinder is

Select one of the following:

  • Read the pressure gauge

  • Weigh the cylinder

  • Turn the flow-meter to flush and measure how much gas comes out

  • Determine the temperature of the gas in the tank as gas volume is affected by temperature

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

If a tank is leaking after putting on a regulator, which of the following is the proper course of action?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Check and tighten all connections

  • Replace the tank

  • Check the outlet for debris

  • Check/replace the washer

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

Calculate the duration of flow from the cylinder. Your final answer must be in hours and minutes.

A full H cylinder when the flowmeter is set at 5L/min. For safety reasons, assume that you will NOT use all of the gas in the cylinder

Select one of the following:

  • 23 hours and 2 minutes

  • 2 hours and 3 minutes

  • 17 hours and 47 minutes

  • 1 hour and 35 minutes

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

Calculate the duration of flow from the following cylinder.

An E cylinder containing 1250 psi and the flowmeter is set at 3L/min. For safety reasons, assume that you will NOT use all of the gas in the cylinder.

Select one of the following:

  • 1 hour and 10 minutes

  • 1 hour and 56 minutes

  • 65 hours and 25 minutes

  • 39 hours and 15 minutes

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

Calculate the duration of flow for the following cylinder.

An E cylinder containing 1800 psi and the flowmeter is set at 2L/min. For safety reasons, assume that you will NOT use all of the gas in the cylinder.

Select one of the following:

  • 4 hours and 12 minutes

  • 3 hours and 2 minutes

  • 47 hours and 6 minutes

  • 68 hours

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

Calculate the duration of flow for the following cylinder.

An H cylinder containing 1200 psi and the flowmeter is set at 8L/min. For safety reasons, assume that you will NOT use all of the gas in the cylinder.

Select one of the following:

  • 7 hours and 51 minutes

  • 3 hours and 16 minutes

  • 25 minutes

  • 4 hours and 35 minutes

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

A patient has a nasal cannula and needs to be transported with an E cylinder that is lying flat underneath the stretcher. You would recommend using which type of flowmeter?

Select one of the following:

  • A Thorpe tube flow meter

  • An air oxygen proportioner

  • Bourdon style flow meter

  • Quick connect

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

Which of the following safety systems is utilized for equipment operating at less than 200 psi to prevent misconnections to inappropriate gases?

Select one of the following:

  • Diameter Index Safety System

  • American Index Safety System

  • Pin Index Safety System

  • Frangible disk and fusible plug combinations

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

If the outlet of a Bourdon gauge became partially obstructed creating back pressure, the indicated flow would ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • Show no flow

  • Be lower than you set

  • Be higher than you set

  • Show no change at all

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

It is possible to distinguish between a single stage reducing valve and a multi-stage reducing valve by counting the number of _____________.

Select one of the following:

  • Gauges

  • Threads

  • Pins

  • Pop-offs

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

When using this type of flowmeter the ball will jump when plugged into a gas source

Select one of the following:

  • Compensated thorpe tube

  • Uncompensated thorpe tube

  • Bourdon gauge

  • Flowmeter calibrated to be used with Heliox

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

The Bourdon gauge measures:

Select one of the following:

  • Tidal Volume

  • Pressure

  • Oxygen percentage

  • Type of cylinder content

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

Used as an alternative means for providing air to a patient without using an air cylinder

Select one of the following:

  • Manifold

  • Compressor

  • Regulator

  • Concentrator

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

The standard working pressure for medical gas equipment is ________.

Select one of the following:

  • .28 psi

  • 3.14 psi

  • 2200 psi

  • 50 psi

  • 200 psi

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

The device which converts the high pressure within a cylinder to a workable pressure is a:

Select one of the following:

  • Reducing valve

  • Kinetic flowmeter

  • A pop-off valve

  • A zone valve

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

Bulk piping alarms activate when:

Select one or more of the following:

  • The system detects a drop in pressure

  • The gas supply is completely empty

  • The system detects an interruption in gas flow, possibly because of an obstruction

  • The system has been tampered with

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

The NFPA standard for bulk oxygen systems requires that the reserve supply be:

Select one of the following:

  • Equal to the average of one days use (24 hours)

  • A fixed bank of 75 H cylinders

  • At least three small liquid cylinders

  • 100 ft of gas per bed

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

The advantage to using liquid bulk storage oxygen systems is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • A great deal of gas is available from a relatively small amount of liquid oxygen

  • It is the most economical means of providing oxygen to a facility

  • It provides a continuous oxygen supply to multiple station outlets

  • It provides oxygen at a uniform pressure of 50 psi

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

The terminal point of a piping system where equipment, such as a flowmeter, can be connected is the:

