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HPS202 quiz Deakin uni

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HPS202 exam revision

Question 1 of 200

1

Which of the following best describes DNA?

Select one of the following:

  • DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid, and contains all of the genetic information required for features of our bodies

  • DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid, and sends messages to our brain about how to control our bodily movements

  • DNA is an inherited script, based upon our environmental interactions early on in life

  • DNA is something that we all carry, but only utilise it in conscious situations

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

If a father's sperm contains an X chromosome, when paired with a mother's egg, the resulting child:

Select one of the following:

  • Will not have its sex determined until after 8 weeks gestation

  • Will be male

  • Will inherit both male and female characteristics

  • Will be female

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

To be expressed, a dominant gene:

Select one of the following:

  • Must have its pair in order to be expressed

  • Will be expressed regardless if a recessive gene is present

  • Will not be expressed if a recessive gene is present

  • Is expressed in combination with the recessive gene

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

If blue eye color is a recessive gene, then in order for a person to have a phenotype of blue eyes:

Select one of the following:

  • Two blue eye genes must be present

  • As long as one blue eye gene is present, the trait will be expressed in the phenotype

  • Blue eye color is expressed randomly, there is no genetic pattern

  • Blue eye recessive genes will dominate over dominant genes of, for example, brown eyes

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

A gene showing co-dominance:

Select one of the following:

  • Has one allele that is dominant to the other

  • Has two alleles that are equal in dominance

  • Has alleles linked tightly on the same chromosome

  • Has alleles which are recessive to each other

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

Identify the differences between a genotype and phenotype:

Select one of the following:

  • A genotype is the genes carried by a person; the phenotype is the observable expression of the genes

  • A phenotype is the genes carried by a person; the genotype is the observable expression of the genes

  • A genotype carries all of the genes from your mother; A phenotype carries all of the genes from your father

  • A genotype is the observable expression of the genes; A phenotype is all of the alleles that you carry

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

Place the three phases of prenatal development in the correct procedural order:

Select one of the following:

  • Germinal, foetal, embryonic

  • Germinal, embryonic, foetal

  • Embryonic, germinal, foetal

  • Embryonic, foetal, germinal

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

Which of the following correctly matches the layers of the embryonic disc with the structures that they form, with ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm respectively?

Select one of the following:

  • the nervous system, skin and hair; muscles, bones, circulatory system and other internal organs; the digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands

  • the digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands; muscles, bones, circulatory system and other internal organs; the nervous system, skin and hair

  • muscles, bones, circulatory system and other internal organs; the digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands; the nervous system, skin and hair

  • the nervous system, skin and hair; the digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands; muscles, bones, circulatory system and other internal organs

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

Which of the following occur during the embryonic period?

Select one of the following:

  • All basic organs of the body are formed, and the embryo begins to respond to direct stimulation

  • Organs take on their final form and begin to function

  • An inner membrane, called the amnion, forms a watertight sac with amniotic fluid to protect the developing organism

  • Implantation

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

During which trimester does the foetus begin to move and kick, as well as develop the sucking and swallowing complexes?

Select one of the following:

  • Trimester 1

  • Trimester 2

  • Trimester 3

  • Within two weeks of birth

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

During which trimester does the foetus respond reflexively to touch on the face?

Select one of the following:

  • Trimester 1

  • Trimester 2

  • Trimester 3

  • Between trimester 2 and 3

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

During which trimester does the brain indicate periods of sleep and wakefulness?

Select one of the following:

  • Trimester 1

  • Trimester 2

  • Trimester 3

  • From implantation

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT true regarding teratogens?

Select one of the following:

  • A teratogen is an agent which can cause birth defects

  • A teratogen causes speedier and healthier development

  • Some common teratogens include alcohol, tobacco, some STIs, illicit and prescribed drugs

  • Teratogens are usually something in the environment that the mother is exposed to during pregnancy

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

Which of the following is an example of how environmental influences can impact on our genetics?

Select one of the following:

  • A child grows to be very tall, like his mother and father

  • A boy learns to play the guitar from his father

  • A neglected child still creates meaningful attachments later in life

  • A neglected and malnourished child does not grow to be very tall, despite having tall parents

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

The frontal lobe of the brain is the last to develop, and often does not reach maturity until early adulthood. Which of the following are functions of the frontal lobes?

Select one of the following:

  • Reasoning, decision making, and executive functioning

  • Imagining, memory, and risk taking

  • Taste, touch, smell, hearing and sight

  • Emotional reactions to fear-inducing stimuli

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Trust V Mistrust'?

Select one of the following:

  • Occurs from birth-18 moths; a key event during this period is exploration. To resolve this crisis, the child must be able to safely explore and engage with their environment.

  • Occurs from 2-3 years old; a key event during this period is feeding. Trust is developed when caregivers consistently meet the child's needs.

  • Occurs from 2-3 years; a key event during this period is exploration. To resolve this crisis, the child must be able to safely explore and engage with their environment.

  • Occurs from birth-18 months; a key event during this period is feeding. Trust is developed when caregivers consistently meet the child's needs.

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Autonomy V Shame and Doubt'?

Select one of the following:

  • Occurs at 2-3 years of age; a key event during this period is toilet training. Autonomy is achieved when children can develop a sense of personal control over physical skills.

  • Occurs at 6-11 years of age; a key event during this period is feeding. To achieve autonomy, the child must be able to source their own food and necessary supplies.

  • Occurs at birth-18 months; a key event during this period is toilet training. Autonomy is achieved when children can develop a sense of personal control over physical skills.

  • Occurs at 6-11 years of age; a key event during this period is friendships. To achieve autonomy, a child must be able to make friendships without parental assistance.

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Intiative V Guilt'?

Select one of the following:

  • Occurs from 3-5 years; a key event during this period is exploration. Children need to establish power and control over their environment, leading them to a sense of purpose.

  • Occurs from 3-5 years; a key event during this period is pre-school. Children need to cope with new social and academic demands.

  • Occurs from 6-11 years; a key event during this period is school. Children need to cope with new social and academic demands.

  • Occurs from 2-3 years; a key event during this period is exploration. Children need to establish power and control over their environment, leading them to a sense of purpose.

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Industry V Inferiority'?

Select one of the following:

  • Occurs from 6-11 years; a key event during this period is schooling. Industry is achieved when the child is able to cope with the new social and academic demands.

  • Occurs from 3-5 years; a key event during this period is schooling. Industry is achieved when the child is able to cope with the new social and academic demands.

  • Occurs from 6-11 years; a key event during this period is social relationships. Success is achieved when children feel valued and useful within their friendship groups.

