Michael Marcus
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Final Test quiz

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Michael Marcus
Created by Michael Marcus over 8 years ago
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Quiz 7 & 8

Question 1 of 32

1

where can you view audit events?

Select one of the following:

  • in the C:\Temp\Logs folder as text files

  • in System logs in Events Viewer

  • in Security logs in Event Viewer

  • by using audit/logs at the command line

Explanation

Question 2 of 32

1

Auditing is used for what purpose?

Select one of the following:

  • authenticating users

  • authorizing users

  • recording user's actions

  • assessing a user's permissions

Explanation

Question 3 of 32

1

why would auditing include logon and logoff times?

Select one of the following:

  • these are simply default audit types for accounts

  • logon and logoff times can help track user's work hours

  • logon and logoff times can help pinpoint who was logged on during a failure

  • logon and logoff events can track system usage for capacity planning

Explanation

Question 4 of 32

1

why is it a good idea (other that the effect on system performance) to set up auditing for only those objects that you really need to focus on?

Select one of the following:

  • object auditing is complex and requires a lot of time to set up

  • searching through too many events makes finding problems more difficult

  • by enabling objects auditing, you also enable many other events

  • auditing too many events adds an extra layer of complexity to management tasks

Explanation

Question 5 of 32

1

why is choosing what to audit, instead of auditing everything that a user does, a good idea?

Select one of the following:

  • high level of auditing can affect system preformance

  • auditing sets up an air of suspicion for users

  • extensive audit trails often lead to too much troubleshooting

  • auditing requires a high level of expertise to set up and maintain

Explanation

Question 6 of 32

1

which utility do you use to access advance audit policy settings?

Select one of the following:

  • Local Policy Editor

  • Group Policy Editor

  • Domain Policy Editor

  • Schema Policy Editor

Explanation

Question 7 of 32

1

what is one of the primary advantages to using Active Directory to store DNS information?

Select one of the following:

  • fault tolerance

  • zero configuration

  • low maintenance

  • reverse zone lookups

Explanation

Question 8 of 32

1

which type of DNS zone resolves host names to IP addresses?

Select one of the following:

  • forward lookup zone

  • reverse lookup zone

  • backward lookup zone

  • null lookup zone

Explanation

Question 9 of 32

1

when resetting audit settings back to basic mode, what file must you remove as part of the process?

Select one of the following:

  • policies.txt

  • audit.txt

  • policies.csv

  • audit.csv

Explanation

Question 10 of 32

1

which TCP/UDP port does the DNS service use to communicate?

Select one of the following:

  • 25

  • 53

  • 80

  • 443

Explanation

Question 11 of 32

1

what is the first and most important step in installing and deploying DNS in your network?

Select one of the following:

  • setting up Active Directory so that DNS can be integrated into it

  • planning the infrastructure and service requirements

  • configuring the forward and reverse lookup zones correctly

  • splitting the network into subdomains

Explanation

Question 12 of 32

1

which one of the following is an example of an FQDN?

Select one of the following:

  • SERVER1

  • 192.168.1.50

  • sales.microsoft.com

  • C:\WINDOWS\SYSTEM32\DRIVERS\ETC\HOSTS

Explanation

Question 13 of 32

1

what is the primary advantage of a caching-only DNS server?

Select one of the following:

  • it requires no maintenance

  • it provides DNS to a select few DNS clients

  • is speeds DNS queries by building a DNS request cache

  • it increases network traffic only on external networks

Explanation

Question 14 of 32

1

authorization is used for what purpose?

Select one of the following:

  • to grant access to a user

  • to verify a user's identity

  • to determine security restrictions

  • to calculate effective permissions

Explanation

Question 15 of 32

1

why are success audits as important as failure audits?

Select one of the following:

  • successes are important to troubleshooting for establishing baselines of normal behavior

  • successes are included by default and can be filtered out

  • successes can point to security breaches as well as normal behavior

  • successes allow you to track activity such as new account creation

Explanation

Question 16 of 32

1

authentication is used for what purpose?

