Mary Roth
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North Idaho College A&P 227 Exam 6 Practice Test

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Mary Roth
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A&P 227 Exam 6

Question 1 of 200

1

_______________ autonomic axons exit the CNS at the thoracic level

Select one of the following:

  • all

  • Vagus

  • All reflex

  • Sympathetic

  • Rest/digest

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • the arachnoid is the strongest of the meningeal layers

  • the subarachnoid space drains into the 4th ventricle

  • arachnoid villi return CSF to the blood

  • the epidural space is found above the brain

  • most of the CSF flows in the epidural space

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

Which is true about all preganglionic cell bodies from both ANS divisions?

Select one of the following:

  • are within the CNS

  • all possess epinephrine receptors

  • found in ganglia

  • found in the ventral root

  • found in the dorsal root ganglion

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

Which is true about CSF?

Select one of the following:

  • moves from the ventricles into the choroid plexus

  • flows from 3rd into lateral ventricle, then into the 4th

  • moves into the blood from the subarachnoid space

  • flows from capillaries into the arachnoid villi

  • it is produced by arachnoid villi

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

Thoraci-splanchnic nerves contain _____________

Select one of the following:

  • somatic postganglionic axons

  • parasympathetic preganglionic axons

  • parasympathetic postganglionic axon terminals

  • sympathetic preganglionic axons

  • sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic axons

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

Which is true about terminal ganglia?

Select one of the following:

  • they are the lumps we find in sympathetic nerves

  • close to sympathetic target organs

  • can be found at the distal end of cranial nerve X

  • located to the side of the spinal cord

  • found at the end of all splanchnic nerves

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

Choose the correct phase

Select one of the following:

  • the brain does not discriminate ANS pain well

  • the stomach is an example of sympathetic-only control

  • blood vessels are parasympathetic only organs

  • renal activity decreases when parasympathetic stimulation increases

  • flight/flight causes gastric blood vessel dilation

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

Which of the following release ACh?

Select one of the following:

  • parasympathetic postganglionic axons

  • all parasympathetic effectors

  • sympathetic postganglionic neurons and effectors

  • postganglionic dendrites

  • all preganglionic neurons plus parasympathetic effectors

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

Which is true about alpha receptors?

Select one of the following:

  • sometimes called nicotinic receptors

  • found on all sympathetic dendrites

  • found on sympathetic axonal endings

  • they are examples of a muscarinic receptor

  • usually stimulatory

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

Which is true about sympathetic circuits?

Select one of the following:

  • localized effects with a short duration

  • long lasting and widespread effects

  • short duration with widespread effects

  • most organs are controlled by sympathetic-only circuits

  • exhibit widespread effects if in pelvic splanchnic nerves

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase about muscarinic receptors?

Select one of the following:

  • they release muscarine or ACh

  • they are found on all postganglionic dendrites

  • mostly found on somatic effectors

  • would be found in reproductive organs

  • found only on parasympathetic postganglionic dendrites

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

Which is a sympathetic-only function?

Select one of the following:

  • heart rate control

  • gastric control

  • releasing an enzyme from the kidney

  • respiratory control

  • reproductive function

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

Which area would be considered the main ANS control center?

Select one of the following:

  • hypothalamus

  • medulla oblongata

  • spinal cord segments

  • thalamus

  • epithalamus

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • white ramus contains somatic axons

  • dorsal root contains preganglionic axons

  • ventral roots that serve lumbar sacral nerves contain vagus axons

  • ventral horn contains motor cell bodies

  • gray ramus contains preganglionic axons

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

What would happen if we cut cranial nerve ten?

Select one of the following:

  • all parasympathetic function would cease

  • heart rate would decrease if the person enters fight/flight

  • heart rate would immediately increase

  • there will be a problem with blood vessel control

  • we would lose sympathetic control to a large part of the body

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • spinal nerves split into dorsal and ventral roots after exiting the intervertebral foramina

  • ventral rami serve skin and muscles of the back

  • plexuses arise from the junction of a dorsal and ventral root

  • spinal nerves are branching networks formed by the junction of adjacent ventral rami

  • ventral rami contain more axons than dorsal rami

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • filum terminale is the cone shaped tip of the spinal cord

  • conus medularis is a modification of the pia mater

  • filum terminale is a C.T. extension of the dura mater

  • conus medularis does not extend to the top of the sacrum

  • cauda equina anchor the spinal cord in position

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

What would the brain perceive if 5 mV was applied to a thermo receptor?

Select one of the following:

  • an IPSP

  • heat

  • an electrical shock somewhere in the body

  • pain

  • nothing

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase?

Select one of the following:

  • the surface of an axon is wrapped with endomysium

  • epineurium wraps an entire tract

  • perineurium wraps an entire nerve

  • endoneurium directly touches neurofibrils

  • endoneurium is found in splanchnic nerves

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

Which terms belong with each other?

Select one of the following:

  • efferent - ascending - sensory

  • afferent - dorsal root - sensory

  • efferent - motor - dorsal root

  • ascending - sensory - efferent

  • descending - dorsal root - efferent

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • dorsal root ganglia contain postganglionic cell bodies

  • all ganglia belong to one of the ANS branches

  • terminal ganglia are associated with efferent pathways

  • paravertebral ganglia are associated with rest/digest functions

  • prevertebral and terminal ganglia are both sympathetic

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

Which is a free sensory ending?

Select one of the following:

  • proprioceptors

  • itch receptor

  • Meisner corpuscle

  • Pascinian corpuscle

  • muscle spindle

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • perceptual detection is the highest stage of sensory processing

  • transduction occurs at the receptor level

  • generator potentials are at least 30 mV

  • receptor potentials are all-or-none

  • processing at receptor level is higher than processing at circuit level

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

What would happen if we apply muscarine to the ANS?