  • Occurs from 3-5 years; a key event during this period is social relationships. Success is achieved when children feel valued and useful within their friendship groups.

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Identity V Role Confusion'?

Select one of the following:

  • Occurs from 12-18 years; a key event during this period is social relationships. Success in this stage leads to a formed ability to develop a sense of self and stay to true to oneself.

  • Occurs from 6-11 years; a key event during this period is social relationships. Success in this stage leads to a formed ability to develop a sense of self and stay to true to oneself.

  • Occurs from 12-18 years; a key event during this period is intimate relationships. Success in this stage is achieved when individuals are able to develop an identity in combination with their partner.

  • Occurs from 19-40 years; a key event during this period is intimate relationships. Success in this stage is achieved when individuals are able to develop an identity in combination with their partner.

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Intimacy V Isolation'?

Select one of the following:

  • Occurs from 19-40 years; a key event during this period is relationships. Intimacy is achieved when the individual can form intimate, loving relationships with others.

  • Occurs from 12-18 years; a key event during this period is relationships. Intimacy is achieved when the individual can form intimate, loving relationships with others.

  • Occurs from 19-40 years; a key event during this period is relationships. Success in this stage is achieved when the individual is able to interact with people in passing.

  • Occurs from 12-18 years; a key event during this period is relationships. Intimacy is achieved when the individual engages in sexual activity.

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

Which of the following statements accurately describes the most sophisticated self-theory seen during late adolescence?

Select one of the following:

  • "I am a boy, I am five, and I like playing sport"

  • "I am a feminist, I am creative, and I support the Labor party"

  • "I am a feminist, I am creative, and I support the Labor party. I am happy and extroverted with friends, but sad and quiet at home"

  • "I am a female, and I am usually happy, and I am in high school"

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

Which of the following statements accurately describes identity diffusion?

Select one of the following:

  • I haven't really thought about who I am, or who I am going to be yet.

  • My parents are Catholic, so I am going to be Catholic.

  • I have considered many religions, including Catholicism, which I was raised as. I have decided to convert to Buddhism.

  • I was brought up being taught how to run the family farm, but I am considering other career options currently.

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

Which of the following statements accurately describes identity foreclosure?

Select one of the following:

  • My parents were doctors, so I will be too.

  • I have not thought about who I am, or what I want to be.

  • I believe I want to be a doctor, I am just making my final decisions about it now.

  • My parents were doctors, but I am looking into being a vet.

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

Which of the following statements accurately describes identity moratorium?

Select one of the following:

  • I have been brought up Christian, but am currently looking into Catholicism.

  • My parents were Christian, therefore I will be too.

  • I haven't given any thought as to who I am or who I want to be.

  • I have considered many options, and have decided to practice Buddhism.

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

Which of the following statements accurately describes identity achievement?

Select one of the following:

  • I have considered many different career options, and I have decided that I am going to be a doctor.

  • My parents were doctors so I am going to be a doctor also.

  • Because my parents were doctors and unhappy, I am going to do something other than be a doctor.

  • My parents were doctors, but I am looking into some career options of my own.

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

Which of the following do NOT have a major influence on identify formation?

Select one of the following:

  • Cognitive development and scholastic opportunities

  • Parental relationships and influence

  • Sociocultural influences

  • Emotional regulation

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

At what age does gender constancy occur?

Select one of the following:

  • 5-7 years

  • 2-4 years

  • 3-5 years

  • 6-8 years

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

At what age does gender-typed behaviour begin?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 years

  • 3 years

  • 5 years

  • 12 years

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

During which period are racial and prejudicial attitudes influenced by parents most strongly?

Select one of the following:

  • At 3 years

  • At 7 years

  • Adolescence

  • Adulthood

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

The child may be engaged in seemingly random movements, with no clear objective. This best describes which type of play?

Select one of the following:

  • Unoccupied play

  • Solitary play

  • Onlooker play

  • Multi-dimension play

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

The child plays alone with different toys or other objects, and with no direct or indirect awareness of or involvement with other children, even if nearby. This best describes which type of play?

Select one of the following:

  • Solitary play

  • Onlooker play

  • Unoccupied play

  • Only-child play

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

The child watches others play without actually entering into the activities. The child is clearly involved with what is happening, and is usually within speaking distance of the participants. This best describes which type of play?

Select one of the following:

  • Onlooker play

  • Solitary play

  • Unoccupied play

  • Excluded play

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

Involves two or more children playing side-by-side in close proximity and with an awareness of each other's presence, often with the same toy or enjoying similar activity, but do not share toys, talk, or interact except in very minimal ways. This best describes which type of play?

Select one of the following:

  • Parallel play

  • Associative play

  • Cooperative play

  • Solitary play

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

Children engage in a common activity and talk about it with each other, but do not assign tasks or roles to particular individuals and are not very clear about common goals. This describes best which type of play?

Select one of the following:

  • Onlooker play

  • Parallel play

  • Cooperative play

  • Associative play

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

Children consciously form into groups to make something, attain a goal, or dramatise a situation. One or two members organise and direct the activity with children assuming different roles and responsibilities. Which type of play does this most accurately describe?

Select one of the following:

  • Group play

  • Parallel play

  • Cooperative play

  • Associative play

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

Identify the categories of Grussec and Lytton's play typology:

Select one of the following:

  • Functional, constructive, pretend, and games with rules

  • Onlooker, parallel, associative, and cooperative play

  • Solitary, onlooker, parallel, and cooperative

  • Functional, fine motor, pretend, and gross motor

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

What emotions are present from birth?

Select one of the following:

  • Interest, disgust, and contentment

  • Disgust, contentment, and discomfort

  • Anger, sadness, and joy

  • Surprise, joy, and anger

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

What emotions appear in the 2-7 month period in infants?