Select one of the following:

  • Station outlet

  • Manifold

  • Zone valve

  • Main shut off

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

A device used to both reduce pressure and control the flow from a medical gas cylinder is:

Select one of the following:

  • Compressor

  • Thrope tube flowmeter

  • Reducing valve

  • Regulator

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

The key property of helium which makes it useful as a therapeutic gas is its:

Select one of the following:

  • Low solubility

  • Low density

  • Poor conductive qualities

  • Chemical inertness

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

The limiting factor of a Thorpe tube flowmeter is:

Select one of the following:

  • Size

  • Weight

  • Gravity

  • Cost

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

When using a Thorpe tube style flowmeter, where should you look to read the actual flow being delivered?

Select one of the following:

  • At the top of ball

  • The middle of the ball

  • At the bottom of the ball

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

This device is used to mix both air and oxygen proportionally to deliver a specific FIO2

Select one of the following:

  • Compressor

  • Concentrator

  • Blender

  • Manifold system

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

When oxygen is in use, which of the following items should be avoided?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Smoking materials

  • Electrical devices

  • Friction toys

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

As a safety precaution, when oxygen is in use, a sign should be visibly posted.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

This type of alarm will sound when low pressure is sensed while using an air-oxygen proportioner:

Select one of the following:

  • Shut off alarm

  • Pop off alarm

  • Manifold alarm

  • Reed alarm

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

The purpose of a pop off valve is:

Select one of the following:

  • To whistle when gas pressure has been reduced to 50 psi

  • To act as a safety mechanism and vent excessive gas pressure

  • To convert high pressure to working pressure

  • To regulate flow to the patient

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

This type of valve is used Used to isolate regions during times of maintenance or for fire safety without cutting off the entire system

Select one of the following:

  • Main shut off valves

  • Reed Alarms

  • Zone Valves

  • Compressors

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

You are called to assist in transporting a patient to radiology. The patient is currently on oxygen therapy using a nasal cannula set at 2 liter per minute. According to the nurse, the test will take exactly 2 hours. The room that will be used during the test does not have piped oxygen available. You have obtained an “E” cylinder containing 1500 psi. According to the information above, will you have enough oxygen in the tank to last during the procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

Alveolar oxygen tension is determined by:

Select one or more of the following:

  • How much oxygen is available to breathe

  • How much oxygen can move across the a/c membrane

  • How much oxygen is needed to properly resaturate red blood cells

  • Ventilation

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

Which symbol represents the fraction of inspired air?

Select one of the following:

  • FaO2

  • FiO2

  • PaO2

  • PAO2

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

Total barometric pressure at sea level is:

Select one of the following:

  • 570 mmHg

  • 760 mmHg

  • 100 mmHg

  • 47 mmHg

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

The movement of air in and out of the lungs is called:

Select one of the following:

  • Ventilation

  • Respiration

  • Diffusion

  • Absorption

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

Which of the following in NOT a response to inadequate oxygen supply?

Select one of the following:

  • Increased heart rate

  • Increased blood pressure

  • Hiccups

  • Increased work of breathing

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

When oxygen therapy is indicated, what is the role of the RT?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Select the proper mode of administration

  • Select the proper dosage

  • Monitor patient response

  • Recommend necessary changes

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

An inadequate quantity of oxygen in the blood

Select one of the following:

  • Hypoxemia

  • Tachycardia

  • Asphyxia

  • Anemia

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

This can occur when high concentrations of oxygen are used and the oxygen replaces the nitrogen in the alveoli.

Select one of the following:

  • Oxygen washout

  • Absorption atelectasis

  • Hypoxic drive

  • CO2 washout

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

This type of hypoxia may result from anemia, carbon monoxide poisoning or sickle cell disease

Select one of the following:

  • Stagnant hypoxia

  • Dysoxia

  • Hypoxemic Hypoxia

  • Hemoglobin deficiency

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

In a "normal, healthy person", the body's main stimulus to breathe is rising levels of ____________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Nitrogen

  • Oxygen

  • Carbon dioxide

  • Helium

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The toxic effects of oxygen result from a combination of and the amount of .

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

Assessing a patient's need for oxygen includes which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lab testing (ABG)

  • Pulse oximetry

  • Current clinical condition

  • Bedside assessment

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

COPD patients receiving aggressive oxygen therapy are particularly at risk for:

Select one of the following:

  • Retrolental Fibroplasia

  • Oxygen Induced Hypoventilation

  • Pneumonia

  • Stroke

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

How much oxygen is in room air?