Select one of the following:

  • all postganglionic neurons would release neurotransmitter

  • all sympathetic effects will be stimulated

  • the intestines will experience increased activity

  • presynaptic neurons will be prevented from firing

  • postganglionic neurons will be inhibited

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

Which is the highest level of sensory processing?

Select one of the following:

  • perceptual processing

  • understanding the location of a stimulus

  • knowing the strength of a stimulus

  • being able to distinguish between submodes

  • transduction

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

Which reflex is ipsilateral and contralateral?

Select one of the following:

  • stretch

  • deep tendon

  • crossed extensor

  • flexor

  • ANS

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

Choose the correct phase

Select one of the following:

  • specific ascending pathways relay body position information

  • perceptual detection occurs in the diencephalon

  • all ascending pathways terminate in the frontal cortex

  • fixed action patterns are physical circuitry in the spinal cord

  • spinothalamic tracts are sensory

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

We discussed the magnitude estimation in relation to

Select one of the following:

  • feature abstraction

  • perceptual level processing

  • quality discrimination

  • transduction

  • magnitude estimation

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

The tenth cranial nerve contributes to all of the following plexuses except

Select one of the following:

  • aortic

  • esophageal

  • pulmonary

  • intestinal

  • it does not contribute to any of these plexuses

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • CPGs are part of the autonomic nervous system

  • basal nuclei are always sensory

  • association circuits in the spinal cord are called specific descending pathways

  • CPGs are mostly found in the hypothalamus

  • determining texture requires feature abstraction

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

Interneuron (association) cell bodies of the spinal cord are found in

Select one of the following:

  • white matter of the spinal cord

  • dorsal root

  • posterior horn

  • ventral horn

  • ventral root

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

Which of the following would help us perceive the texture of marble?

Select one of the following:

  • pressure receptors

  • Golgi tendon organs

  • proprioceptors

  • photoreceptors

  • muscle spindles

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

What is meant by the phrase: antagonistic autonomic interactions?

Select one of the following:

  • organs receive innervation from both branches of the ANS

  • when one branch of the ANS increases an activity, the other decreases it

  • constant partial stimulation occurs, even at rest

  • vasomotor tone is in effect

  • sympathetic can override parasympathetic

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

Which is true of nervous tissue repair?

Select one of the following:

  • Wallerian degeneration would only occur in the CNS

  • tracts may repair but nerves do not

  • oligodendrocytes form the regrowth tunnel in the CNS

  • axon growth rate is 1-5 cm per day

  • distal damage is more likely to successfully repair than proximal

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

Choose the correct match

Select one of the following:

  • oculomotor - nerve II

  • trigeminal - nerve VI

  • trochlear - nerve VI

  • abducens - nerve XI

  • vestibulocochlear - nerve VIII

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

Which of the following is not considered an ANS effectors?

Select one of the following:

  • iris of the eye

  • smooth muscle

  • intestines

  • rectus abdominis

  • sweat glands

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

Choose the correct statement

Select one of the following:

  • somatic postganglionic axons are found in the dorsal root

  • sympathetic postganglionic axons are in thoracolumbar roots

  • all ganglia contain synapses

  • nicotinic receptors are on dendrites found in sympathetic ganglia

  • postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies are found in the brain stem

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

Choose the correct statement

Select one of the following:

  • the opthalmic branch of trochlear nerve serves the eyes

  • oculomotor serves only oblique eye muscles

  • accessory nerve controls speech and swallowing

  • trochlear nerve controls oblique eye muscles

  • none of these is true

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • all preganglionic dendrites possess cholinergic receptors

  • adrenergic receptors are found on postganglionic sympathetic neurons

  • muscarinic receptors are found on parasympathetic postganglionic dendrites

  • glands are autonomic effectors

  • sympathetic effectors all release norepinephrine

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

Which is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • the phrenic nerve is found in the brachial plexus

  • the sacral plexus contains the femoral nerve

  • the lumbar plexus contains the sciatic nerve

  • the "funny bone" is the ulna

  • the median nerve serves flexors

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

Choose the correct order of an autonomic reflex arc

Select one of the following:

  • receptor, stimulus, integration center, effector

  • sensory neuron, receptor, integration center, motor neuron, effector

  • receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, pre-ganglionic, postganglionic, effector

  • stimulus, receptor, cerebellum, motor neuron, effector

  • pre-ganglionic, postganglionic, stimulus, receptor, sensory neuron, integration center

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

Which of the following is the shortest?

Select one of the following:

  • sympathetic preganglionic axons

  • parasympathetic preganglionic axons

  • most sensory neurons

  • sympathetic postganglionic axons

  • parasympathetic postganglionic axons

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

Choose the correct statement

Select one of the following:

  • we are under parasympathetic dominance most of the time

  • thermoregulation is a parasympathetic-only function

  • parasympathetic can override sympathetic under most conditions

  • the heart is under sympathetic dominance most of the time

  • most of the ANS control comes from the cerebral cortex

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • sensation is defined as approximately 1% of the total stimuli

  • all motor neuron cell bodies are in the CNS

  • reducing blood glucose level is due to sympathetic activity

  • 100% of sensation normally reaches the sensory cortex

  • fight/flight activity causes decreased norepinephrine release

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

a muscle spindle would be classified as a

Select one of the following:

  • chemoreceptor

  • visceroceptor

  • pressoceptor

  • exteroceptor

  • nociceptor

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

Which is true of a muscle spindle?

Select one of the following:

  • they fire IPSPs when a muscle is stretched

  • they are a form of pressure receptor

  • send information to the cerebellum

  • they fire an action potential when the muscle is relaxed

  • considered to be the same as a golgi tendon organ

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

Which of the following is a complex receptor?

Select one of the following:

  • muscle spindle

  • joint kinesthetic receptor

  • the ear

  • photoreceptor

  • golgi tendon organ

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

Which of the following is stimulated by histamine?

