Select all that apply. Which of the following are β-lactamase penicillins?
Ampicillin
Ticarcillin
Methicillin
Piperacillin
Nafcillin
Amoxicillin
What does PBP1A bind to?
Transpeptidase
Carboxypeptidase
Endopeptidase
Penicillin G is stable in gastric acid.
Which of the following penicillins have rapid elimination times less than or equal to 90 minutes?
Penicillin G
All of the above
One RARE side effect of Penicillin G K+ is .
Select all that apply. The mechanism of action for penicillins are:
concentration dependent bactericidal action
time dependent bactericidal action
works best against rapidly dividing bacteria
works best against slowly dividing bacteria
inhibits transpeptidase activity of PBP3
Which of the following cause neutropenia?
Penicillin V
Amoxicillin-Clavulanic Acid Combo
Vancomycin
A, B, and D
A and C
B, C, and E
Which of the following is the correct mechanism for how Polymyxins act as antibiotics?
Binds to ribosome 30s to prohibit protein synthesis
Disrupts the integrity of the baceterial cell wall by displacing calcium and magnesium
Inhibits the cross-linkages between the peptidoglycan polymer strands
Disrupts the integrity of the cell membrane by displacing calcium and magnesium
Which bacteria are susceptible to enzyme inactivation by beta lactamases?
Cephalosporins
Macrolides
Metronidazole
Tetracyclines
Penicillins are narrow spectrum drugs
Select all of the bactericidal antibiotics.
Penicillin
Tetracycline
Cephalexin
Aminoglycosides
Clindamycin
Which of the following is NOT a concern of antibiotic (antibacterial specifcially) use?
Stevens Johnsons
Superinfection
Teratology
Increased effects of oral contraceptives
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Penicillin G/Penicillin V
Used for mixed aerobic-anaerobic infections
Used against gram positive and gram negative bacteria
One of these two can be used for treatment of Rheumatic fever
These are all correct
Which of the following is not an antistaphylococcal penicillin?
These are all antistaphylococcal penicillins
Penicillins work by inhibiting with enzyme?
Integrase
Peptidyl transferase
Transcriptase
Penicillin V is administered by IV only
Which of the following is NOT a possible adverse effect from penicillins?
Allergy
Phlebitis
Fungal overgrowth
Hemolytic anemia
Which of the following is true regarding aminopenicillins?
Resistant to beta lactamases
Narrow spectrum
Ampicillin has less side effects than amoxicillin
Effective against gonorrhea and meningitis
Select the following that are ineffective against beta lactamases:
Dicloxacillin
Which of the following best represents first generation cephalosporins?
Includes Cefotaxime and Ceftriaxone
Used for UTI (urinary tract infections) and soft tissue abscesses
Effective against Klebsiella and H influenza
Used for treatment of community-acquired pneumonia
Which of the following best describes the second generation of cephalosporins?
Drug of choice for surgical prophylaxis
Used to treat meningitis
Includes the drug Cefuroxime
Includes the drug Cefepime
Protein synthesis inhibitors are considered narrow spectrum antibiotics
Tetracyclines are broad spectrum antibiotics
Which of the following best matches the mechanism of tetracyclines?
Inhibition of beta 1-3 glycan of bacterial cell wall, preventing cross linkages
Becomes mechanically reduced to toxic metabolite, interacting with DNA
Binds to 50s subunit, preventing binding of tRNA to mRNA
Binds to 30s subunit, preventing binding of tRNA to mRNA
Which of the following are targeted by tetracyclines?
Rickettsia
MRSA infections
P. vivax malaria
All are targeted by tetracyclines
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding macrolides?
Broad spectrum
Used as an alternative for patients allergic to penicillins
Can be bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal, depending on dose (concentration)
Kills gram positive and gram negative bacteria
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Chloramphenicol?
It is bacteriostatic
Binds to 50s ribosome
Can be used to treat typhoid fever
Can be used for Neisseria gonorrhea
Chloramphenicol can cause gray baby syndrome.
Which of the following is NOT a use for Clindamycin?
Pseudomembranous colitis
Anthrax
Toxic shock syndrome
Odontogenic infection
Which of the following is NOT a concern for use of Clindamycin?
Neuromuscular block
Skin rashes
Fulminant hepatic necrosis
What is the clinical use of sulfonamides?
Skin infections
UTI (urinary tract infections)
Alternative for patients allergic to penicillins
Sulfonamide is a structural analog of DFHR
Sulfonamides can cause which of the following adverse effects?
Photosensitivity
Neutropenia
Seizures
Clotrimazole can be used for UTI (urinary tract infections)
How do fluoroquinolones kill bacteria?
They bind to topoisomerase-DNA complexes and form an inactive complex
They bind to bacterial ribosomes 30s
They inhibit transpeptidases
They compromise the integrity of the bacterial cell membrane
Which of the following can cause Red Man Syndrome?