Select one of the following:

  • 15%

  • 21%

  • 50%

  • 100%

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

This type of hypoxia may result from high altitude, hypoventilation or diffusion defects.

Select one of the following:

  • Stagnant hypoxia

  • Hemoglobin deficiency

  • Dysoxia

  • Hypoxemic hypoxia

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

The body's first sign of hypoxemia is:

Select one of the following:

  • Peripheral vasodilation

  • Pulmonary vasoconstriction

  • Tachycardia

  • Hypotension

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

How does hypoxemia affect the neurologic system?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Confusion

  • Lethargy

  • Agitation

  • Disorientation

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Oxygen toxicity results when using a greater than % for to hours

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

Which of the following gases primarily serves to hold the alveoli open?

Select one of the following:

  • Nitrogen

  • Oxygen

  • Carbon dioxide

  • Water vapor

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

To prevent ROP or RLF, PaO2 should be kept between ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • 50-75 torr

  • 50-100 torr

  • 75-100 torr

  • Over 100 torr

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

A COPD patient often has chronic hypercarbia and mild hypoxemia. As a result, they rely on the _____________ to breathe

Select one of the following:

  • Oxygen drive

  • Hypoxic drive

  • Central chemoreceptors

  • Nitrogen washout

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

For a healthy person, the normal PaO2 range while breathing room air is _____________.

Select one of the following:

  • Less than 40 torr

  • 60-70 torr

  • 80-100 torr

  • Greater than 100 torr

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

A PaO2 of 60-70 mmHg would be considered _______________

Select one of the following:

  • Normal

  • Mild hypoxia

  • Moderate hypoxia

  • Severe hypoxia

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

With oxygen therapy and relief of tissue hypoxia, the RCP can expect a clearer sensorium and a more alert patient.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

This type of hypoxemia does not respond to traditional oxygen therapy

Select one of the following:

  • Persistent hypoxemia

  • Intermittent hypoxemia

  • Refractory hypoxemia

  • Peripheral hypoxemia

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

Adjusting FiO2 gradually (5%) may minimize the risk of atelectasis

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

Regardless of the risk, you should never withholds supplemental oxygen from a hypoxic patient.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

Which patient population is at risk of developing ROP/RLF

Select one of the following:

  • Newborns

  • Toddlers

  • Adolescents

  • Elderly

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

BTPS stands for:

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1


Humidity, as water vapor, is water in a ________________form.

Select one of the following:

  • Relative

  • Molecular

  • Hyperbaric

  • Atomic

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

When a gas has a content that is equal to its capacity, what is it the relative humidity?

Select one of the following:

  • 25%

  • 50%

  • 75%

  • 100%

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

When a gas is holding less than its maximum capacity, the amount of water it would take to re-saturate the gas is the :

Select one of the following:

  • Dew Point

  • Humidity Deficit

  • Relative Humidity

  • Isothermic Saturation Boundary

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

What is the goal for humidity therapy for the patient who has an artificial airway who is receiving medical gas therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • To supply a water vapor saturated gas

  • To provide cool mist therapy

  • Correct To provide humidification and warmth at saturation levels for BTPS

  • To increased vapor content of dry therapeutic gases and return humidity to approximate ambient levels

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

If the supplemental level of humidity is greater than required by the patient, which of the
following can occur?

Select one of the following:

  • Humidity deficit

  • Decreased work of breathing

  • Fluid overload

  • Isothermic Saturation

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

Where would you expect to find condensation?

Select one of the following:

  • Inside aerosol tubing

  • On any surface which moisture may hit

  • Inside Nebulizers

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

Cool humidity therapy can be used to treat which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Croup

  • Epiglottitis

  • Post extubation edema

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

When dry secretions are rehydrated, they could potentially form ______, which could cause airway obstructions.

Select one of the following:

  • Mucous plugs

  • Consolidations

  • Droplets

  • Particles

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

The amount of water which can be contained in any gas is limited by its temperature.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

An expression of the percentage of water vapor compared to a saturated state.

Select one of the following:

  • Absolute Humidity

  • Relative Humidity

  • Saturated

  • Humidity Deficit

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

When a gas, at a given temperature, is holding as much water as possible, it is said to be
fully_________

Select one of the following:

  • Particulated

  • Pressurized

  • Saturated

  • Condensated

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

Keeping the amount of humidity that a patient must contribute to a minimum will reduce the overall stress to the body.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

Which of the following is a vehicle for pathogens?