Select one of the following:

  • itch receptor

  • Ruffini's corpuscle

  • Meisner corpuscle

  • Merkel disc

  • nociceptor

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • there are a total of 31 spinal nerves

  • capillaries in the blood/brain barrier have the thinnest basement membranes

  • gap junctions are found in blood/brain barrier capillaries

  • spinal cord columns are gray matter

  • spinocerebellar tracts inform the cerebellum of body position

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • hemiplegia can also be called a spinal cord transect

  • paraplegia always affects the lower limbs

  • a cord transection in the T5 region results in quadriplegia

  • paraplegia can affect either the upper or lower limbs

  • none of these is true

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

Which is true about water?

Select one of the following:

  • it is a compound but not a molecule

  • does not participate in chemical reactions

  • called cytoplasm if found intercellularly

  • none is true

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

Select the correct match

Select one of the following:

  • hallux - little finger

  • sural - calf

  • popliteal - elbow

  • crural - forehead

  • brachial - forearm

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

Choose the best statement

Select one of the following:

  • RNA is produced in the cytoplasm and used in the nucleus

  • damage to DNA in one liver cell will kill the liver

  • RNA is nice to have in a cell, but not necessary

  • RNA must not be damaged or the cell will die

  • damage to DNA is potentially deadly to a cell

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

Aldosterone is built from

Select one of the following:

  • an organic compound

  • glucose

  • phospholipid

  • triglyceride

  • amino acids

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

Which of the following is the location of the urinary bladder?

Select one of the following:

  • epigastric

  • lumbar

  • iliac

  • hypochondriac

  • hypogastric

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

Which of the following is true regarding membrane potential?

Select one of the following:

  • voltage is chemical kinetic energy

  • membrane potential is considered kinetic energy

  • membrane potential is a form of mechanical energy

  • membrane potential is an osmotic process

  • a semipermeable membrane is required for membrane potential

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • the brain is found in the ventral cavity

  • a reasonable name for the ventral cavity could be: inferior cavity

  • the thoracic cavity is interior to the abdominal cavity

  • the ventral cavity is superior to the dorsal cavity

  • the dorsal cavity is posterior to the ventral cavity

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • AB --> A + B is an example of an exergonic reaction

  • CD --> C + D is a synthesis reaction

  • A + B --> AB is a decomposition reaction

  • A+B+C+D --> AB + CD is an exchange reaction

  • an single enzyme catalyzes many different reaction types

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

Which is true about fats?

Select one of the following:

  • the term "polyunsaturated" means many double covalent bonds

  • saturated fat - contain no oxygen at all

  • triglycerides contain a fatty acid plus 3 glycerols

  • phospholipids are charged at the lipid end

  • neutral fat - contains only charged phospholipid

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • glucose is considered a compound and contains oxygen

  • an organelle is the smallest living structure in the body

  • enzymes are alive but antibodies are not

  • antibodies are considered living organic compounds

  • DNA is an inorganic compound

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • the cell membrane is typically impermeable to everything except opxygen

  • cell membranes are composed mostly of triglycerides and some cholesterol

  • cell membranes are constructed of phosphocholesterol

  • phosphotriglycerides are required to stabilize the membrane

  • plasma membrane pores are transmembrane proteins

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

Which of the following is correctly matched?

Select one of the following:

  • olecranal - hand

  • femoral - leg

  • acromial - point of the elbow

  • cubital - heel

  • pollex - thumb

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

Which is a structural protein?

Select one of the following:

  • elastin

  • antibody

  • enzyme

  • hormone

  • all are structural

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • osmosis requires ATP under some circumstances

  • high solute concentration results in high osmotic pressure

  • the Na/K pump is a form of facilitated diffusion

  • osmosis is the bulk transport of water

  • water wants to move away from solutes

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase about control mechanisms

Select one of the following:

  • maintaining a set point is characteristic of negative feedback

  • most normal control mechanisms are positive feedback

  • blood pressure is under positive feedback control

  • sweating when too cold is an example of negative feedback

  • homeostatic imbalance is usually a form of negative feedback

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

Choose the correct match

Select one of the following:

  • manus - hand

  • mental - forehead

  • fibular - part of the forearm

  • leg - antebrachium

  • caudal - another name for foot

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • cholesterol is required to convert an enzyme to fat

  • sucrase is an example of a carbohydrase

  • most lipids are inorganic

  • organic glucose is better for you than inorganic glucose

  • amino acids are inorganics that contain nitrogen

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

Choose the best statement

Select one of the following:

  • life processes require a fast rate of chemical reactions

  • people survive longer than normal without oxygen IF their body has been rapidly warmed

  • cold will increase the rate of diffusion

  • higher solute concentration means slower chemical rates

  • smaller particle size means slower chemical reaction rates

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • desmosomes can be found in the skin

  • tight junctions are found in the heart

  • microvilli are attached to the cell by tight junctions

  • desmosomes possess connexons

  • microvilli increase membrane potential

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • similar charges are attracted to each other

  • 6 electrons are being shared in a triple covalent bond

  • weight is always the same as mass

  • opposite charges repel each other

  • hydrogen bonds are stronger than ionic bonds

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase about membrane transport

Select one of the following:

  • increasing particle size will increase the reaction rate

  • active membrane transport is powered by ADP

  • enzymes are necessary for all forms of membrane transport

  • phagocytosis is a good example of an active process

  • called passive if the substance goes up its concentration gradient

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

Which is true when comparing a red blood cell to a solution?

Select one of the following:

  • a red blood cell in a hypertonic solution will gain net water

  • a red blood cell in a hypotonic solution will stay the same size

  • a red blood cell in a hypotonic solution will look like a raisin

  • a red blood cell in an isotonic solution will gain water

  • a red blood cell in a hypertonic solution will shrink

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • meninges are found in the dorsal cavity

  • parietal peritoneum is found covering an organ

  • parietal pleura lines the inside of the lungs

  • visceral pericardium covers the lung

  • pleural membranes are found on the heart

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

Which of the following planes could generate sections that contain tissue from BOTH kidneys?