Select one of the following:

  • to grant access to a user

  • to verify a user's identity

  • to determine security restrictions

  • to calculate effective permissions

Explanation

Question 17 of 32

1

why would you implement a caching-only DNS server on your network?

Select one of the following:

  • to speed DNS queries and decrease network traffic

  • to avoid installing and configuring a full-blown DNS server

  • to reduce the amount of maintenance for administrator

  • to reduce complexity in a network environment

Explanation

Question 18 of 32

1

what is the primary advantage of a caching-only DNS server?

Select one of the following:

  • it requires no maintenance

  • it provides DNS to a select few DNS clients

  • it speeds DNS queries by building a DNS request cache

  • it increases network traffic only on external networks

Explanation

Question 19 of 32

1

by using the Active Directory-integrated zone, DNS follows what kind of model?

Select one of the following:

  • master-slave

  • multi-master

  • primary-secondary

  • forward-reverse

Explanation

Question 20 of 32

1

what type of structure does DNS have?

Select one of the following:

  • hierarchical distributed

  • flat distributed

  • top-down distributed

  • wheel-spoke distributed

Explanation

Question 21 of 32

1

A specific, individual computer or other network device in a domain is known as what?

Select one of the following:

  • server

  • entity

  • top-level system

  • host

Explanation

Question 22 of 32

1

the Domain Name System (DNS) works much like a phone book to associate URLs (names) with what kinds of numbers?

Select one of the following:

  • ID numbers

  • World Wide Web number

  • domain addresses

  • IP addresses

Explanation

Question 23 of 32

1

which of the following is an example of a second-level domain?

Select one of the following:

  • blah.com

  • .net

  • server1

  • corporate.local

Explanation

Question 24 of 32

1

which of the following is an example of a top-level domain?

Select one of the following:

  • .local

  • .net

  • .business

  • microsoft.com

Explanation

Question 25 of 32

1

which auditing feature allows you to define computer-wide system access control lists for the file system or the registry?

Select one of the following:

  • Global Object Access Auditing

  • Filereg Auditing

  • Registry Trail Auditing

  • System Tracker Auditing snap-in

Explanation

Question 26 of 32

1

What type of audit event notifies you that an account failed to log on?

Select one of the following:

  • DS access

  • object access

  • privilege use

  • logon/logoff

Explanation

Question 27 of 32

1

Why should you avoid using basic audit policy settings and advanced audit policy settings together?

Select one of the following:

  • that amount of auditing will fill out event logs too quickly

  • the two audit setting ranges have too much redundancy or overlap between them

  • setting too many policies can put your system in an 'out of compliance" state

  • Audit policies might cause conflicts or erratic behavior.

Explanation

Question 28 of 32

1

By using what type of policy can you track, limit, or deny a user's ability to use removable storage devices such as USB drives in Windows Server 2012 R2?

Select one of the following:

  • USB Storage Access

  • Removable Storage Access

  • Removable Device Access

  • Storage Device Audit

Explanation

Question 29 of 32

1

Which command do you use to manage auditing at the command prompt?

Select one of the following:

  • Audit.exe

  • AdPolicy.exe

  • Auditpol.exe

  • Policy.exe

Explanation

Question 30 of 32

1

Before Windows 2008 R2, only nine basic audit settings existed. Windows Server 2012 introduces a total of how many audit subsettings?

Select one of the following:

  • 23

  • 53

  • 56

  • 64

Explanation

Question 31 of 32

1

What does the acronym FQDN stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • File Quota Domain Number

  • Fully Qualified Domain Number

  • Fully Qualified Domain Name

  • Full Query Domain Name

Explanation

Question 32 of 32

1

A stub zone is a zone copy that contains only what type of records?

Select one of the following:

  • host entries

  • subdomain entries

  • necessary resource entries

  • query record entries

Explanation

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