Select one of the following:

  • Anger, sadness, joy, and surprise

  • Interest, disgust, and contentment

  • Embarassment, shame, and guilt

  • Envy, pride, and happiness

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

Self-conscious emotions (including embarrassment, shame, guilt, envy, and pride), are called so because:

Select one of the following:

  • Each involves some damage or enhancement to our sense of self

  • Each is detrimental to our sense of self

  • Each improves our sense of self

  • Each requires self-recognition and an understanding of rules or standards for evaluating one's conduct

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

Self-evaluative emotions, including shame, guilt and pride, are called so because:

Select one of the following:

  • They either enhance or are detrimental to our sense of self

  • They are detrimental to our sense of self

  • They enhance our sense of self

  • They require self-recognition and an understanding of rules or standards for evaluating one's conduct

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

Regarding emotional display rules, which of the following is FALSE:

Select one of the following:

  • Emotional display rules vary across cultures

  • Every culture has similar or the same emotional display rules

  • A child who feigns pleasure at a displeasing present has mastered Westernised emotional display rules

  • At age 3, children can begin to disguise, suppress, and replace emotions

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

Social referencing beings to occur at 7-10 months. This refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • Using others' emotional expressions to infer the meaning of otherwise ambiguous situations

  • If other people are happy, the infant will display this emotion also

  • Infants learn facial expressions and emotions from others, and put these into use at a later date

  • Children learn emotional display rules from social referencing

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

The 3 components of emotional competence include:

Select one of the following:

  • Competent emotional expressivity, competent emotional regulation, and competent emotional knowledge

  • Competent in being quiet and still, competent behavioural skills, and competent communication of emotions

  • Competent emotional expressivity, competent in raising the moods of others, and competent social referencing

  • Competent in maintaining positive moods, competent communication skills, and competent emotional knowledge

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

There are six dimensions to temperaments. Identify which of the following is NOT one of these core dimensions:

Select one of the following:

  • Fearful distress

  • Irritable distress

  • Positive affect

  • Activity level

  • Attention span/persistence

  • Rhythmicity

  • Desire for social engagement

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

Thomas and Chess' notion of 'goodness of fit' refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • Development being optimised when parents' child rearing practices are sensitively adapted to the child's temperamental characteristics

  • Development being delayed when parents' child rearing practices are sensitively adapted to the child's temperamental characteristics

  • Development being optimised when parents' child rearing practices are standardised regardless of temperament

  • Development is delayed if parents do not adjust their lives properly around their children

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

Identify the correct order in which the phases of attachment occur:

Select one of the following:

  • Social phase, the phase of indiscriminate attachments, the specific attachment phase, and the phase of multiple attachments

  • The phase of indiscriminate attachments, the specific attachment phase, the phase of multiple attachments, and the social phase

  • Social phase, the specific attachment phase, the phase of indiscriminate attachments, and the phase of multiple attachments

  • The phase of multiple attachments, the specific attachment phase, the phase of indiscriminate attachments, and the social phase,

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

"To love you, I must know you will always be there". This statement refers most closely to which of the following theories of attachment?

Select one of the following:

  • Psychoanalytic theory

  • Learning theory

  • Cognitive developmental theory

  • Ethological theory

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

Stranger anxiety occurs at _____, and is _______________:

Select one of the following:

  • 7-9 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infant is approached by an unfamiliar person

  • 9-18 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infant is approached by an unfamiliar person

  • 7-9 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infant is separated from the person(s) to whom they are securely attached

  • 9-18 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infant is separated from the person(s) to whom they are securely attached

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

Separation anxiety occurs at _____, and is ____________:

Select one of the following:

  • 6-9 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infants are separated from the person(s) to whom they are securely attached

  • 9-18 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infants are separated from the person(s) to whom they are securely attached

  • 6-9 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infants are approached by a stranger

  • 9-18 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infants are separated from their home environment

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

Four types of attachment types have been proposed. These include __________,__________, __________, and __________. The most common type of attachment is __________.

Select one of the following:

  • Secure, resistant, avoidant, and disorganised; secure

  • Secure, resistant, avoidant, and disorganised; disorganised

  • Secure, wary, infactuated, and disorganised; secure

  • Secure, wary, infactuated, and disorganised; infactuated

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

A child who has a secure attachment has most likely experienced:

Select one of the following:

  • Positive attitudes from parents, and parents are sensitive to infant's needs

  • Mostly positive attitudes from parents, but the parents often have bursts of anger

  • Parents are inflexible in their schedules, only providing care for the child at specific times

  • Positive attitudes from strangers, and strangers are sensitive to infant's needs

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

A child who has a positive model of themselves, but a negative model of others (according to the 'working models' theory), most likely has which attachment type:

Select one of the following:

  • Avoidant attachment

  • Secure attachment

  • Resistant attachment

  • Disorganised attachment

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

A child has only ever known their family dog-a small chihuahua. Upon seeing a large Labrador, his mother explains that this is also a dog. The child therefore adds this image to his existing schema of dogs. This is a process best known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Assimilation

  • Accommodation

  • Maturation

  • Reflexive learning

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

Identify the correct ordering of the 6 substages of Piaget's sensorimotor period:

Select one of the following:

  • Simple reflexes, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, coordination of secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular motions, and beginnings of thought.

  • Simple reflexes, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular reactions, coordination of secondary reactions, and beginnings of thought.

  • Beginnings of thought, simple reflexes, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular reactions, and coordination of secondary reactions.

  • Beginnings of thought, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular reactions, coordination of secondary reactions, and simple reflexes.

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of children's thinking during Piaget's preoperational stage?

Select one of the following:

  • Centration

  • Lack of knowledge regarding conservation

  • Egocentrism

  • Object permanence

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

The concrete operational stage refers to the ability to solve problems regarding:

Select one of the following:

  • Tangible objects

  • Abstract problems

  • Hypothetical-deductive reasoning

  • Theorising cause and effect

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT something a child learns to do in the formal operational stage:

Select one of the following:

  • Solve abstract problems

  • Use hypothetical-deductive reasoning

  • Apply logic to situations

  • Understand knowledge of conservation

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

When a child is aggressive, but their main goal is to gain access to objects, space, or privileges, this aggression is best described as:

Select one of the following:

  • Immature aggression

  • Hostile aggression

  • Instrumental aggression

  • Relational aggression

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

The stages of the social information-processing theory of aggression are: encode, interpret, ________, generate possible strategies, __________, and ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • Formulate a goal; evaluate which strategy to employ; enact response

  • Evaluate which strategy to employ; enact response, evaluate enacted strategy

  • Formulate a goal; enact first response; enact scond response

  • Evaluate which strategy to employ; enact first response; enact scond response

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT shown to be common in the nature of bullies:

Select one of the following:

  • May have been bullied themselves

  • Have high self esteem

  • Have low self esteem

  • View aggression positively

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

Which one of the following is NOT a stage in Piaget's theory of moral development?

Select one of the following:

  • Pre-moral

  • Heternomous

  • Autonomous

  • Socially-defined

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

If someone said that they would cheat if they knew that they would not get caught, then they would be considered to be in the ________ level of morality, in stage __.

Select one of the following:

  • Preconventional; 1

  • Preconventional; 2

  • Postconventional; 6

  • Conventional; 3

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

If an individual said that they would let you copy their homework, if they could also copy yours from another subject, then this individual would be placed in the ____ level of morality, in stage __.

Select one of the following:

  • Preconventional; 2

  • Conventional; 3

  • Conventional; 4

  • Preconventional; 1

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

If an individual decided not to do something to someone, because they want to be liked by them, then this individual would be considered to be in the _____ level of morality, in stage __.