Select one of the following:

  • parasagittal and transverse

  • midsagittal and frontal

  • frontal and transverse

  • parasagittal and frontal

  • frontal, sagittal, and transverse

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • a proton is an anion

  • chemical synthesis is an endergonic process

  • triglyceride contains one phosphate plus 2 fatty acids

  • bulk transport is an exergonic process

  • triglyceride could be called an anion

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

Choose the correct statement

Select one of the following:

  • peripheral proteins are involved in cell recognition

  • some integral proteins are involved in cell recognition

  • proteins "float" in the phospholipid bilayer

  • peripheral proteins are attached to the surface of the membrane

  • all of these are correct

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase about the standard anatomical position

Select one of the following:

  • palms face posteriorly

  • hands are on the midline

  • heels are pointed laterally

  • head is facing dorsally

  • the little finger is medial to the thumb

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • lipids contain much oxygen

  • monosaccharides are also called simple sugars

  • sucrose is an example of a polysaccharide

  • maltose is a sucrose monosaccharide

  • testosterone is a steroid enzyme

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • the frontal plane physically divides the body into equal right and left parts

  • a transverse plane physically divides the body into anterior and posterior parts

  • a parasagittal plane physically divides the heart into equal halves

  • a frontal plane could go through the nose

  • a microscope is used to view plane

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

Which of the following is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • right hypochondriac region is in the lower right quadrant

  • left iliac region is superior to left lumbar region

  • right lumbar region is lateral to umbilical region

  • epigastric region is inferior to the hypochondriac region

  • lumbar region is superior to hypochondriac region

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

Which of the following is an inorganic that contains nitrogen?

Select one of the following:

  • monosaccharide

  • water

  • protein

  • triglyceride

  • ammonia

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • the hand is medial to the thorax

  • the knees are inferior

  • the eyes are superior

  • the carpal is distal to the olecranal

  • the wrist is proximal to the elbow

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

Which is true about protein denaturation?

Select one of the following:

  • cold typically causes it

  • cooling the protein will reverse the denaturation

  • affects all levels of protein structure except primary

  • covalent bonds are always broken

  • a pH of 7.0 will probably cause denaturation

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

What do we fin in the dorsal body cavity?

Select one of the following:

  • stomach and intestines

  • lungs and heart

  • brain

  • spinal cord and trachea

  • all are true

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

Which is an example of a positive feedback mechanism?

Select one of the following:

  • sweating starts as body temperature rises

  • heart rate decreases when body activity level decreases

  • rising blood glucose causes increased insulin release

  • heart rate rises when exercise level increases

  • the air conditioner starts when the room becomes cold

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

Assume we have high osmotic pressure being measured in an experiment. Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • the membrane is permeable to water

  • osmotic pressure will rise if we cut a hole in the membrane

  • more water will move toward the dilute side

  • solutes are moving through the membrane

  • osmotic pressure will rise if we make the membrane fully permeable

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • exocytosis requires ATP

  • visceral membranes are a form of meninges

  • all cells have the same shape

  • high metabolism means slow rates of chemical reactions

  • synthesizing RNA is an exergonic process

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • RNA is a single stranded sequence of amino acids

  • hydrogen bonds form the primary structure of DNA

  • only covalent bonds are found in DNA

  • hydrogen bonds are found in tertiary protein structure

  • RNA is held together by H-bonds

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase about covalent bonds

Select one of the following:

  • they bond water molecules to each other

  • easily broken by heat and acid

  • can be found in the structure of RNA

  • created when one atom takes an electron from another

  • an example is the attraction between sodium and chloride ions

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

What do we know about the root term?

Select one of the following:

  • the substance is an enzyme

  • we use the term to describe phospholipids

  • the material is an enzyme built from lipid

  • it is used to describe each RNA strand

  • none is correct

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

Which is true about RNA?

Select one of the following:

  • contains adenine and guanine

  • contains special covalent bonds called peptide bonds

  • is more complex than DNA

  • contains thymine

  • RNA is produced in the cytoplasm

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

Dissolved sugar in water is an example of a

Select one of the following:

  • suspension

  • solution

  • colloid

  • osmosis

  • none is true

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • all organic molecules contain protons

  • the hydrogen nucleus contains 1 proton and 1 neutron

  • smaller atoms have smaller electrons

  • protons in lithium are larger than protons in sodium

  • all elements contain neutrons

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • bases are always organic

  • a hydrogen ion can also be called a proton

  • a base is a compound that accepts sodium ions

  • acids are always organic

  • a potassium donor can be called an acid

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

Which of the following is true about a person that studies membrane transport mechanisms?

Select one of the following:

  • they would be called a cellular anatomist

  • their field of study is cell physiology

  • we might consider them to be a gross anatomist

  • they would be a microscopic anatomist

  • none is true

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

When the term homeostatic inbalance is used it is likely that

Select one of the following:

  • there is a slight deviation from a set point

  • negative feedback is causing a disease state

  • positive feedback is usually present

  • the body is heading toward a set point

  • none is true

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

Which of the following is a correct match?

Select one of the following:

  • inferior - also called caudal

  • superior - away from the head

  • lateral - toward the midline of the body

  • intermediate - on the midline

  • proximal - father away from the body trunk

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

Which is true about hydrogen bonds?

Select one of the following:

  • connects nucleotides together in RNA

  • connects the carbons together with glucose

  • repels the hydrogen end of one water from the oxygen end of another water

  • links amino acids in primary protein structre

  • connect the two strands of a DNA molecule to each oer

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • small substances like oxygen require specific transmembrane pores

  • oxygen can move directly through a phospholipid bilayer

  • facilitated diffusion protein carriers require ATP

  • glucose moves by active diffusion

  • water moves easily though impermeable membranes

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

If a cell is hypotonic to a solution and it's membrane is permeable only to water

Select one of the following:

  • more water will leave the cell than enter it

  • solutes will move from the cell into the solution

  • solutes will move into the cell while water leaves the cell

  • solutes will move from the solution into the cell

  • more water will enter the cell than leave it

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

What is the best epithelial choice for the wall of a capillary?