Erythromycin
Sulfamethoxazole
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of drugs such as gentamicin, tobramycin, and amikacin?
nephrotoxicity
vestibular toxicity
tooth discoloration
cochlear toxicity
Which of the following cannot be used to treatment of MRSA?
Linezolid
Streptogramins
MRSA is resistant to ALL penicillins and cephalosporins
Which of the following does NOT increase risk of nephrotoxicity?
Amphoterecin B
Cisplatin
Nystatin is not related to Amphoterecin B and can therefore be used systemically.
What type of fungal infection does nystatin treat?
Cryptococcal meningitis
Candida infections
Histoplasmosis
Asperillosis
Choose all of the trizoles.
Ketoconazole
Itraconazole
Fluconazole
Voriconazole
Miconazole
Clotrimazole.
What is the correct mechanism of azoles?
Disrupts microtubule function and inhibits dermatophyte growth
Binds to membrane Ergosterol
Inhibits viral DNA polymerase
Inhibits the lanosterol 14 alpha enzyme, preventing the conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol and disrupts the struction of fungal membrane
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Azoles
Steven Johnson
Increased levels of warfarin
Decreased fluconazole levels with isoniazid
Nephrotoxicity
Which of the following antifungals are used to disrupt microtubule (spindle) function?
Terbinafine
Griseofulvin
Echinocandins
Which of the following antifungals is used for onychomychosis and tinea?
Which antiviral drug prevents formation of DNA chain by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis?
Acyclovir
Ganciclovir
Raltegravir
Retrovir
Ganciclovir causes myelosuppression
What is the therapeutic use for Penicillin?
Drug of choice for streptococci, pneumococcal, and staphylococcal infections
Treat infections due to bacteria that have developed resistance to earlier generations of cephalosporins
Treatment of a broad range of gram positive and gram negative organisms
Treatment of patients who are unable to tolerate penicillins
What is the pharmacological class for Penicillin G?
Aminoglycoside, protein synthesis inhibitor
Fluroquinolone, bacterial DNA synthesis inhibitor
Natural penicillin, cell wall inhibitor, beta lactam
Mycolic acid inhibitor
What is the pharmacological class of Cefotaxime?
Beta lactam antibiotic, cell wall inhibitor
Tetracycline, protein synthesis inhibitor
Macrolide, protein synthesis inhibitor
Mechanism of action for Cefotaxime?
Inhibits cell wall synthesis
Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis and prevents replication
Inhibits synthesis of mycolic acid
Tetracycline mechanism of action?
Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis and prevents cell replication
Inhibits bacterial gyrase
What is the pharmacologic class for erythromycin?
Beta lactam antibiotic
What is the mechanism of action for erythromycin?
Inhibits protein synthesis
Binds to peptidoglycan
What is the pharmacologic class for gentamicin?
Fluoroquinolone
Sulfonamide, folic acid inhibitor
What is the mechanism of action for Gentamicin?
Inhibits bacterial metabolism of folic acid
Inhibits protein synthesis, disrupting cell membrane and killing bacteria
Inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids
Inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase, interfering with bacterial replication and DNA error
Which of the following drugs would be used as treatment of UTI, GI, STDs, soft tissue, bone and joint infections?
Trimetoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Ciprofloxacin
Isoniazid
Gentamicin
What is the pharmacological class and mechanism of action for ciprofloxacin?
Fluoroquinolone, inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase
Mycolic acid inhibitor, inhibits mycolic acid
Aminoglycoside, inhibits protein synthesis
Sulfonamide, inhibits bacteiran metabolism of folic acid
Which drug would be used as a treatment for urinary tract infections, nocardiosis infections, and toxoplasmosis?
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
What is the mechanism of action and pharmacological class for trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole?
fluroquinolone, inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase
sulfonamide, inhibits bacterial metabolism of folic acid
aminoglycoside, inhibits protein synthesis, disrupts membrane, kills bacteria
Which of the following drugs is a broad spectrum treatment of a wide range of helminth infections?
Mebendazole
Amphotericin B
Cloroquine
What is the mechanism of action for Mebendazole?
Concentrates in food vacuoles of plasmodium residing in red blood cells
Inhibits microtubule formation and glucose uptake
Binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes and causes them to leak
Interferes with ergosterol synthesis
What is the therapeutic class for Amphotericin B?
Antihelminth
Antifungal
Antifungal (systemic)
Antimalarial
Which of the following drugs is the treatment of most fungi pathogenic to humans, the preferred drug for most systemic mycoses?
Select all the following drugs that are polyenes.
Echinocandin
Nystatin
What is the therapeutic class for the drug Fluconazole?
Antibacterial
Antiviral