Select one of the following:

  • Conventional; 3

  • Conventional; 4

  • Pre-conventional; 2

  • Post-conventional; 5

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

If a child says "you can't do that, because the teacher said not to!", you can assume that they are in the ____ level of morality, in stage __.

Select one of the following:

  • Conventional; 4

  • Conventional; 3

  • Preconventional; 2

  • Postconventional; 5

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

In Kohlberg's scenario of the man stealing the medicine for his wife because he couldn't afford it, if an individual stated that this may have been a case where the rule needed breaking, you could assume that they are in ______ level of morality, and in stage __.

Select one of the following:

  • Post-conventional; 5

  • Post-conventional; 6

  • Conventional; 3

  • Conventional; 4

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

If an individual is acting consistently in such a way that they believe is right, regardless of punishment, or laws, this person is probably in the ______ level of morality, in stage __.

Select one of the following:

  • Post-conventional; 6

  • Conventional; 3

  • Post-conventional; 5

  • Conventional; 4

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

The basic units of sound refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • Phonemes

  • Morphemes

  • Semantics

  • Pragmatics

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

The word 'elephant' is an example of a ____ morpheme, whereas '-s' is an example of a _____ morpheme.

Select one of the following:

  • Free; bound

  • Bound; free

  • Pragmatic; semantic

  • Semantic; pragmatic

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

Rules that specify how words are to be combined to form meaningful phrases and sentences refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • Syntax

  • Semantics

  • Pragmatics

  • Morphology

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

The suggestion that language is learned by imitation (of adults) and reinforcement, is most strongly correlated with the _______________ theory of language development.

Select one of the following:

  • Learning/empiricist

  • Nativist

  • Interactionist

  • Cognitive

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

At what ages does 'cooing' begin (e.g. 'ooh' and 'aaah')?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 months

  • 4-6 months

  • From birth

  • 7 months

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

At what age does babbling (consonants added to speech, although words do not convey meaning) occur?

Select one of the following:

  • 4-6 months

  • 2 months

  • 10-12 months

  • 8 months

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

At what age do infants begin to reserve certain sounds for certain situations (for example, 'mm' when making requests, thus indicating knowledge of meaning)?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 months

  • 4-6 months

  • 6-8 months

  • 10-12 months

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

At what age do gestures and non-verbal responses tend to begin?

Select one of the following:

  • 7 months

  • 4-6 months

  • 10-12 months

  • 8-10 months

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

Pointing at something to draw attention to it is an example of a(n) ________ gesture, whereas by tugging on a caregiver's leg, indicating that they want to be picked up, is a(n) ________ gesture.

Select one of the following:

  • Declarative; imperative

  • Imperative; declarative

  • Indicative; meaningful

  • Meaningful; indicative

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

Using one word to represent a sentence (e.g. 'ball', to represent 'I want the ball'), is an example of a:

Select one of the following:

  • Holophrase

  • Monophrase

  • Telegraphic phrase

  • Immature sentence

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

Comprehension via the process of fast-mapping occurs at ______, but is not expressive until ______.

Select one of the following:

  • 13-15 months; 24-30 months

  • 15-18 months; 18-24 months

  • 12-14 months; 18-24 months

  • 12-24 months; 24-36 months

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

When a child speaks using only critical words to a sentence, for example, 'kitty go, ' this is an example of:

Select one of the following:

  • Holophrases

  • Telegraphic speech

  • Dual phrases

  • Pragmatic speech

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

When a child says 'I runned' instead of 'I ran', this is an example of:

Select one of the following:

  • Speech error

  • Overregulation

  • Pragmatic development

  • Motherese

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

At what age can children understand illocutionary intent (underlying meaning)?

Select one of the following:

  • 3 years

  • 1 year

  • 2 years

  • 4 years

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT part of criteria A for ASD?

Select one of the following:

  • Persistent deficits in social communication and social interactions across multiple contexts

  • Deficits in nonverbal communicative behaviours used for social interaction

  • Deficits in developing, maintaining, and understanding relationships

  • Restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviour, interests, or activities

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

Which of the following are NOT part of criteria B for ASD? Restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviour, interest, or activities over at least two of the following:

Select one of the following:

  • Stereotyped or repetitive motor movements

  • Use of objects or speech

  • Highly restricted, fixated interests that are abnormal in intensity or focus

  • Insistence on different routines every day

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

In higher functioning individuals with ASD, what is the male:female ratio of prevalence?

Select one of the following:

  • 4:1

  • 9:1

  • !:1

  • 4:2

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT a proposed causal factor of ASD?

Select one of the following:

  • Weaker central coherence

  • Extreme male brain

  • Extreme female brain

  • Executive functioning disabilities

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

Under the DSM-V criteria, the prevalence for ADHD is said to be __. The concordance rate between monozygotic twins is up to __.

Select one of the following:

  • 8%; 80%

  • 80%; 8%

  • 18%; 80%

  • 80%; 18%

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT an explanation used to explain why ASD is less prevalent in females?

Select one of the following:

  • Females may have innately better social skills

  • Diagnoses may not recognize female manifestations of ASD

  • Females may have a larger innate desire to socialise

  • Females possess the Y chromosome, thus exposing them less to the disorder

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT a presentation of ADHD?

Select one of the following:

  • ADHD predominantly inattentive presentation

  • ADHD predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation

  • ADHD combined presentation

  • ADHD attention-deficit presentation

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT required for a diagnosis of ADHD?

Select one of the following:

  • If the individual is <17, 6 diagnostic criteria must be present

  • If the individual is >17, 5 diagnostic criteria must be present

  • Symptoms must be present before 12 years of age

  • The individual must have a co-existing psychotic disorder

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

There is no evidence to suggest that ADHD is a brain-based dysfunction

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

Which of the following is the most effective treatment for ADHD?

Select one of the following:

  • Stimulants such as Ritalin, Dexedrine, and Amphetamines

  • Cognitive Behaviour Therapy

  • Cognitive Behaviour Therapy in combination with stimulants such as Ritalin, Dexedrine, and Amphetamines

  • This disorder resolves with age and maturity

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

Which of the following is not a risk factor for Schizophrenia?

Select one of the following:

  • Prenatal stressors

  • Drug use/abuse

  • Obstetric complications

  • Living within a functional family environment

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

The average age of onset for Schizophrenia is __ in men, and __ in women.