Select one of the following:

  • simple squamous

  • simple cuboidal

  • simple columnar

  • pseudostratified

  • transitional

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

___________fibers would be the best choice to hold cells of lymph nodes together

Select one of the following:

  • dense irregular

  • reticular

  • dense regular

  • areolar connective tissue

  • white fibrous

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

Choose the correct phase

Select one of the following:

  • microvilli are a characteristic of pseudostratified epithelium

  • microvilli are found on all epithelial cells

  • goblet cells are found in transitional epithelium

  • glandular epithelium is considered to be stratified cuboidal

  • stratified columnar is relatively rare

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

Structures like the urinary bladder need __________ epithelium.

Select one of the following:

  • simple squamous

  • stratified squamous

  • stratified cuboidal

  • transitional

  • stratified columnar

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

All of the following are functions of bone except

Select one of the following:

  • support

  • protection

  • calcium production

  • fat storage

  • blood cell formation

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

Which of the following muscle types is voluntary?

Select one of the following:

  • smooth and skeletal

  • only skeletal

  • cardiac and smooth

  • skeletal and cardiac

  • skeletal and smooth

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

Nervous system cancers typically affect

Select one of the following:

  • neurons

  • neuroglia

  • nerves

  • macrophages

  • chondrocytes

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

Which is true about the integument?

Select one of the following:

  • the hypodermis is the innermost layer of the skin

  • it is a form of serous membrane

  • the papillary layer is superficial to the epidermis

  • it is also called a mucosal membrane

  • it is considered an epithelial membrane

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

Which stratum performs the highest rate of cell division?

Select one of the following:

  • corneum

  • lucidum

  • granulosum

  • spinosum

  • basale

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

A feature we call the anti-codon is found in

Select one of the following:

  • mRNA

  • tRNA

  • rRNA

  • DNA

  • the ribosome

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

Which skin cell produces a material that protect against UV?

Select one of the following:

  • keratinocytes

  • fibroblasts

  • hemocytoblasts

  • langerhan's cells

  • melanocytes

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

Which is true of a protein that is 200 amino acids long?

Select one of the following:

  • the RNA that coded for the protein was 203 nucleotides long

  • there were 201 codons in the mRNA that coded for the protein

  • it required 199 polyribosomes to make the protein

  • each tRNA must have possessed 201 anti-codons

  • each ribosome was 201 codons long

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • holocrine glands secrete by exocytosis

  • sebaceous cells die when they secrete

  • sudoriferous glands are found mostly in the axillary and pubic areas

  • most endocrine glands perform holocrine secretion

  • goblet cells possess small multicellular ducts

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

Which glands empty into a follicle?

Select one of the following:

  • apocrine only

  • eccrine only

  • apocrine and eccrine

  • apocrine and sebaceous

  • sebaceous and eccrine

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

Choose the correct phrase

Select one of the following:

  • goblet cells are the smallest of the multicellular glands

  • unicellular glands can be found in some simple columnar epithelia

  • multicellular glands are often called transitional

  • endocrine glands are typically simple coiled tubular

  • goblet cells are part of all mucosal membranes

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • lacunae are the solid layers of calcified tissue found in bone

  • the central canal contains the largest osteocytes

  • perforating canals are found in hyaline cartilage

  • hyaline cartilage contains the lowest number of collagen fibers

  • canaliculi contain microscopic blood vessels and nerves

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

Which of the following is true about cutaneous membrane?

Select one of the following:

  • possesses a keratinized epithelium

  • integument lines cavities open to the outside environment

  • it is important in calcium production

  • consists of 3 layers: epidermis, dermis and hypodermis

  • dense regular CT gives it it's strength

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

Choose the correct phase

Select one of the following:

  • hematopoietic tissue in adults is found in most long bones

  • the epiphyseal plate is characteristic of bones in children

  • perforating fibers connect the endosteum to the bone

  • endosteum consists entirely of osteoblasts

  • periosteum lines the cavities within bone

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • the osteogenic layer contains only osteoblasts

  • endosteum contains only osteoclasts

  • another name for spongy bone in flat bones is diploe

  • hyaline cartilage lines the medullary cavity

  • the fibrous layer of the periosteum mostly consists of osteoblasts and osteoclasts

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

Which is the best choice of material for the fibrous periosteum?

Select one of the following:

  • dense irregular

  • elastic

  • dense regular

  • areolar

  • reticular

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • red marrow is found in the osteons of infants

  • fetal bone contains a larger percentage inorganic materials than adult bone

  • lacunae are the solid rings of the bone found in Haversian systems

  • perforating canals run in the same direction as osteons

  • east osteon contains blood vessels and nerves

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

Which conditions must be met so translation can occur?

Select one of the following:

  • gene transcription must occur

  • tRNAs must match up with codons

  • mRNA must leave the nucleus

  • rRNA must be available

  • all are true

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

Choose the correct term-definition match

Select one of the following:

  • condyle - flat articular surface

  • epicondyle - pointed articular surface

  • process - rounded articular projection

  • foramen - depression in bone

  • none is correctly matched

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • endosteal destruction is faster in osteomalacia

  • osteoporosis is also called "soft bones"

  • the chemical compositions of bone in osteoporosis is normal

  • remodeling occurs before the formation of the bony callus

  • rickets is a form of osteoporosis in children

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

Which is true about muscle tissue?

