Phil Oklam
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Phil Oklam
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CMB2001 Quiz

CMB2001 Quiz

Question 1 of 41

1

Where is the TATA box?

Select one of the following:

  • -31 to -26

  • -32 to -37

  • -2 to +4

  • +28 to +32

Explanation

Question 2 of 41

1

Where is Inr?

Select one of the following:

  • -2 to +4

  • -37 to -32

  • -31 to -26

  • +28 to +32

Explanation

Question 3 of 41

1

Where is DPE?

Select one of the following:

  • +28 to +32

  • -2 to +4

  • -37 to -32

  • -31 to -26

Explanation

Question 4 of 41

1

Where is BRE?

Select one of the following:

  • -37 to -32

  • -31 to -26

  • -2 to +4

  • +28 to +32

Explanation

Question 5 of 41

1

Which are true of CpG Islands?

Select one or more of the following:

  • rich in CG sequences

  • TXN occurs at a lower rate and at several start sites

  • C residues escape methylation

  • Methylation is associated with silencing of the gene

  • Extensively phosphorylated at CTD

  • Form a complex on TATA box to recruit RNA Pol II to the promoter

Explanation

Question 6 of 41

1

Which of the following are associated with RNA Pol II?

Select one or more of the following:

  • tRNA

  • snRNA

  • mRNA

  • miRNA

  • rRNA

Explanation

Question 7 of 41

1

Which RNA Polymerase is found in the nucleolus?

Select one of the following:

  • RNA Pol I

  • RNA Pol II

  • RNA Pol III

Explanation

Question 8 of 41

1

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the formation of PIC?

Select one of the following:

  • DABPolFEH

  • DBAPolFEH

  • DABPolEFH

  • DAPolEBFH

Explanation

Question 9 of 41

1

Which GTF interacts with RNA Pol II during formation of PIC?

Select one of the following:

  • TFIIB

  • TFIID

  • TFIIA

  • TFIIE

  • TFIIH

  • TFIIF

Explanation

Question 10 of 41

1

What happens to RNA Pol II as it transcribes along RNA?

Select one of the following:

  • Phosphorylated at CTD

  • Methylated at CTD

  • Acetylated at CTD

  • Phosphorylated at N terminal tail

  • Acetylatetd at N terminal tail

Explanation

Question 11 of 41

1

Which of the following are true of TFIIH?

Select one or more of the following:

  • It binds over Inr

  • It binds over TATA

  • It requires ATP to separate template strand

  • It requires NAD to separate template strand

  • It is released as RNA Pol II moves

  • It stays bound as RNA Pol II moves

  • Its CAK subunit contains kinase for phosphorylation

  • Its Core subunit contains kinase for phosphorylation

  • It contains helicases XPB and XPD

  • It contains helicases XPC and XPB

Explanation

Question 12 of 41

1

Which of the following is a trilobular structure containing TBP and TAFs?

Select one of the following:

  • TFIID

  • TFIIH

  • TFIIE

  • TFIIA

  • TFIIB

  • RNA Pol II

Explanation

Question 13 of 41

1

TBP directs assembly of PIC on the TATA complex and only requires TAFs to do so in a TATA-less promoter

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 14 of 41

1

Which of the following are UAS common sequence elements?

Select one or more of the following:

  • GC box

  • Octamer

  • CAAT box

  • HSE

  • SRE

  • BRE

  • DPE

Explanation

Question 15 of 41

1

What are leucine zippers, zinc fingers, homeodomains and helix loop helixes all examples of?

Select one or more of the following:

  • DNA binding domains

  • Activation domains

  • Enhancer elements

  • GTFs

Explanation

Question 16 of 41

1

Which of the following are true of Activation domains in activators?

Select one or more of the following:

  • They have a lack of sequence conservation

  • They are generally unstructured

  • They contain multiple short segments working together in an additive fashion

  • They can be gln rich, proline rich or acidic patches

Explanation

Question 17 of 41

1

How do activators work?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Promote binding of other activators

  • Stimulate complex assembly (Recruitment)

  • Release stalled RNA Pol II

  • Modulation of chromatin

Explanation

Question 18 of 41

1

Which of the following are true of Mediator?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 22 polypeptide complex

  • Comprised of a head, middle and tail

  • Associates with RNA Pol through CTD

  • Enhances PIC formation

  • Forms a bridge between RNA Pol II and activators

Explanation

Question 19 of 41

1

Which of the following is not a core histone?