Select one of the following:

  • 18; 25

  • 25; 18

  • 18; 18

  • 18; 22

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

Schizophrenia tends to affect ___ more predominantly, with a(n) ______ onset, and generally more severe symptoms

Select one of the following:

  • Men; earlier

  • Men; later

  • Females; earlier

  • Females; later

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

(RE Schizophrenia) In 10 years post-diagnosis, ___ of patients completely recover, and ___ are much improved

Select one of the following:

  • 25%; 25%

  • 25%; 50%

  • 50%; 25%

  • One in 3 individuals diagnosed

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

Violence towards others is a symptom of Schizophrenia

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT part of the neurobiological explanation for schizophrenia?

Select one of the following:

  • Imbalances of dopamine and glutamate exist

  • Ventricles in the brain are larger

  • There tends to be less grey matter in the brain

  • There tends to be more white matter in the brain

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

Which of the following is a negative symptom of Schizophrenia?

Select one of the following:

  • Hallucinations

  • Delusions

  • Flat affect

  • Movement disorders

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

Eating disorders affect approximately __ of the Australian population

Select one of the following:

  • 9%

  • 15%

  • 11%

  • 21%

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT a long-term consequence of eating disorders?

Select one of the following:

  • Social isoloation

  • Increased social support

  • Medical complications

  • Psychological illness

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

Which of the following distinguishes Bulimia from Binge-Eating disorder?

Select one of the following:

  • Bulimia does not involve compensatory behaviours for binge eating, whereas binge-eating disorder does

  • Bulimia involves compensatory behaviours for binge eating, whereas binge-eating disorder does not

  • Bulimia does not involve binge eating, whereas binge-eating disorder does

  • Bulimia compensatory behaviours include only exercise, whereas binge-eating disorder compensatory behaviours include laxative and enema abuse.

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing an eating disorder?

Select one of the following:

  • Having diabetes

  • Having an obsession with food and dieting

  • Going to a public high school

  • Living in Westernised cultures

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

Which of the following is true of the proximodistal principle?

Select one of the following:

  • Controlling your hand before your arm

  • Controlling your fingers before your hand

  • Controlling your foot before your toes

  • Controlling your toes before your foot

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

Which of the following is true of the cephalocaudal principle?

Select one of the following:

  • Controlling your torso before your legs

  • Controlling your legs before your torso

  • Controlling your legs before your arms

  • Controlling your feet before your hands

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

At what age are children considered to be at the 'schematic' stage of drawing?

Select one of the following:

  • 6 years

  • 5 years

  • 4 years

  • 8 years

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT a proposed effect of sport in child development?

Select one of the following:

  • Poorer academic grades

  • Improved heart and lung function

  • Lower obesity rates

  • Improved sleep

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of dyspraxia?

Select one of the following:

  • Delayed milestones

  • Deficits in memory

  • Deficits in attention

  • Facial abnormalities

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

Which of the following is not a suggested treatment for dyspraxia?

Select one of the following:

  • Providing scaffolding and practice for the child

  • Adapting the environment to the child's needs

  • Engaging specific training

  • Routing the child to achieve milestones earlier than their peers

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

Which of the following are NOT factors that may impair motor development?

Select one of the following:

  • Muscle tone and strength

  • Motor planning

  • Sensory processing

  • Emotional regulation

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

Which of the following is not an example of a teratogen in pregnant women?

Select one of the following:

  • Blood disorders

  • Temperature

  • Diet

  • Personality

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

DNA is:

Select one of the following:

  • The information coded in genes that is then copied onto Ribonucleic acid (RNA)

  • Comprised of Ribonucleic acid (RNA)

  • The biological structure underpinning every human attribute and trait

  • The unchangeable, static biological blueprint we all possess

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

When we inherit characteristics from our parents, the form of genetic transmission is via:

Select one of the following:

  • Dominant alleles and recessive alleles

  • Dominant alleles, but not recessive alleles

  • Co-dominant alleles

  • Dominant, recessive and co-dominant alleles

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

If I have two blue-eyed parents and I have brown eyes, I can say that my brown eyes are:

Select one of the following:

  • An indication that I was probably adopted

  • A phenotypic manifestation of my genotype

  • A genotypic manifestation of my phenotype

  • Unrelated to my genetic inheritance

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

Organogenesis occurs during the:

Select one of the following:

  • Foetal gestational period

  • Germinal period

  • Embryonic period

  • Foetal period

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

A synapse is

Select one of the following:

  • A connection between neurons

  • Empty spaces between neurons

  • The fatty sheath covering neurons

  • The last part of the brain to develop

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

During brain development in adolescence:

Select one of the following:

  • The neurons are stripped of their myelin to facilitate quicker transmission between neurons

  • The brain has already reached full maturity and only changes when we learn skills

  • Synapses are pruned and myelin developed

  • More synapses are created rapidly to deal with larger amounts of information processing

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

Bones and other internal organs develop from

Select one of the following:

  • The introderm

  • The ectoderm

  • The endoderm

  • The mesoderm

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

Children’s tendency to associate with same-sex playmates and to think of the other sex as an out-group is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Gender segregation

  • Gender differentiation

  • Gender separation

  • Gender avoidment

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

Which of the following is true of Stereotypes?

Select one of the following:

  • They are widely shared knowledge structures that are learnt through socialization

  • They are always based on facts

  • They are distinct cognitive structures

  • They are widely shared knowledge structures that are learnt through socialization, AND They are distinct cognitive structures

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

Children involved in a game of ‘tag’ are demonstrating which type of play?

Select one of the following:

  • Solitary play

  • Parallel play

  • Onlooker play

  • Cooperative play

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

According to Erikson’s theory of psychosocial stages of development, children aged 6-11 years are typically dealing with which basic conflict?

Select one of the following:

  • initiative versus guilt

  • initiative versus industry

  • industry versus inferiority

  • industry versus guilt

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

Children generally demonstrate self recognition using the rouge test at approximately

Select one of the following:

  • 18-24 months of age

  • 15-17 months of age

  • 12-15 months of age

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

Which of the following have been identified as attachment-related fears in infancy:

Select one of the following:

  • Stranger anxiety

  • Separation Anxiety

  • Separation Anxiety AND Stranger anxiety

  • Imprinting

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

Infants who construct a positive working model of both themselves and their caregivers can be expected to develop which type of attachment style to their caregiver:

Select one of the following:

  • Secure attachment

  • Resistant attachment

  • Avoidant attachment

  • Disorganized/disoriented attachment

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

An infant who shows little distress when their mother leaves the room and seems to ignore her upon her return is likely to have which type of attachment:

Select one of the following:

  • Secure attachment

  • Resistant attachment

  • Avoidant attachment

  • Disorganized/disoriented attachment

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

The notion that the type of attachment that an infant develops with a caregiver depends primarily on the kind of caregiving the child received from that person is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • The Attachment hypothesis

  • The Caregiving hypothesis

  • The Emotional support hypothesis

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

A child whose behaviour is somewhat inactive and somewhat moody, and is slow to adapt to new persons and situations could be described as having which type of temperament?