Select one of the following:

  • skeletal muscle is lightly striated

  • cardiac muscle cells possess many nuclei

  • smooth muscle is called "smooth" because the cell lacks striations

  • intercalated discs are a feature of smooth muscle

  • all of these are true

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

Choose the correct phase

Select one of the following:

  • osteoid is inorganic

  • osteocytes are part of the inorganic components of bone

  • 35% of bone composition is inorganic

  • 65% of bone composition is organic

  • bone can withstand 15,000 PSI tension

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • trabeculae are part of compact bone

  • appositional growth is from within

  • all bones continue to grow throughout life

  • there are always exactly 206 bones in the skeleton

  • the girdles are part of the appendicular system

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • arrector pilli are a form of involuntary muscle

  • a tiny skeletal muscle is connected to each hair follicle

  • the connective tissue root sheath is in contact with the hair

  • the hair is a dermal derrivative

  • vellus hairs are thick coarse hairs

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • chromatin is tightly coiled DNA

  • DNA polymerase produces the mRNA strand

  • the nucleus is found within the nucleolus

  • a polyribosome consists of one mRNA with many ribosomes on it

  • DNA is in the chromosome form during translation

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

Which is a sharp, pointed projection

Select one of the following:

  • ramus

  • tuberosity

  • crest

  • spine

  • epicondyle

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

Which is true about bone remodeling?

Select one of the following:

  • PTH is part of mechanical remodeling

  • PTH stimulates osteoblast activity

  • PTH causes decreased blood calcium

  • PTH stimulates osteoclast activity

  • PTH does not have much of a function in humans

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

Which is found only on the femur?

Select one of the following:

  • tubercle

  • tuberosity

  • trochanter

  • crest

  • line

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

Which is a rounded articular projection?

Select one of the following:

  • spine

  • crest

  • line

  • condyle

  • epicondyle

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

The patella is a special form of __________ bone that develops within tendons

Select one of the following:

  • long

  • short

  • irregular

  • flat

  • None is correct

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • the costal cartilages are elastic

  • respiratory cartilages are formed of fibrocartilage

  • the external ear is hyaline cartilage

  • intervertebral discs are elastic cartilage

  • the menisci of the knee are fibrocartilage

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

Which are correctly paired regarding the skin

Select one of the following:

  • Langerhans - chemical protection

  • sweat - physical barrier

  • squamous cells - chemical barrier

  • fibroblasts - found in the dermis

  • none of these are correctly paired

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

Where does keratinization "officially" begin?

Select one of the following:

  • stratum granulosum

  • stratum spinosum

  • stratum basale

  • stratum corneum

  • stratum lucidum

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

Which stage of repair involves macrophages cleaning up debris?

Select one of the following:

  • bony callus

  • fibrocartilage callus

  • hematoma

  • remodeling

  • macrophages are not involved in repair

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

Epithelia are considered polar because

Select one of the following:

  • their outer surface is positively charged and their inner surface is negatively charged

  • they always have a basal surface and an apical surface

  • their outer surface is negatively charged and their inner surface is positively charged

  • they are hydrophilic

  • they contain phospholipids

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • all types of epithelial tissue stay together like sheets

  • cilia move things along the surface and are made of microfilaments

  • all connective tissue is very vascular

  • cartilage is vascular but has no nerve supply

  • none of these are true

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • meatus - slit like opening

  • fossa - canal-like passage

  • foramen - furrow

  • groove - indentation at the edge of a structure

  • fossa - shallow depression

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

Which gives rise to the nail?

Select one of the following:

  • epithelial root sheath

  • nail matrix

  • nail bed

  • connective root sheath

  • eponychium

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

All apply to eccrine glands except

Select one of the following:

  • most common sweat gland

  • simple coiled tubular gland

  • empties into a hair follicle

  • performs merocrine secretion

  • functions in thermoregulation

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

Using the code below ___ amino acids will be placed and ___ codons were required.

A-T-C-T-T-C-T-A-C-G-A-C-C-A-A-T-T-C-G-C-G-T-A-G-G-T-T-A-T-T-A-T-T

Select one of the following:

  • 5, 6

  • 6, 7

  • 7, 8

  • 9, 10

  • None of these is correct

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

A flattened stack of sac-like membranes describes:

Select one of the following:

  • RER

  • SER

  • lysosomes

  • Golgi

  • centrioles

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

Disassembling the mitotic spindle is a characteristic of

Select one of the following:

  • metaphase

  • telophase

  • anaphase

  • prophase

  • cytokinesis

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

Carotene is found in the __________

Select one of the following:

  • epidermis

  • reticular layer

  • hypodermis

  • papillary layer

  • fibrous layer

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

Which is true of epithelia?

Select one of the following:

  • typically consists of closely packed cells

  • there is much ground substance and few cells

  • vascularity of epithelia varies

  • there are four basic cell shapes

  • stratified columnar is a common form of epithelium

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • mitosis is the longest part of the cell cycle

  • DNA is synthesized during mitosis

  • DNA is duplicated during the G phase of the cell cycle

  • cytokinesis is called division of the cytoplasm

  • cells only perform their normal functions during mitosis

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

Which must be true of developing bone?

Select one of the following:

  • primary and secondary ossification occurs in endochondral formation

  • primary ossification occurs later than secondary

  • the epiphyseal line is a characteristic of fetal bone

  • primary ossification occurs in the epiphysis

  • most long bones form by intramembranous ossification

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

The H-zone is lighter in color than the rest of the A-band because

Select one of the following:

  • light only needs to go through myosin in the H-zone

  • light only needs to go through actin in the H-zone

  • the H-zone proteins are thinner than I-band proteins

  • of overlapping sarcomeres

  • actin plus myosin overlap in the H-zone

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

Which of the following muscles is named according to origin/insertion?

Select one of the following:

  • pectoralis major

  • brachioradialis

  • deltoid

  • adductor longus

  • biceps femoris

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

Which of the following is a characteristic of smooth muscle but not cardiac muscle?

Select one of the following:

  • Z-discs

  • calmodulin

  • possesses mitochondria

  • contains sarcoplasm

  • sarcomeres

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

Of these actions, which is the first effect of acetylcholine on a myofiber?