Select one of the following:

  • Molecular water in the form of humidity

  • Condensation in the from of particulate droplet

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

Simple humidifiers are designed to return dry therapeutic gases to approximatley ___ relative humidity

Select one of the following:

  • 25%

  • 50%

  • 75%

  • 100%

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

The primary function of the upper airway is to ________ inspired air.

Select one of the following:

  • Warm

  • Humidify

  • Filter

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

Once a gas that is fully saturated at a given temperature begins to cool, the temperature at which condensation begins to form is called the:

Select one of the following:

  • Dew Point

  • Boiling point

  • Critical temperature

  • Humidity deficit

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

What is the main goal of humidity therapy for the patient with an intact airway who is receiving medical gas?

Select one of the following:

  • To supply a water vapor saturated gas

  • To increase water vapor content of dry therapeutic gases and return humidity to approximate ambient levels

  • To chill the upper airway's mucosal membrane

  • To provide humidification and warmth at saturation levels for BTPS

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

If a gas, at a certain temperature, is holding its full potential of water vapor and is then heated, the potential to hold water vapor will

Select one of the following:

  • Increase

  • Decrease

  • Remain the same

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

In a normal individual, at what level in the airway does the inspired atmosphere each BTPS?

Select one of the following:

  • Larynx

  • Right mainstem

  • Alevolar capillary membrane

  • Isothermic Saturation Boundary

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

Neonates are at greater risk of overhydration

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

At the alveolar level, water vapor exerts a partial pressure of ____________ mmHg

Select one of the following:

  • 37

  • 44

  • 47

  • 50

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

Water is constantly lost from the lungs and the skin through breathing and sweating.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

Which route of inhalation is more efficient for heating and humidifying inspired air?

Select one of the following:

  • Nose

  • Mouth

  • Either route is the same

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

Which type of flow aids evaporation and allows for more moisture to be "picked up" in the gas stream?

Select one of the following:

  • Low flow

  • High flow

  • Flow is irrelevant

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT a hazard of humidity therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Alteration of heat and water exchange

  • Risk of infection

  • Electrical Hazards

  • Oxygen toxicity

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

Unheated bubble humidifiers are intended to restore ambient humidity to approximately
______ of relative humidity.

Select one of the following:

  • 10% - 20%

  • 25% - 35%

  • 40% - 50%

  • 50% - 75%

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1


Which of the following techniques should be used to minimize the risk of infection when using humidity
therapy.

Select one of the following:

  • Sterile replacements every 24 hours

  • Close feed reservoir systems

  • Use prepackaged sterile, disposable units

  • Drain condensation away from the reservoir

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

Hazards of condensation include which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Aspiration risk

  • Risk of infection

  • Disruption of gas flow

  • Potential altering of FiO2

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

The following are goals of humidity therapy EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Prevent drying of mucosa

  • Compensate for a humidity deficit

  • Provide an exact FiO2 to the patient under any condition

  • To provide cool aerosols to soothe irritated airways

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

Which of the following are examples of large volume, warmed humidifiers. Choose all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Wick style

  • Bubble

  • Heat moisture ex-changer

  • Cascade

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

HME's are classified as _________________ humidifiers.

Select one of the following:

  • Classic

  • Patient dependent

  • Active

  • Passive

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

Which of the following factors effect humidifier output?

Select one of the following:

  • Surface area

  • Contact Time

  • Temperature

  • Gas Flow

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

If the temperature of a gas drops, the ability to hold water vapor will ___________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Increase

  • Decrease

  • Stay the same

  • Unknown

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

Which of the following are disadvantages of using a heat moisture exchanger? Choose all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Less effective than a heated, humidified system

  • Will occlude with heavy secretions

  • Disposable

  • Must be removed when giving aerosol treatments

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

Condensation or "Rain Out" is dependent on which of the following:

Select one of the following:

  • The temperature difference from the humdifier to the patient airway

  • Ambient temperature

  • Gas flow

  • Length, diameter and thermal mass of the breathing circuit

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

Which type of patients require using warmed humidifiers.

Select one of the following:

  • Patients with artificial airways

  • Patients with intact upper airways

  • Patients with Asthma

  • Patients who are hyperthermic

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

Warmed humidifiers aim to deliver ______ body humidity.

Select one of the following:

  • 25%

  • 50%

  • 75%

  • 100%

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

HME's can provide ____________ humidity

Select one of the following:

  • 25%-50%

  • 50% - 75%

  • 60% - 90%

  • 100%

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

Another name for a heat moisture ex-changer is:

Select one of the following:

  • Artificial lung

  • Artificial nose

  • Re-breather

  • Briggs adapter

Explanation