Select one of the following:

  • Easy temperament

  • Difficult temperament

  • Slow-to-warm up temperament

  • Insecure temperament

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

Social learning approaches to aggression contend that aggression is based on:

Select one of the following:

  • Observation and learning

  • Genetic pre-disposition

  • Neurological maturation

  • All answers provided

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

Which of the following statements best summarises Dodge’s social information-processing theory of aggression?

Select one of the following:

  • Aggressive behaviour is the result of inferring hostile intent in others and reacting angrily.

  • Aggressive behaviour is the result of receiving a (often inadvertent) reward for aggression.

  • Aggressive behaviour depends on the social information provided to the child by the primary caregiver.

  • Aggression develops as a result of biological and cognitive maturation.

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

Boys are more physically and verbally aggressive on average than girls. This is most likely due to:

Select one of the following:

  • Higher testosterone levels in boys.

  • Parents react more negatively to aggressive behaviours from girls than boys.

  • Parents play rougher with boys than girls.

  • All answers provided

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

Maggie is supervising a play date between her daughter, Isla, and Isla’s friend Lily when she sees Isla kick Lily in an effort to avoid sharing the puzzle she is working on. Lily starts to cry. If Maggie wishes to foster compassion and altruism in Isla, the most appropriate response to Isla’s behaviour would be

Select one of the following:

  • To walk away from the situation to avoid inadvertently rewarding Isla for her aggressive behaviour.

  • To smack Isla on the bottom immediately, so that Isla makes the connection between her aggressive actions, and the punitive consequence.

  • To immediately yell at Isla and remove her from the situation.

  • To explain to Isla the harm and distress she has caused to Lily

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

You are administering Piaget’s moral-decisions exercise on Laurie. You read two stories to Laurie. In story A, Bob is trying to make a surprise breakfast in bed for his mum when he accidently knocks over four glasses, breaking them. In story B, while his mother isn’t looking, Jeff tries to steal a muffin from the kitchen bench when he knocks over one glass and breaks it. After the stories, you ask Laurie which child is naughtier, Bob or Jeff. Laurie says Jeff is the naughtier child because he was trying to do something naughty. How would you classify Laurie’s stage of moral development?

Select one of the following:

  • Premoral

  • Heteronomous morality

  • Autonomous morality

  • Social-order-maintaining morality

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

Egocentrism may best be defined as:

Select one of the following:

  • A desire to play alone rather than with others

  • A lack of empathy

  • The realization that others have internal states such as emotions and desires

  • Thinking that is dominated by an infant’s own experiences, perceptions and position in space

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

A child who picks up a stick and plays with it pretending it is a sword is demonstrating which of the following:

Select one of the following:

  • Symbolic representation

  • Achievement of Formal Operations

  • Engagement in cooperative play

  • None of the answers provided

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

When children answer incorrectly in Piaget’s classic Conservation Task experiments, what cognitive developmental characteristic are they proposed to have demonstrated?

Select one of the following:

  • Schemes

  • Centration

  • Concrete operations

  • Symbolic representations

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Concrete Operational Thought?

Select one of the following:

  • The ability to conserve across a wide range of conservation tasks

  • The ability to manipulate mental representations about the outside to solve problems

  • The ability to reason about immediate reality

  • The ability to reason about abstract possibilities

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

The ability to create and test hypotheses through systematic observation is called:

Select one of the following:

  • Hypothetico-deductive reasoning

  • Hypothetico-inductive reasoning

  • Observation-based reasoning

  • Piagetian reasoning

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

A child who utters the sentence “ Home Daddy come” has not yet mastered the rules of

Select one of the following:

  • syntax

  • pragmatics

  • semantics

  • morphology

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

When a child says ' I runned home' they demonstrate

Select one of the following:

  • Exposure to poor adult language models

  • Overregularlisation errors

  • Syntactic bootstrapping

  • None of the answers provided

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

According to the interactionist perspective, language development is influenced by

Select one of the following:

  • Children’s cognitive development and modified language used by family members

  • An innate ‘learning activation device’ that is programmed to acquire language

  • Differential reinforcement from family as words are acquired and used

  • Appropriate exposure to language during a sensitive period of development

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

What is the rate of prevalence of autism in boys compared to girls?

Select one of the following:

  • Boys are twice more likely to be diagnosed with autism than girls

  • Boys are half as likely to be diagnosed with autism as girls

  • The prevalence is the same

  • Boys are 3-5 times more likely to be diagnosed with autism than girls

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

Given recent revisions in the diagnostic criteria for ASD, it is expected that prevalence rates will likely

Select one of the following:

  • decrease because fewer children will be diagnosed

  • decrease because fewer children will develop ASD

  • remain stable because there have been no changes to diagnostic criteria

  • increase because practitioners are more aware of the condition

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

What are the main symptoms of ADHD?

Select one of the following:

  • Inattention, recklessness and hyperactivity

  • Impulsivity and low concentration

  • Fidgeting, inattention and hyperactivity

  • Hyperactivity and inattention

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

ADHD is thought to develop due to

Select one of the following:

  • poor diet

  • failure of carers to set appropriate expectations and boundaries

  • failure of carers to set appropriate expectations and boundaries AND poor diet

  • None of the answers provided

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

Children with ADHD respond best to treatments involving

Select one of the following:

  • Sedatives and behavioural modification

  • Cognitive behavioural therapy and stimulants

  • A good smack

  • Behavioursal modification and stimulants

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

Anorexia nervosa (AN) is primarily characterized by:

Select one of the following:

  • An intense fear of gaining weight and refusal to maintain a normal body weight

  • A lack of appetite which leads to subsequent weight loss

  • Repetitive, constant exercise with a view to losing weight

  • Episodes of purging and laxative use with a view to losing weight

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

Bulimia Nervosa is primarily characterized by

Select one of the following:

  • An intense fear of gaining weight and refusal to maintain a normal body weight

  • Recurrent episodes of binge eating and a sense of a lack of control over the binges followed by compensatory behaviour

  • Recurrent episodes of binge eating and a sense of a lack of control over the binges

  • Repetitive, constant exercise with a view to losing weight

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

Current estimates are that approximately

Select one of the following:

  • 1% adolescent girls develop anorexia

  • Approximately 15% children with anorexia are male

  • 40% of those with anorexia are at risk of developing bulimia

  • 40% of those with anorexia are at risk of developing bulimia AND 1% adolescent girls develop anorexia

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

People with schizophrenia are at high risk of

Select one of the following:

  • self harm

  • uncontrollable violence

  • domestic violence

  • having a split personality

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

People with schizophrenia tend to have brains that

Select one of the following:

  • are larger than most people

  • have larger fluid-filled cavities in them than most people

  • have less white matter and more grey matter than most people

  • are more active than most people

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

Which of the following statements about reflexes is true?