Select one of the following:

  • tropomyosin is moved by troponin

  • sodium gates open

  • split ATP to ADP

  • calcium gates open

  • myosin grabs actin

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

Choose the correct phase

Select one of the following:

  • the fibula bears only half the weight that the tibia does

  • of the two condyles of the tibia, fibula is closest to the medial condyle

  • the fibula is triangular in cross section

  • the patellar notch is found on the femur

  • medial malleolus is on the fibula

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

Choose the correct phase

Select one of the following:

  • sacroiliac joint is between sacrum and L5

  • iliac fossa is the socket of the hip

  • phalanges are classified as short bones

  • the tarsus contains the talus

  • ischial tuberosity is part of the femur

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

What would happen if AChE is removed from the neuromuscular junction yet ACh remains?

Select one of the following:

  • sodium gates in the sarcolemma would remain open

  • the all-or-none response would not occur

  • ATP would be depleted (to zero) in the neuron

  • the motor neuron would not be able to generate an impulse

  • the muscle cell would not be able to contract

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

Choose the correct match

Select one of the following:

  • femur - largest bone in the upper limb

  • radius - head is distal

  • acromion - found on scapula

  • carpus - palm

  • fibula - proximal end possesses two condyles

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

A fulcrum of a lever system is the

Select one of the following:

  • weight that the muscle moves

  • load

  • distance from effort to resistance

  • point on which a lever moves

  • area where the muscle attaches

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

Which is the best match

Select one of the following:

  • multi-unit - small intestine

  • multi-unit - large intestine

  • multi-unit - stomach

  • multi-unit - blood vessel wall

  • single unit - iris of the eye

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

Which is true during a muscle twitch (in voluntary muscle)?

Select one of the following:

  • actin shortens

  • neither actin nor myosin shortens

  • ACh activates diffuse junctions

  • both actin and myosin shorten

  • myosin shortens

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

Which would be the best design to gain the most strength? A muscle with

Select one of the following:

  • long fibers in a second class lever system

  • short fibers attached close to the fulcrum of a third class lever system

  • long fibers in a first class lever system

  • long fibers attached close to the fulcrum in a third class lever system

  • short fibers in a mechanical advantage lever system

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

Choose the correct match

Select one of the following:

  • perpendicular plate - ethmoid

  • parietal - posterior inferior part of the skull

  • sphenoid - tympanic region

  • sphenoid - foramen magnum

  • frontal - forms most of the cranium

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • myofibers possess a wrapper called epimysium

  • endomysium surrounds individual myofibrils

  • endomysium covers fascicles

  • perimysium wraps fascicles

  • epimysium directly wraps fascicles

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

Of the list, which allows the most precise control of muscle force production?

Select one of the following:

  • the size of the muscle cell (larger diameter means better control)

  • motor units designed with many muscle cells per unit

  • a single neuron innervating an entire muscle

  • the largest number of neuron endings per motor unit

  • muscles with 4 muscle cells per motor unit

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

Choose the correct phase

Select one of the following:

  • gomphoses are an example of a diarthrotic joint

  • diarthroses are synovial

  • fibrous joints are amphiarthroses

  • sutures are considered amphiarthrotic

  • synarthroses are considered to be slightly movable

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

Choose the correct phase about the vertebral column

Select one of the following:

  • vertebrae possess processes

  • pedicles are located at the base of the spinous processes

  • the transverse process is on the midline of the vertebral body

  • the vertebral arch bears most of the weight

  • the vertebral foramen is posterior to the vertebral arch

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

Choose the correct phase

Select one of the following:

  • calcaneus possesses the lateral malleolus

  • talus is the heel

  • two large carpals support the weight of the body

  • Achilles tendon attaches to the calcaneus

  • metatarsus is the palm

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

Which is true?

Select one of the following:

  • elastic cartilage is found at the anterior midline of the pelvis

  • the ischium is the largest flaring part of the pelvis

  • the tibial tuberosity is a feature of the femur

  • the heads of the metatarsals are the "knuckles" of a fist

  • none is true

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

Choose the correct match

Select one of the following:

  • bursae are wrapped around tendons

  • the fibrous capsule of a tendon sheath is formed of dense regular CT

  • synovial membrane forms the superficial layer of a bursa

  • bursae are fibrous sacs filled with synovial fluid

  • tendon sheaths are built like synarthroses

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

Choose the correct match

Select one of the following:

  • ankle - is part of the leg

  • fibula - rotates

  • head of femur - distal

  • medial malleolus - part of the fibula

  • radius - lateral bone in anatomical position

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

Which of the following is named according to its shape?

Select one of the following:

  • gluteus medius

  • tibialis anterior

  • levator ventralis

  • temporalis

  • trapezius

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

Rigor mortis occurs because

Select one of the following:

  • calcium is not available for the power stroke

  • ATP is not available to release calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

  • ATP is not available to detach myosin from actin

  • ATP is not available to reset the myosin ATPase

  • ATP is not available to attach myosin to actin

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

Cartilagenous joints can be found in which of the following categories?

Select one of the following:

  • diarthrosis and amphiarthrosis

  • synarthrosis and diarthrosis

  • synarthrosis only

  • amphiarthrosis only

  • amphiarthrosis and synarthrosis

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

Which of the following is an example of a purely isometric contraction?

Select one of the following:

  • riding a bicycle for a full day

  • lifting a book

  • running a marathon

  • walking carefully so that you do not become fatigued

  • unsuccessfully trying to lift a weight

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

Which is true about a striated myofiber that is contracting?

Select one of the following:

  • calcium gates in the SR are open

  • sodium gates are closed

  • ACh diffuses into the sarcoplasm

  • calmodulin has moved out of the way

  • Z-discs are shortening

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

Which is an example of a first-class lever system?