Select one of the following:

  • H1

  • H3

  • H4

  • H2A

  • H2B

Explanation

Question 20 of 41

1

N terminal tails of histones are highly acidic

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 21 of 41

1

What do nucleosomes consists of?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 2 x H2A-H2B dimers

  • H2A-H2B tetramer

  • H1 linker histones

  • H3-H4 tetramer

  • 2 x H3-H4 dimers

  • 147 bp DNA wrapped around the octamer

  • 471 bp DNA wrapped around the octamer

Explanation

Question 22 of 41

1

Mitotic chromosomes are condensed, interphase chromosomes occupy a distinct territory in the nucleus and are decondensed to about 100-400nm fibres

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 23 of 41

1

Which of the following switches off the Gal4 promoter?

Select one of the following:

  • Galactose

  • Glucose

Explanation

Question 24 of 41

1

Which of the following are methods of remodelling chromatin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Histone variants

  • ATP dependent chromatin remodelling

  • Post translational modifications

Explanation

Question 25 of 41

1

Which histone does not express variants?

Select one of the following:

  • H4

  • H3

  • H1

  • H2A

  • H2B

Explanation

Question 26 of 41

1

Where do post translational modifications of histones occur?

Select one of the following:

  • N-terminal tail

  • Histone variants

  • C Terminal domain

  • DPD

  • TBP

Explanation

Question 27 of 41

1

The GNAT and MYST family are which enzymes?

Select one of the following:

  • HATs

  • HDACs

  • HKMTs

  • SWI/SNF ATPase

Explanation

Question 28 of 41

1

Histone methylation is readily reversible and has no affect on charge

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 29 of 41

1

Specific methylated lysines are recognised by specific proteins, which of the following are markers for repression?

Select one or more of the following:

  • H3 Lys 9

  • H3 Lys 27

  • H3 Lys 4

  • H3 Lys 36

Explanation

Question 30 of 41

1

Which of the following are SWI2/SNF2 ATPase subfamilies?

Select one or more of the following:

  • SWI2/SNF2

  • ISWI

  • CHD/Mi2

  • Ino80

Explanation

Question 31 of 41

1

What is the deletion of SWI/SNF associated with?

Select one of the following:

  • Tumours

  • Tumour suppression

Explanation

Question 32 of 41

1

Which class of HDACs is not zinc dependent?

Select one of the following:

  • Class III

  • Class I

  • Class II

  • Class IV

Explanation

Question 33 of 41

1

Regions of DNA that are hypoacetylated by HDACs are what?

Select one of the following:

  • Repressed

  • Activated

Explanation

Question 34 of 41

1

Which of the following is an example of an ATP dependent remodeller that commonly mediates repression?

Select one of the following:

  • NuRD

  • SWI/SNF

  • Ume3

  • Rpd3

  • Sin3

  • HP1

Explanation

Question 35 of 41

1

What is the name of the enzyme that methylates H3K9?

Select one of the following:

  • Suvar39

  • HP1

  • NuRD

  • Sin3

  • Ume6

Explanation

Question 36 of 41

1

Is Tsix or Xist on the antisense strand of DNA?

Select one of the following:

  • Tsix

  • Xist

Explanation

Question 37 of 41

1

What is the Role of NF-KB family of transcription factors?

Select one of the following:

  • Regulating inflammation, DNA damage, cell death, cell adhesion and proliferation.

  • The guardian of the genome.

Explanation

Question 38 of 41

1

NF-KB is pre-synthesised and retained within the cytoplasm in an active form bound to inhibitor protein IxB

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 39 of 41

1

Cellular > IkB phosphorylated > ubiquitination by E3 Ubiquitin ligase > degradation by 26S proteasome > NF-kB free to translocate to the nucleus.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    stimulation
    degradation

Explanation

Question 40 of 41

1

In diseased cells NF-kB control is lost (aberrantly nuclear)

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 41 of 41

1

Which of the following do all members of the mammalian NF-KB family contain?

Select one of the following:

  • Rel homology domains

  • Leucine zipper like domain

  • Non conserved transcription activation domains

  • PEST domains

  • ankyrin repeat motifs

Explanation

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