Select one of the following:

  • Reflexes are critical diagnostic indicators during infancy as they indicate neurological integrity.

  • While reflexes once held survival value to human infants, they are no longer relevant indicators of healthy development.

  • Reflexes are critical diagnostic indicators during infancy as they indicate muscular integrity.

  • Reflexes are critical diagnostic indicators during infancy as they indicate social development.

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

The impact of environment on motor development may best be summed up by saying:

Select one of the following:

  • Environment and practice are useful tools for the development of motor skills, but are not necessary.

  • Environmental factors can account for all the motor development observed in infants and children.

  • The environment is not a sufficient condition for the acquisition of motor skills but plays an important role in timing of skill acquisition.

  • Practice makes perfect – the more children practice motor skills, the faster they acquire them!

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

Sophie is about to turn 4 years old. Assuming she is on a normal developmental trajectory, what motor skills would her parents expect her to develop in the coming year?

Select one of the following:

  • Gross motor skills such as throwing and catching.

  • Fine motor skills such as cursive writing.

  • Fine motor skills such as drawing.

  • Fine motor skills such as drawing AND Gross motor skills such as throwing and catching.

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

Three - four year old children around the world typically draw people as ‘tadpole figures’ with a large head and no body. It is not until age 5 or 6 that most children draw human forms with a differentiated head and body. What is the most likely reason for this?

Select one of the following:

  • Because very young children are still developing the ability to interpret and understand sensory input.

  • Because older children have the ability to attend to a task for a longer period of time.

  • Because including a body with attached arms and legs requires fine motor skills which very young children are unlikely to possess.

  • Because including a body with attached arms and legs requires fine motor skills which very young children are unlikely to possess, AND Because very young children are still developing the ability to interpret and understand sensory input.

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

According to the dynamic systems theory, a child’s motor skills are:

Select one of the following:

  • Genetically programmed responses that emerge as dictated by maturation.

  • Genetically programmed responses that emerge as dictated by maturation and opportunities to practice.

  • Increasingly complex systems of action that represents the most effective way of achieving some objective using the limited capabilities the child may have.

  • Are dependent on a dynamic vicarious learning relationship between the child and the primary caregiver

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

  • Chromosomes are made up of DNA

  • Genes are part of chromosomes

  • Genes are made up of DNA

  • All of the answers provided

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

With respect to hair colour, ____ is a genotype and ____ is a phenotype:

Select one of the following:

  • AO, group A

  • The dominant allele of a gene, the recessive allele of a gene

  • Brunette hair, brunette hair gene

  • Brunette hair gene, brunette hair

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

In blood groups, the A allele is dominant over the O allele. Therefore, if a father’s blood
type is AO, and a mother’s is OO, their child:

Select one of the following:

  • Will have blood group A

  • Will have blood group OO.

  • Has a 50/50 chance of having either blood group AO or OO.

  • Has a one in three chance of having each of blood groups A, AO or OO

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

Which of the following is not a period within prenatal development?

Select one of the following:

  • Embryonic period

  • Placental period

  • Germinal period

  • Foetal period

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

Myelination refers to the

Select one of the following:

  • Gradual pruning of synapses

  • The ‘use it or lose it’ concept in neural development

  • The insulation of brain synapses

  • The insulation of mature brain cells

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

Which of the following is not true of the development of emotional expressions:

Select one of the following:

  • Adults can identify both positive and negative emotions equally well

  • Adults find it easy to identify baby’s positive emotions from facial expressions

  • Babies communicate their feelings through their facial expressions

  • Emotional expressions become easier to identify as children get older

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

Expression of self-evaluative emotions requires:

Select one of the following:

  • Self recognition

  • An understanding of the rules or standards for evaluating one’s conducts

  • An understanding of the rules or standards for evaluating one’s conducts AND self recognition

  • Acquisition of all five basic emotions

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

Emotional display rules:

Select one of the following:

  • Are culturally defined

  • Emerge around 2 years of age

  • Are a set of emotions present at birth

  • Only apply to self-conscious emotions

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

Activity level, irritability/negative emotionality, attention span, fearfulness and sociability
(or positive affect) have been identified as important components of:

Select one of the following:

  • Emotional regulation

  • Temperament

  • Social referencing

  • Emotional competence

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

‘Goodness of fit’ is the term used to describe:

Select one of the following:

  • The notion that a child’s development is likely to be optimized when a parent’s
    child rearing practices match the child’s temperament

  • A slow to warm up temperament, where a child may be slow to adapt to new
    people or situations

  • An easy temperament, where a child is easy going and typically in a positive
    mood

  • A tendency to withdraw from unfamiliar people or situations

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

If a child displays tendencies to prefer same-sex activities over those typically linked with
the opposite sex, the child is displaying

Select one of the following:

  • gender identity

  • gender-role stereotypes

  • gender-typed patterns of behaviour

  • None of the answers provided

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

Which of the following is an example of identity diffusion:

Select one of the following:

  • ‘I’ve not really thought much about my career, I don’t know exactly what I want
    to do’

  • ‘My parents are teachers and so I’ll be a teacher’

  • ‘I’m trying to decide if I should pursue a degree in law or psychology next year

  • 'I have finally found the right job for me’

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

Which of the following is not one of the four factors thought to influence an adolescents
identity formation:

Select one of the following:

  • Cognitive development

  • Schooling

  • Emotional development

  • Relationship with parents

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

According to Parten’s play typology, a group of children engaging in a game of tag is an
example of:

Select one of the following:

  • Onlooker play

  • Cooperative play

  • Associative play

  • Parallel play

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

Pursuant to Grusec and Lytton’s play typology, a child digging a hole in a sandpit is an
example of:

Select one of the following:

  • pretend play

  • functional play

  • solitary play

  • unoccupied play

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

Cognitive Development may best be defined as:

Select one of the following:

  • The changes that take place in cognitive processes from birth until the beginning of
    adulthood

  • The changes that take place in cognitive processes over the lifespan

  • The changes in ways of thinking in a society over time

  • None of the answers provided

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

Which of the following is not one of the assumptions of Piaget’s theory of Cognitive
development:

Select one of the following:

  • All stages are universal in that they describe the pattern of development in all
    children

  • The framework is domain-general

  • All children pass through the stages in the same order and no stage can be skipped

  • None of the answers provided

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

The process of incorporating a new experience into an existing scheme is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Assimilation

  • Adaption

  • Preoperational thought

  • Accommodation

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

During what age period does Object Permanence typically emerge in children?