Select one of the following:

  • load in the middle, effort and fulcrum at either end

  • fulcrum and effort together at one end and load at the other

  • effort in the middle, fulcrum and load at either end

  • load and effort together at one end and fulcrum at the other

  • fulcrum in the middle and effort and resistance at either end

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

What is the definition of the origin of a muscle?

Select one of the following:

  • the distal attachment of a muscle to a structure

  • any attachment of muscle to bone

  • the attachment of a muscle to a structure that will be moving

  • the proximal attachment of a muscle to a structure

  • the attachment of a muscle to the stationary structure

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

Which bone helps in laryngeal movement?

Select one of the following:

  • hyoid

  • vomer

  • petrous portion

  • zygomatic

  • palatine

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

What would happen if a weight lifter began training to be a marathon runner?

Select one of the following:

  • the fibers would become less red in color

  • small red fibers would be transformed into intermediate fibers

  • the number of mitochondria in the fibers would decrease

  • the number of myofilaments in the fibers would increase

  • cell diameter would decrease

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

If a person was born with a long torso (like the one in lab), where would we find the extra vertebra?

Select one of the following:

  • lumbar

  • thoracic

  • cervical

  • sacral

  • coccygeal

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

Muscles are named according to their

Select one of the following:

  • shape

  • location in the body

  • origin and insertion points

  • action

  • all of these are correct

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

Which is true of myofibers?

Select one of the following:

  • they contract to 70% of their resting length

  • a long muscle cell is stronger than a short muscle cell

  • partial contraction is possible if there is a small amount of neurotransmitter released

  • they are graded rather than all-or-none

  • a short muscle cell is stronger than a long muscle cell

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

Which is the most reasonable about a muscle named Pronator teres?

Select one of the following:

  • involved in foot movement

  • turns palm anteriorly

  • named for its size

  • names for its shape

  • turns palm posteriorly

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

Choose the correct statement

Select one of the following:

  • the pelvis is the girdle for the lower limb

  • the femur is part of the leg

  • digit 1 is formed of three bones

  • the radius is part of the arm

  • none of these are correct

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

Why are striations seen in muscle tissue? Because of

Select one of the following:

  • the thin and thick areas of the sarcolemma

  • the stretching of the connective tissues

  • the shadow of the Z-disc

  • the way troponin and tropomyosin interact

  • the way that actin and myosin filaments overlap

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

Choose the correct matches about the arches of the foot

Select one of the following:

  • transverse - runs from ankle to toe

  • medial longitudinal - arches higher than the lateral longitudinal

  • medial longitudinal - same side as digit 5

  • lateral longitudinal - same side as digit 1

  • all of these are true

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • petrous region of maxilla forms the bridge of the nose

  • vomer does not articulate with any other bone

  • palatine is the posterior 1/3 of the soft palate

  • sphenoid contains hypophyseal fossa

  • perpendicular plate is about the size of a fingernail

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

Choose the correct statement

Select one of the following:

  • vertebrosternal ribs are attached posteriorly to the sternum

  • vertebrosternal ribs are in between vertebrochondral and vertebral ribs

  • vertebrosternal ribs are the last 5 pair

  • floating ribs articulate posteriorly with lumbar vertebrae

  • the number of thoracic vertebrae typically does not vary from one person to the next

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

Which would result in the largest increase in muscle force production?

Select one of the following:

  • activate wave summation

  • applying more ACh to the synaptic cleft

  • stimulating the existing motor units more rapidly

  • stimulating the muscle cells to contract with more force

  • activating additional motor units

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

The all-or-none concept applies to

Select one of the following:

  • motor units and myofibers

  • whole muscle

  • muscle cells only

  • motor units and myofilaments

  • motor units only

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

Immediately after the voltage sensitive gates in the S.R. open

Select one of the following:

  • sodium endocytosis begins

  • sarcoplasmic calcium level rises

  • there is a dramatic decrease in ATP consumption

  • it's voltage-senstive sodium gates open

  • the myofiber pumps calcium into the interstitial area

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

Which is the agonist in forearm extension?

Select one of the following:

  • brachioradialis

  • trapezius

  • triceps femoris

  • triceps brachii

  • biceps brachii

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

Choose the correct phase

Select one of the following:

  • the joint capsule is formed of dense regular connective tissue

  • reinforcing ligaments are always found inside joints

  • the synovial membrane contains areolar connective tissue

  • the joint cavity is filled with hyaline cartilage

  • articular cartilage is usually fibrocartilage for strength reasons

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

Which phrase best describes a motor unit?

Select one of the following:

  • myofiber and all the neurons it stimulates

  • nerve and all the muscle cells it stimulates

  • neuron and all the myofilaments it stimulates

  • neuron and all the myofibers it stimulates

  • group of muscles working together

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

The lambdoidal suture is formed between the

Select one of the following:

  • two parietal bones on the midline of the skull

  • parietals and temporals

  • frontal and parietals

  • temporal and frontal

  • none is true

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

Which muscle has fascicle arrangement on a single side of a central tendon?

Select one of the following:

  • convergent

  • unipennate

  • circular

  • multipennate

  • parallel

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

What would happen if you applied a chemical that blocks ACh binding to muscle cells?

Select one of the following:

  • calcium will quickly flood the sarcoplasm

  • the neuron would no longer produce ACh

  • the neuron would not be capable of firing

  • voltage sensitive gates in the S.R. would not open

  • sodium would immediately enter the muscle cell

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

Which is true about smooth muscle?

Select one of the following:

  • contains troponin

  • does not respond to ACh

  • contains Z-discs

  • the stress-relaxation response is a characteristic

  • the cells are multinucleate

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

Choose the correct phase

Select one of the following:

  • nodding the head is a function of the atlas moving on the axis

  • the posterior inferior part of the coxal bone is called the ilium

  • trochlea is found on the ulna

  • the intervertebral foramen contains the spinal cord

  • maxillary bones are fused along the midline

Explanation

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