Select one of the following:

  • Birth – 1 month

  • 1 – 4 months

  • 4 – 7 months

  • 8 – 12 months

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

Children in the Preoperational Period of cognitive development would have difficulty
understanding

Select one of the following:

  • Causality

  • The point of view of others

  • Object permanence

  • None of the answers provided

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

According to Dodge’s social information processing theory of aggression, after a child
encodes social cues, the next step they engage in is:

Select one of the following:

  • interpret the social cues

  • respond without adequate thought about the consequences.

  • formulate social goals

  • consider strategies to deal with the social situation.

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

According to the social learning approach to aggression, children may behave aggressively
because:

Select one of the following:

  • it is an inherent component of their personality

  • aggression acts as a release of stress hormone, cortisol.

  • of their environmental conditions.

  • of social frustration.

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

Children’s aggression is likely to be exacerbated by parental conflict when:

Select one of the following:

  • the child is exposed to the conflict on numerous occasions

  • the conflict is intensive and high stress.

  • parents withdraw and become emotionally unavailable.

  • all of the above are likely to exacerbate aggression.

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

According to Piaget’s theory of moral development, a child who sees the rules of authority
figures as sacred and unalterable is likely to be in the:

Select one of the following:

  • premoral period

  • ‘Good boy’ or ‘good girl’ orientation

  • social-order maintaining morality

  • heteronomous morality

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

The Heinz dilemma is posed to a child who responds as follows:
‘Well, stealing is wrong, but you need to consider the whole situation. Heinz knows that
there is no legal grounds for him to steal the drug. But he’s in a very difficult situation and
anybody in that situation would think it was reasonable to steal the drug”
According to Kohlberg’s levels and stages, what is the most appropriate classification
of this response?

Select one of the following:

  • Level 3, post-conventional morality, stage 5.

  • Level 1, pre-conventional morality, stage 2

  • Level 2, conventional morality, stage 3.

  • Level 2, conventional morality, stage 4

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

What are the main symptoms of autism?

Select one of the following:

  • Hyperactivity, and impaired social interaction

  • Low energy and impaired communication

  • Impaired social communication and interaction, and restricted interests

  • All answers provided

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

The recent revision of the DSM and consequent changes to the diagnostic criteria for
Autism spectrum disorders caused some problems including:

Select one of the following:

  • increasing the sensitivity of the assessment so that individuals who may not
    previously have been diagnosed with ASD now may be.

  • improving the specificity but reducing the sensitivity of the assessment so higher
    functioning individuals may not receive the diagnosis.

  • limiting the applicability of the diagnosis to females.

  • limiting the cultural sensitivity of the assessment.

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

The theory that attempts to explain autism in terms of an inability to understand another’s
knowledge and beliefs is

Select one of the following:

  • The theory of mind

  • The theory of poor executive functioning

  • The weak central coherence hypothesis

  • The mirror neuron theory

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

The three subtypes of ADHD are:

Select one of the following:

  • hyperactive, impulsive, and inattentive.

  • early onset, late onset and mixed onset.

  • onset before 12 years, 12-16, or over 17 years old.

  • predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

Currently, the most effective form of treatment for ADHD is:

Select one of the following:

  • stimulants such as Ritalin

  • psychological treatments such as CBT

  • neuro-biological treatments such as ECT

  • stimulants such as Ritalin AND psychological treatments such as CBT

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

Which of the following is not a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

Select one of the following:

  • Psychosis

  • Hallucations

  • Delusions

  • Reduced emotions

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

Select one of the following:

  • Poverty of speech

  • Disorganized speech and thought

  • Hallucinations

  • Delusions

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

In terms of the prevalence and onset of schizophrenia, which of the following statements is
true:

Select one of the following:

  • Schizophrenia tends to develop in early adulthood, with the average age of onset 18
    years old in men, and 25 years old in women.

  • Schizophrenia typically begins in childhood but is usually left undiagnosed until later
    in life.

  • On most occasions, schizophrenia emerges in middle adulthood, the average age of
    onset (for both sexes) is 42 years.

  • Schizophrenia tends to develop in early adulthood, with the average age of onset 18
    years old in women, and 25 years old in men.

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

Current prevalence estimates of anorexia are that, at some point during the lifespan,

Select one of the following:

  • Approximately 15% of women will experience the condition

  • Approximately 1% of women will experience the condition

  • Approximately 10% of women will experience the condition

  • Approximately 5% of women will experience the condition

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

The most important/influential risk factor for developing an eating disorder is:

Select one of the following:

  • Exposure to body-typed images in the media.

  • Genetics

  • Personality

  • A history of dieting

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

Which of the following is not an example of a survival reflex that is present at birth?

Select one of the following:

  • Closing both eyes when a puff of air reaches the eye

  • Turning head towards touch and opening mouth when stroked on the cheek

  • The ‘pincer grasp’ to grip things placed in hand

  • Arching back and extending arms when a sudden loud sound is heard.

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

Evidence on sex difference in infant motor development:

Select one of the following:

  • suggests that boys tend to reach motor development milestones slightly earlier
    than girls.

  • suggests that Boys tend to excel at gross motor movement while girls excel at fine
    motor movement.

  • suggests that there is no difference in the development or use of motor skills by
    male and female infants

  • is inconsistent and inconclusive.

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

Symptoms of dyspraxia include:

Select one of the following:

  • significant delay in reaching motor milestones

  • problems concentrating

  • delays or ‘slowness’ of speech.

  • All answers provided

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

Twelve year old Carmen is determined to beat her personal best time for 50metres
freestyle in the swimming. This is an example of:

Select one of the following:

  • achievement motivation.

  • sporting prowess

  • the benefits of sport

  • healthy competitiveness

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

We would expect a child to walk unassisted at approximately

Select one of the following:

  • 6 months old

  • 12 months old

  • 18 months old

  • 24 months old.

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

The meaning of words and utterances is termed

Select one of the following:

  • Semantics

  • Morphemes

  • Pragmatics

  • Syntax

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

The smallest unit of meaning in a language is a ________.

Select one of the following:

  • Morpheme

  • Inflection

  • Letter

  • Phoneme

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

Which theorist proposed the 'language acquisition device' (LAD)?

Select one of the following:

  • Lenneberg

  • Noam Chomsky

  • B.F Skinner

  • None of the answers provided

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

Infants first use gestures as a form of communication at what age?

Select one of the following:

  • 8 to 10 months

  • 12 months

  • 12 to 18 months

  • 6 months

Explanation

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